Month: March 2024

Section 1:Language courses  

Questions 1-8: Matching information with correct courses

[The rules for finding answers to this sort of question are simple. Just find the keywords and read around different courses carefully. Then, give a quick look to check whether there is another information or idea provided by the same course in the text. If there is, check the reference carefully and decide your answer. Remember, the questions may not follow any sequential order.]

Question 1: Which advertisement mentions

up-to-date teaching systems?

Keywords for this question: up-to-date, teaching systems,    

Have a close look at advertisement B.

Here, LATEST METHODS = up-to-date teaching systems,  

So, the answer is: B

Question 2: Which advertisement mentions

that the institution has been established for a significant time?  

Keywords for this question: established, for a significant time,      

In advertisement E, have a close look at the first bullet point.

Here, more than 24 years’ experience = established for a significant time,  

So, the answer is: E               

Question 3: Which advertisement mentions

examination classes?

Keywords for this question: examination classes,

Again, in advertisement E look at the second bullet point.

Here, Test preparation = examination classes, 

So, the answer is: E  

Question 4: Which advertisement mentions

that arrangements can be made for activities outside class?

Keywords for this question: arrangements, activities outside class,        

In the lower side of advertisement C, we find the mention of activities outside class in point no. 3.

Here, Study Tours Available = arrangements for activities outside class,  

So, the answer is: C    

Question 5: Which advertisement mentions

the availability of courses for school students?

Keywords for this question: courses for school students,   

Take a look at point no. 3 at advertisement D.

Here, High School Crash Course = courses for school students,

So, the answer is: D

Question 6: Which advertisement mentions

language teaching for special purposes?

Keywords for this question: language teaching, special purposes,        

Advertisement B talks about language teaching for special purposes.

Here, BUSINESS, HOSPITALITY OR TRAVEL = special purposes,  

So, the answer is: B

Question 7: Which advertisements mention

a wide variety of language choices?

Keywords for this question: wide variety, language choices,   

Both Advertisements A and B mention a wide variety of language choices.

Here, *Mandarin, * Cantonese, *Thai, *Vietnamese, *Korean, *Indonesian, *English, *Spanish, *Italian, *German, *Russian = a wide variety of language choices,

Here, CHOICE OF 9 LANGUAGES = a wide variety of language choices,

So, the answer is: A, B

Question 8: Which advertisements mention

evening classes?  

Keywords for this question: evening classes,  

Both advertisements B and D contain information about evening classes.

Here, DAY AND EVENING COURSES = day and evening classes,

Here, morning or evening = day and evening classes

So, the answer is: B, D

Questions 9-13: MAIN STREET, GATTON RE-DEVELOPMENT

Questions 9-13:  TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 9: The road will be closed for two days and not re-opened until Monday.

Keywords for this question: road, will be closed, two days, not re-opened, until Monday,     

Let’s have a look at the first paragraph. “The next stage in the re-development of the roads in the town of Gatton will mean that Main Street will be closed between Little and Denning Streets from 6am on Saturday, 12 August to 6pm on Sunday, 13 August. The intersections of these streets with Main Street will not be affected.”

Here, from 6am on Saturday, 12 August to 6pm on Sunday, 13 August mean that the road will be closed for two days and re-open from Monday.

So, the answer is: FALSE          

Question 10: The road will be open as far as Little Street.

Keywords for this question: road, will be open, as far as, Little Street,     

Again, the first paragraph gives us the answer to this question. “The next stage in the re-development of the roads in the town of Gatton will mean that Main Street will be closed between Little and Denning Streets from 6am on Saturday, 12 August to 6pm on Sunday, 13 August. The intersections of these streets with Main Street will not be affected.”

Here, The intersections of these streets with Main Street will not be affected = the road will be open s far as Little Street,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 11: Work on the road will continue each weekend for the next month.

Keywords for this question: work, will continue, each weekend, next month,       

The answer can be traced in the first and second paragraphs of the notice.

 In the first paragraph, the writer says, “The next stage in the re-development of the roads in the town of Gatton will mean that Main Street will be closed between Little and Denning Streets from 6am on Saturday, 12 August to 6pm on Sunday, 13 August. The intersections of these streets with Main Street will not be affected.” This means work on the road will continue for two days.

Then, in the second paragraph, the writer says, “We expect that the work will be completed at this time without further disruption to traffic.”  

Here, the work will be completed at this time = it will need only two days to complete the re-development work; NOT each weekend for the next month.  

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 12: Temporary traffic lights will operate at intersections with Main Street.

Keywords for this question: temporary traffic lights, will operate, intersections, Main Street,  

There is no mention of any temporary traffic lights in this notice.

So the answer is: NOT GIVEN  

Question 13: There will be bus services to the university throughout the weekend.

Keywords for this question: bus services, to the university, throughout the weekend,   

The answer lies in paragraph no. 4 where the writer says, “No university bus services will operate through the area between Little and Denning Streets. However, alternative services will operate on bus routes 566 and 45 between Gatton Road, the town centre and the university.”

This means there will be alternative bus services to the university throughout the weekend.

So the answer is: TRUE  

Section 2:Ashwood College

Questions 14-20: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 14: Overseas students must pay a deposit when they apply for a course at the college.

Keywords for this question: overseas students, must pay, deposit, when, apply,   

At the top of the enrolment details, we can see the condition for overseas students. It says,

“How to enrol if you are abroad . . .

Please complete the Application Form and send this with the correct Non-Returnable Deposit (see below) to: The Overseas Registrar, Ashwood College, 20 Glossop Street, Midhaven. . . .”

Here, abroad = overseas, Non-Returnable Deposit = the deposit that overseas students must pay,

So the answer is: TRUE  

Question 15: Outstanding fees are payable by the end of the first week of the course.

Keywords for this question: outstanding fees, payable, by the end, first week,  

Take a look at the bottom of the enrolment details.

Here, in the ‘Deposits/payment’ section, take a look at point no. 2,

“2. Any balance of course and accommodation fees must be paid in full by the first day of your course.” 

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 16: Classes are organised according to ability level.  

Keywords for this question: classes, organised, ability level,   

Take a look at the bottom of the enrolment details.

Here, in the ‘Location and Time of Courses’ section, take a look at lines 3-5, “Before entry to the school, students must take an entry test to determine the level of class they enter. .. . .”

Here, entry test to determine the level of class they enter = classes are organised according to ability level, 

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 17: There is a break between each lesson. 

Keywords for this question: break, between, each lesson,      

Again, at the bottom of the enrolment details, have a look at the first point of the ‘Conditions’ section.

“Timetable

Each hour consists of 50 minutes’ tuition and a 10-minute break.”

This line suggests that there is a 10-minute break between each lesson.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 18: Students may change courses at any time during the term. 

Keywords for this question: students, may change courses, any time, during, term,  

This text does not contain any information about changing courses during term.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 19: Any student is permitted to take a week’s holiday during a 12-week course.

Keywords for this question: any student, permitted, take, week’s holiday, during, 12-week course,         

Again, at the bottom of the enrolment details, take a look at the ‘Student Holidays’ section,

“Students on long courses except examination preparation courses may take a holiday of one week every 12 weeks without losing their course fee for this period.”

Here, except examination preparation courses = students in examination preparation courses cannot take holiday,

So, the answer is: FALSE

THE TOTARA LANGUAGE INSTITUTE NEW ZEALAND

Questions 20-26: Summary completion:

[In this kind of questions candidates are given a summary for one, two or three paragraphs with some fill in the blanks questions. Candidates need to find out the related paragraphs by correctly studying the keywords from the questions. Then, they should follow the steps of finding answers for fill in the gaps.]

Example question: Overseas students who study at _____ may choose to spend more of their free time .. . .. .

Example answer: Totara Language Institute

Question 20: with local students by applying for a room in the _________ .

Keywords for this question: local students, by applying, for, room, in the,    

Take a close look above the first big paragraph. The author says here, “Choice of accommodation for all students – homestays with local families or in Halls of Residence with New Zealand students.”

Here, Choice of accommodation = room, New Zealand students = local students,

So, the answer is: (University) Halls of Residence

Question 21: Places are available here even for students enrolled on the minimum length course of _________.

Keywords for this question: places, available, even for students, enrolled, minimum length course,  

In the beginning of the text, take a look at the points given.

“Study English in a national university with students from many countries.

• 4-week blocks”

Here, 4-week blocks = minimum length course – 4 weeks,

Also, in the first paragraph, look at lines 2-3, “ .. . .. Intensive English classes are taught in four-week blocks throughout the year and students may enrol for as many blocks as they wish. … .”

So, the answer is: 4/ four weeks  

Question 22: Class sizes for each course range from _________ students and all the class teachers are well qualified; many of them teach on graduate programmes in areas such as applied linguistics.

Keywords for this question: class sizes, each course, range from, all the class teachers, well qualified,  

In the first paragraph, the writer says in lines 7-8, “ . .. .. Classes are small, usually from 10-12 students with a maximum number of 15, and normally contain a mix of students from a wide range of countries. … .. .”

Here, from 10 = minimum 10 students, maximum number of 15 = maximum 15 students,

So, the range of students is 10-15.

So, the answer is: 10-15 / ten to fifteen  

Question 23: As a member of the Language Institute you will automatically be able to join the ________.   

Keywords for this question: as, member, will automatically, be able to join,  

Lines 8-9 of the first paragraph say, “ . . . . Students who study English at the Language Institute become international members of the Waikato Students’ Union. … .. .”

Here, Students who study English = As a member, become = will automatically be able to join,

So, the answer is: (Waikato) Students’ Union

Questions 24 & 25: Hamilton can offer students a wide range of social activities. The city itself lies on either side of the 24. ________ which results in some very 25. ________ views and enjoyable walks in the gardens.

Keywords for this question: Hamilton, offer, wide range, social activities, city, lies on, either side of, results in, some very, views, enjoyable walks, gardens,

The first few lines of the second paragraph say, “Hamilton, one of New Zealand’s fastest growing cities, is ideally located for a wide range of leisure and cultural activities. The Waikato river, the longest river in New Zealand, flows through the centre of the city, providing a picturesque and park-like setting of riverside walks and gardens.

Here, leisure and cultural activities = social activities, flows through the centre of the = the city itself lies on either side of the river, providing = results in,

So, the answers are:

24. (Waikato) river
25. picturesque

Question 26: The Institute employs an activities co-ordinator who can help you organise your free time and you may also wish to make use of this service for planning your ________ when you leave New Zealand. Remember that a student permit is not valid when you have finished your studies.

Keywords for this question: Institute, employs, activities co-ordinator, help, organise, free time, may also wish, make use, for planning, when, leave New Zealand,  

In the final paragraph, the author of the text says in lines 1-3, “The Language Institute activities co-ordinator can assist students to arrange any sport and leisure activities. Assistance is also available for ongoing travel arrangements for students. Students on a visitor visa or work permit may study for a maximum of 3 months. .. .. .”

Here, assist = help, arrange any sport and leisure activities = organise your free time, wish to make use of this service = assistance is also available,

So, the answer is: (ongoing) travel (arrangements)

Section 3:

Questions 27: Multiple choice questions: Choosing the best title

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is set found as the last question set in most passages so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers for previous questions gives you a good idea about these questions.]

Tips: Always answer this question at the end. Never answer it first in the exam.

Question 27: From the list below choose the most suitable title for the whole of the Reading Passage. Write the appropriate letter A-D in box 27 on your answer sheet.

A. Pollution control in coal mining

B. The greenhouse effect

C. The coal industry and the environment

D. Sustainable population growth

Keywords for this answer: most suitable title,

The passage mainly talks about the coal industry and its effect in the environment.

So, the answer is: C (The coal industry and the environment)

Questions 28-31: List of headings

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph which will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

Tips to answer this question: Don’t read the list of headings first. Have a quick look at the questions, and go straight to the first question and start reading the paragraph associated with it. Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly, and don’t stop until you finish each sentence.]

Question no. 28: Section A

Section A contains two paragraphs.

First, look at the first line of the first paragraph, “Coal is expected to continue to account for almost 27 per cent of the world’s energy needs. .. …”

Then, look at the final line of the second paragraph, “ . .. .. Such measures are helping coal to maintain its status as a major supplier of the world’s energy needs.”

So, the answer is: v (Coal as an energy source)

Question no. 29: Section B

Section B contains four paragraphs and each of the paragraphs talks about ‘greenhouse effect’.

Take a look at the topic sentence, which is the very first line, “The coal industry has been targeted by its critics as a significant contributor to the greenhouse effect. .. ..”

So, the answer is: vi (Coal and the enhanced greenhouse effect)

Question no. 30: Section C

In section C, we find two paragraphs and each of them focuses on ‘research and development’. Look closely at the very first line, “The world-wide coal industry allocates extensive resources to researching and developing new technologies and ways of capturing greenhouse gases. .. ..”

So, the answer is: vii (Research and development)

Question no. 31: Section D

Section D contains four paragraphs and each of the paragraphs focuses on some measure to protect the environment.

Take a look at lines 2-5, “ … .. . By carefully pre-planning projects, implementing pollution control measures, monitoring the effects of mining and rehabilitating mined areas, the coal industry minimises the impact on the neighbouring community, the immediate environment and long-term land capability.”

Here, pollution control measures = environment protection measures,  

So, the answer is: iv (Environment protection measures)

Questions 32-36: Multiple choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is set found as the last question set in most passages so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers for previous questions gives you a good idea about these questions.]

Question no. 32: The global increase in greenhouse gases has been attributed to –

Keywords for this question: global increase, greenhouse gases, attributed to,    

In section B, take a look at the first lines of paragraph no. 3, “Greenhouse gases arise from a wide range of sources and their increasing concentration is largely related to the compound effects of increased population, improved living standards and changes in lifestyle. .. .. .”

Here, increased population, improved living standards and changes in lifestyle = trends in population and lifestyle,

So, the answer is: D (trends in population and lifestyle)

Question no. 33: The proportion of all greenhouse gases created by coal is approximately –

Keywords for this question: proportion, all greenhouse gases, created by coal, approximately,   

Again, in section B, the final lines of paragraph no. 4 say, “ .. . . . Coal’s total contribution to greenhouse gas emissions is thought to be about 18 per cent, with about half of this coming from electricity generation.”

Here, Coal’s total contribution to greenhouse gas emissions = The proportion of all greenhouse gases created by coal,

So, the answer is: B (18 per cent/18%)

Question no. 34: Current research aims to increase the energy-producing efficiency of coal by –

Keywords for this question: current research, aims to increase, energy-producing efficiency, coal, by,   

In section C, the first paragraph says, “The world-wide coal industry allocates extensive resources to researching and developing new technologies and ways of capturing greenhouse gases. Efficiencies are likely to be improved dramatically, and hence CO2 emissions reduced, through combustion and gasification techniques which are now at pilot and demonstration stages.”

Here, now at pilot and demonstration stages = current research … . . developing,

So, the answer is: B (developing new gasification techniques)

Question no. 35: Compared with ordinary coal, new, ‘clean’ coals may generate power –

Keywords for this answer: compared, ordinary coal, new, ‘clean’ coals, generate power,   

The final paragraph of section C talks about ‘clean’ coals. Here, the writer says, “Clean coal is another avenue for improving fuel conversion efficiency. .. . .”

Here, improving fuel conversion efficiency = generate power more cleanly and more efficiently,

So, the answer is: A (more cleanly and more efficiently)

Question no. 36: To control dust at mine sites, mining companies often use –  

Keywords for this question: to control, dust, mine sites, mining companies, often use,   

In section D lines 13 of paragraph no. 2, he author of the test writes, “Dust levels are controlled by spraying roads and stockpiles, and water pollution is controlled by carefully separating clean water runoff from runoff which contains sediments or salt from mine workings. .. .. .”

So, the answer is: D (runoff water containing sediments)

Questions 37-40: YES, NO, NOT GIVEN

In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question matches with the claim of the writer in the text- YESThe statement in the question contradicts with the claim of the writer in the text- NOThe statement in the question has no clear connection with the account in the text- NOT GIVEN

[TIPS: For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question no. 37: The coal industry should be abandoned in favour of alternative energy sources because of the environmental damage it causes.

Keywords for this question: coal industry, should be abandoned, favour, alternative energy sources, because, environmental damage,    

In section A, the first paragraph talks about the importance of the coal industry and why it should not be abandoned. “Coal is expected to continue to account for almost 27 per cent of the world’s energy needs. However, with growing international awareness of pressures on the environment and the need to achieve sustainable development of energy resources, the way in which the resource is extracted, transported and used is critical.”

Here, critical = extremely important,

So, the answer is: NO

Question no. 38: The greatest threats to the environment are the gases produced by industries which support the high standard of living of a growing world population.

Keywords for this question: greatest threats, environment, gases, support, high standard, living, growing world population,       

The first paragraph in section B talks about the greatest threats to the environment which are the different greenhouse gases. “The coal industry has been targeted by its critics as a significant contributor to the greenhouse effect. However, the greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon involving the increase in global surface temperature due to the presence of greenhouse gases – water vapour, carbon dioxide, tropospheric ozone, methane and nitrous oxide – in the atmosphere. Without the greenhouse effect, the earth’s average surface temperature would be 33-35 degrees C lower, or -15 degrees C. Life on earth, as we know it today, would not be possible.”

Here, the lines clearly state that greenhouse gases support the high standard of living of the growing population on the earth.

So, the answer is: YES

Question no. 39: World population in the twenty-first century will probably exceed 8 billion.

Keywords for this question: world population, twenty-first century, will probably, exceed, 8 billion,     

In section B, in the third paragraph, take a look at lines 3-4, “ . . .. From a current base of 5 billion, the United Nations predicts that the global population may stabilise in the twenty-first century between 8 and 14 billion, .. . ..”

Here, between 8 and 14 billion = exceed 8 billion,

So, the answer is: YES

Question 40: CFC emissions have been substantially reduced in recent years.

Keywords for this question: CFC emissions, substantially reduced, recent years,

In the fourth paragraph of section B, the writer talks about CFC emissions. However, no information is given about the reduction of CFC emissions in recent years.  

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Section 1:Lost, Damaged or Delayed Inland Mail Claim Form

Questions 1-7: Completing notes

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to complete different notes with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Title of the notes: Claiming compensation from the Royal Mail for lost, damaged or delayed mail

Question no. 1:

Before filling in the form

• go online to learn about their policies or get the _________ that contains the relevant information

Keywords for this question: before, go online, learn, policies, get, contains, relevant information,       

In paragraph no. 1 the writer says in the first lines, “Before completing this claim form for lost, damaged or delayed mail you should visit www.royalmail.com to find out all you need to know about our policies. Alternatively you can get the details from our ‘Mail Made Easy’ booklet, available at any local post office branch. .. … .”

Here, Before completing this claim form = Before filling in the form, you should visit www.royalmail.com = go online, to find out all you need to know about our policies = to learn about their policies, the details = the relevant information,

So, the answer is: booklet

Questions no. 2 & 3:

When filling in the form

• refer to the ________ to ensure all the relevant sections are completed

(You can use their 3. _______ to request action if you don’t have enough proof to make a claim.)

Keywords for this question: when filling, refer to, to ensure, all the relevant sections, completed, can use, to request action, if, don’t have, enough proof,

In paragraph no. 1, lines 4-7 say, “ . … . When you fill in the form, make sure you complete it in full, using the checklist that we have provided to help you. If you find that you do not have the evidence required to make a claim but would like us to investigate an issue with your mail service, the easiest way to do this is by visiting our website.”   

Here, When you fill in the form = When filling in the form, make sure = ensure, complete it in full = all the relevant sections are completed, using = refer to,

If you find that you do not have the evidence required to make a claim = if you don’t have enough proof to make a claim, would like us to investigate = request action,

So, the answers are:

2. checklist
3. website

Question no. 4:

When claiming compensation for a lost item

• in the case of a package, include something (e.g. bank statement) to prove its _________

Keywords for this question: when claiming compensation, lost item, package, bank statement, to prove,

The answer can be found in the ‘Lost items’ section, in lines 2-3, “ …. . .. . If claiming for the contents of a package, you also need to provide proof of value, e.g. till item reference number, receipt, bank statement, etc.”

Here, If claiming for the contents of a package = in the case of a package, to provide proof = to prove,

So, the answer is: value                     

Questions no. 5 & 6:

When claiming for the cost of a damaged item, include

• either the actual item or __________ showing the damage to the item

(You should keep the 6. ________ that was used when the item was originally sent.)

Keywords for this question: When claiming, cost, damaged item, include, either, actual item, showing, damage, should keep, was used, when, item, was originally sent,      

The answers are found in the ‘Damaged items’ section. Here, the author of the text writes in lines 2-4, “However, if these are very large or unsafe to post, you may instead provide photographs as evidence of the damage. Please retain the original packaging (and damaged items, if not sent to us) as we may need to inspect them.”

Here, evidence of the damage = showing the damage to the item,

retain = keep,

So, the answers are:

5. (provide) photograph(s) / photos
6. (original) packaging

Question no. 7:

When to claim

• Delayed items: if you are the ________, you must claim within three months of posting the package

Keywords for this question: when to claim, delayed items, if, you are, must claim within, three months, posting the package,     

In the second paragraph of the ‘Time restrictions’ section, the writer says in lines 2-3, “ . . ..  Claims for delayed items must be submitted within 3 months of the date they were posted if the claim is made by the sender, or within 1 month of receipt if the claim is made by the recipient of the item.”

So, the answer is: sender  

Days out for the family    

Questions 8-14: Identifying information:

[This question asks you to find information from the passage and write the number of the paragraph (A, B, C or D … .. ) in the answer sheet. Now, if the question is given in the very first part of the question set, I’d request you not to answer them. It’s mainly because this question will not follow any sequence, and so it will surely kill your time. Rather, you should answer all the other questions first. And just like List of Headings, only read the first two lines or last two lines of the expected paragraph initially. If you find the answers, you need not read the middle part. If you don’t find answers yet, you can skim the middle part of the paragraph. Keywords will be a useful matter here.]

Question no. 8: At certain times of year you can eat special meals here.  

Keywords for this question: certain times of year, can eat, special meals,

In the description of Carrickfergus Castle, lines 2-3 say, “ . . .. During summer, traditional feasts are served, . . . .. .”     

Here, During summer = at certain times of year, traditional feasts are served = you can eat special meals,

So, the answer is: A

Question no. 9: Children can get dressed up here.

Keywords for this question: children, dressed up,     

Take a close look at the description of Warwick Castle. Here, line no. 2 say, “. . .. Children can even get to try on armour to see how heavy it is. .. . .”

Here, get to try on armour = get dressed up,

So, the answer is: F

Question no. 10: There is another castle in the same area.  

Keywords for this question: another castle, same area,  

In the description of Pickering Castle, the writer says in the last lines, “ .. . Nearby Helmsley Castle is also worth a visit.”

Here, Nearby Helmsley Castle = another castle in the same area,

So, the answer is: D

Question no. 11: A lot of stories are told about this place,   

Keywords for this question: a lot of stories, are told, about, this place,     

Take a close look at the description of Glamis Castle. Here, in lines 3-4, the writer says, “ .. . There are many ghost tales associated with this castle, which will capture the imagination of younger visitors.”  

Here, many ghost tales = a lot of stories are told, associated with this castle = about this place,

So, the answer is: B

Question no. 12: Part of the castle may be frightening for some children.  

Keywords for this question: part, may be frightening, some children,      

In the description of Stokesay Castle, the writer says in lines 2-4, “ . .. Children of all ages will enjoy learning at these and there is a guided tour which has been especially designed with younger visitors in mind. Some of them may find the dungeon quite scary though.” 

Here, the dungeon = part of the castle, quite scary = frightening,

So the answer is: E

Question no. 13: Plays are performed here during part of the year.     

Keywords for this question: plays, performed, part of the year,    

Again, in the description of Pickering Castle, the writer says in lines 2-3, “. . . .There are lots of special events too, including a chance to come along and see some plays which are put on during the summer months. .. . .” 

Here, plays which are put on = plays are performed, during the summer months = during part of the year,

So the answer is: D

Question no. 14: A guided tour is offered which is particularly suitable for children.  

Keywords for this question: guided tour, offered, particularly suitable, children,    

Right above the ‘GIFT VOUCHERS’ section, there’s a small note that says,

Again, in the description of Stokesay Castle, the writer says in lines 2-3, “ . .. Children of all ages will enjoy learning at these and there is a guided tour which has been especially designed with younger visitors in mind. . . .. . .

Here, especially designed with younger visitors in mind = which is particularly suitable for children,

So the answer is: E

Section 1:Call anywhere in the state for one low short-distance rate!

Questions 1-7: (Classifying groups)

[This type of question asks candidates to classify information from the given reading text. Candidates are given some groups from the text, and a list of options, which are listed as A, B, C, etc. They must match the correct groups with the correct options.

N.B.: This question doesn’t follow any sequence. So, they should be answered after all other questions in the passage.]

Question 1: The monthly access fee is the highest but the call rates are the lowest.

Keywords for this question: monthly access fee, highest, but, call rates, lowest,    

The answer to this question is found in the table.

Take a look at the HIGHFLIER section where you can see the Monthly access fee and the call rates:

If you compare the call rates in the HIGHFLIER plan with other plans, you will see that these call rates are the lowest.

So, the answer is: C (the HIGHFLIER plan)

Question 2: Calls are charged at short-distance or long-distance rates.

Keywords for this question: calls, charged, short-distance, long-distance, rates,    

The answer is found in the first paragraph, in lines 2-3, “ . . . .. Calls in each plan are charged at only two rates – short-distance and long-distance… . … .”

Here, each plan = ALL three plans,

So, the answer is: D (ALL three of the plans)

Question 3: This plan is NOT primarily intended for people who need a mobile phone for their work.

Keywords for this question: NOT primarily intended, need a mobile phone, for their work,  

The answer lies in LEISURETIME section in the very beginning, “Your mobile phone is mainly for personal use. You use your phone to keep family and friends in touch. You don’t want to strain your budget.”

Here, Your mobile phone is mainly for personal use = LEISURETIME plan is intended for people who need a mobile phone for their personal use, NOT for their work, 

So, the answer is: A (the LEISURETIME plan)

Question 4: This plan is a cost-effective choice if you spend just over $100 a month on calls.

Keywords for this question: cost-effective choice, if, spend, just over $100 a month, on calls,   

Take a close look at the table:

The blue circles indicate that the EXECUTIVE plan is the best choice to save money (cost-effective) as the range is just over $100 ($95-$180).

So, the answer is: B (the EXECUTIVE plan)

Question 5: It costs 21 cents for a 30-second long-distance call at 2 p.m.

Keywords for this question: costs, 21 cents, 30-second, long-distance call, 2 pm,   

Take a look at the table again and follow all the blue circles.

So, the answer is: C (the HIGHFLIER plan)

Question 6: The connection fee is $30.

Keywords for this question: connection fee, $30,  

Take a look at the last line of the table:

This means the connection fee for all three plans is the same which is $30.

So, the answer is: D (ALL three of the plans)

Question 7: You will have to pay a minimum amount for calls each month.  

Keywords for this question: have to pay, minimum amount, calls, each month,   

In the LEISURETIME plan section, take a look at the last line, “ . . .However, a monthly minimum call charge applies.” We find the mention of ‘minimum call charge’ in LEISURETIME plan only.

So, the answer is: A (the LEISURETIME plan)

Questions 8-14: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Westwinds Farm Campsite  

Question 8: The campsite is open all year round.

Keywords for this question: campsite, open, all year round,  

Let’s have a look at the beginning of the text. It says, “Open April-September.” This means the campsite is NOT open all year round.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 9: You should book ahead for the busier times of the year.

Keywords for this question: should book ahead, busier times,   

The second line says, “(Booking is advised for holidays in July and August to guarantee a place.)”

Here, Booking is advised = should book ahead, holidays = busier times,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 10: The minimum stay at the campsite is two nights.  

Keywords for this question: minimum stay, campsite, two nights, 

We cannot find any information about the minimum stay at the campsite.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 11: The entrance to the campsite is locked after 10 p.m.

Keywords for this question: entrance, locked, after 10 p.m.,   

This information is also NOT available. The third bullet point only says, “Let sleeping campers have some peace. Don’t make any noise after 10 o’clock at night or before 7.30 in the morning.” It doesn’t say anything about the campsite being locked after 10 p.m.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 12: No dogs are allowed on the campsite.  

Keywords for this question: no dogs, allowed,   

In the fourth bullet point, it says, “Dogs must be kept on a lead. Owners of dogs that disturb other campers by barking through the night will be asked to leave.”

This means dogs are allowed but they should be under their owners’ control.

So the answer is:FALSE

Question 13: You are not allowed to cook food on open fires.   

Keywords for this question: not allowed, to cook food, open fires,

The sixth bullet point says, “The lighting of fires is strictly prohibited.”

Here, lighting of fires = cooking on open fires, strictly prohibited = not allowed,

So the answer is:TRUE

Question 14: The owners of the campsite may not allow you to camp there.

Keywords for this question: owners, may not allow, camp there,  

The very last line of the text says, “The management reserves the right to refuse admittance.”

Here, the management = the owners, reserves the right to refuse admittance = may not allow you to camp, 

So the answer is:TRUE 

Section 2:The law on minimum pay

Questions 15-21: Completing sentences (NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER)

[In this kind of question candidates have to fill in the gaps, only with some conditions like NO MORE THAN THREE/TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER or, ONE WORD ONLY. Each question has keywords that will lead to the answer. This question type generally follows a sequence.]

Question 15: The law on minimum pay doesn’t cover you if you are working in your ________ or if you are a volunteer.

Keywords for this question: law, minimum pay, doesn’t cover you, if, working, volunteer,    

The answer is in the first section ‘Who is entitled to minimum pay?’. Here, lines 2-3 say, “Amongst those to whom it does not apply are those engaged in unpaid work and family members employed by the family business.”

Here, does not apply = the law on minimum pay doesn’t cover, engaged in unpaid work = volunteer,

So, the answer is: family business

Question 16: You may be paid under £5 an hour if you are receiving _________ at the start of a job.  

Keywords for this question: may be paid, under £5 an hour, receiving, start of a job,

The answer can be found in the second section of the text named ‘What is the minimum wage that I am entitled to?’. Here, in lines 3-4, the writer says, “ . .. . . The development rate for 18-21 year olds and for workers getting training in the first 6 months of a job is £4.60 per hour.”

Here, getting = receiving, £4.60 per hour = under £5 an hour,

So, the answer is: training

Question 17: There are different rules for people who are provided with ________ with their jobs.   

Keywords for this question: different rules, provided with, with their jobs,

The answer is in the second section of the text named ‘What is the minimum wage that I am entitled to?, in lines 5-6. The author says here, “ .. . . There are special provisions for some workers, for example, those whose job includes accommodation.”

Here, special provisions = different rules, job includes = with their jobs,

So, the answer is: accommodation

Question 18: If you earn extra money, for example for working longer hours or in tips, this counts as part of your wage when you receive it via ___________. 

Keywords for this question: earn extra money, working longer hours, in tips, counts as part of, wage, when, receive it via,   

The answer is in the second section of the text entitled ‘What is the minimum wage that I am entitled to?, in lines 6-8. The author says here, “ .. . . Pay means gross pay and includes any items paid through the payroll such as overtime, bonus payments, commission and tips and gratuities.”

Here, overtime = working longer hours, paid through = receive it via,

So, the answer is: (the) payroll

Question 19: Anyone being paid below the National Minimum Wage should speak to their _______ if they can.

Keywords for this question: paid below, the National Minimum Wage, should speak, if they can, 

The answer is in the third section of the text which has a long title: ‘I believe I’m being paid below the National Minimum Wage Rate. How can I complain?’, in paragraph no. 1 bullet point 1,

“If you are being paid less than this, there are various steps you can take:

• If you feel able, you should talk directly with your employer. This is a clear legal right, and employers can be fined for not paying the NMW.”

Here, being paid less than this = paid below the NMW,

So, the answer is: employer(s)

Question 20: According to the law, you can ask to look at your boss’s ________.

Keywords for this question: According …. law, can ask to look at, your boss’s,   

The answer is in the third section of the text which has a long title: ‘I believe I’m being paid below the National Minimum Wage Rate. How can I complain?’, in paragraph no. 2. Here, in the first lines, the writer says, “You have the legal right to inspect your employer’s pay records if you believe, on reasonable grounds, that you are being paid less than the NMW.”

Here, legal right = according to the law, to inspect = to look at, employer’s = boss’s,  

So, the answer is: pay records  

Question 21: You have a period of _________ to complain if your boss does not co-operate within the specified period of time.

Keywords for this question: period of, to complain, if, boss does not co-operate, within, specified period of time,      

Again, the answer is in the third section of the text which has a long title: ‘I believe I’m being paid below the National Minimum Wage Rate. How can I complain?’, in paragraph no. 2. In the very last lines, the author says, “. … . If your employer fails to produce the records, you may take the matter to an employment tribunal. You must make your complaint within three months of the ending of the 14-day notice period.”

Here, employer fails to produce the records = boss does not co-operate, must make your complaint = have a period .. . .. to complain,

So, the answer is: 3/three months  

Questions 22-27: (Completing FLOW-CHART with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS):

In this type of question, candidates are asked to write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS to complete some notes on the given flow-chart. For this type of question, first, skim the passage to find the keywords in the paragraph concerned with the answer, and then scan to find the exact word.

[TIPS: Here, scanning technique will come in handy. Target the keywords of the questions to find the answers. Remember to focus on Proper nouns, random Capital letters, numbers, special characters of text etc.]

Dealing with your office emails

The headline of the question: Dealing with emails

Question 22: Delete __________

Keywords for this question: Delete,   

In the section named ‘Prioritising incoming messages’, lines 2-3 say, “. .. If it is obvious spam, it can be deleted without reading.”   

 So, the answer is: (obvious) spam

Question 23:

Sort email according to the:

• sender
• subject
• ___________

Keywords for this question: sort email, according to, sender, subject,

In the section named ‘Prioritising incoming messages’, check all the bullet points. The first two bullet points talk about ‘sender’ and ‘subject’.

Then in the third bullet point, the writer says,

• Has the email been in your inbox for long? Check the message time.

So, the answer is: message time

Question 24: Deal with emails that need your ________.

Keywords for this question: Deal with emails, need,  

In the section ‘Prioritising incoming messages’, check the last lines, where the writer says, “An initial scan like this can help you identify the emails that require your prompt attention.”

Here, identify the emails = deal with emails, require = need,  

So, the answer is: prompt attention

Question 25: If an email is easy to deal with, you should __________.

Keywords for this question: if email, easy to deal with, should,  

The answer can be found in the section named ‘Replying in stages’, in the second paragraph, the writer says in lines 1-2, “Some emails are uncomplicated and only require a brief, one line answer, so it’s a good idea to reply to these immediately.”

Here, uncomplicated and only require a brief, one line answer = easy to deal with,

So, the answer is: reply immediately  

Question 26 and 27:

If an email is complex, you can:

• first send a ________
• give the sender a _________ for answering their email fully

Keywords for this answer: email, complex, first send, give, sender, for answering, email fully,

The answers to these questions can also be found in section no. 3 named ‘Replying in stages’. Here, the author says, “Having prioritised your emails, you can answer them in stages, first with a brief acknowledgement and then a more detailed follow-up. This is particularly advisable when dealing with complicated matters where you don’t want to give a rushed answer. If you decide to do this, tell the recipient a definite date when you’ll be able to get back to him or her and try to keep to this wherever possible.”

Here, answer them in stages, first = first send, dealing with complicated matters = complex, don’t want to give a rushed answer = answering their email fully,

So, the answers are:

26. brief acknowledgement
27. (definite) date

Section 3:THE IRON BRIDGE

Questions 28-31: [Short answer to open questions (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS)

[In this kind of question candidates have to answer some questions, only with some conditions like NO MORE THAN THREE/TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER or, ONE WORD ONLY. Each question has keywords that will lead to the answer. This question type generally follows a sequence.]

Question 28: When was the furnace bought by Darby originally constructed?

Keywords for this question: when, furnace, bought by Darby, originally, constructed,  

The answer to this question is found in lines 1-3 of paragraph C, “In 1638, Basil Brooke patented a steel-making process and built a furnace at Coalbrookdale. This later became the property of Abraham Darby (referred to as Abraham Darby I to distinguish him from his son and grandson of the same name).”

Here, built = constructed, became the property of Abraham Darby = bought by Darby,

So, the answer is: 1638

Question 29: When were the roads leading to the bridge completed?

Keywords for this question: when, roads, leading to… bridge, completed,  

In paragraph E have a close look at lines 4-6, “ . .. Work on the approach roads continued for another two years, and the bridge was opened to traffic in 1781.”

Here, opened to traffic = work on roads leading to the bridge was completed,

So, the answer is: 1781

Question 30: When was the bridge closed to traffic?

Keywords for this question: when, bridge, closed to traffic,  

Again in paragraph E, the writer mentions in line no. 10, “ . .. Since 1934 the bridge has been open only to pedestrians.”

Here, has been open only to pedestrians = people can cross the bridge on foot; this means the bridge was closed to traffic/transports/vehicles,

So, the answer is: 1934

Question 31: When was a model of the bridge built?

Keywords for this question: when, model of the bridge, built,  

The answer can be found in paragraph G in lines 6-7, “ .. . . So in 2001, a half-scale model of the bridge was built, in order to see if it could have been constructed in the way depicted in the water-colour.”

Here, half-scale model = model of the bridge,

So, the answer is: 2001

Questions 32-36: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUEThe statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSEIf there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 32: There is no written evidence of how the original bridge was constructed.

Keywords for this question: no written evidence, how, original bridge, constructed,  

The answer lies in paragraph F, in the very beginning, “It has always been a mystery how the bridge was built. Despite its pioneering technology, no eye-witness accounts are known which describe the iron bridge being erected – and certainly, no plans have survived.” 

Here, no eye-witness accounts are known = no written evidence, built = constructed,

So, the statement in the question is a clear match to the text.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 33: The painting by Elias Martin is the only one of the bridge when it was new.

Keywords for this question: painting, Elias Martin, only one, bridge, when, was new,  

The answer for this question is in paragraph F. At the end of the paragraph the writer says, “In 1997 a small water-colour sketch by Elias Martin came to light in the Swedish capital, Stockholm. Although there is a wealth of early views of the bridge by numerous artists, this is the only one which actually shows it under construction.”

This means the painting by Elias Martin is the only of the bridge when it was under construction; not when it was new.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 34: The painting shows that the bridge was constructed from the two banks.

Keywords for this question: painting, shows, bridge, constructed, from, two banks,  

The answer is in paragraph G at the beginning where the author says, “Up until recently, it had been assumed that the bridge had been built from both banks, with the inner supports tilted across the river. This would have allowed river traffic to continue unimpeded during construction. But the picture clearly shows sections of the bridge being raised from a barge in the river. It contradicted everything historians had assumed about the bridge . .. .”

Here, the picture clearly shows sections of the bridge being raised from a barge in the river = the painting shows that the bridge was not constructed from the two banks.  

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 35: The original bridge and the model took equally long to construct.

Keywords for this question: original bridge, model, took equally long, construct,   

We cannot find any information that gives us an idea about the time it took to construct the model and the bridge.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 36: Elias Martin is thought to have made other paintings of the bridge.

Keywords for this question: Elias Martin, thought to have made, other paintings, bridge,    

The answer lies in paragraph I in lines 1-3, “Now only one mystery remains in the Iron Bridge story. The Swedish water-colour sketch had apparently been torn from a book which would have contained similar sketches.”

Here, the Swedish water-colour sketch = the painting by Elias Martin, a book which would have contained similar sketches = Elias Martin might have made some other paintings of the bridge on the book,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Questions 37-40: Identifying information:

[This question asks you to find information from the passage and write the number of the paragraph (A, B, C or D … .. ) in the answer sheet. Now, if the question is given in the very first part of the question set, I’d request you not to answer them. It’s mainly because this question will not follow any sequence, and so it will surely kill your time. Rather, you should answer all the other questions first. And just like List of Headings, only read the first two lines or last two lines of the expected paragraph initially. If you find the answers, you need not read the middle part. If you don’t find answers yet, you can skim the middle part of the paragraph. Keywords will be a useful matter here.]

Question 37: why a bridge was required across the River Severn.

Keywords for this question: why, bridge, required, River Severn,    

Take a look at paragraph D in lines 1-4, “. . .. had the idea of building a bridge over the Severn, as ferrying stores of all kinds across the river, particularly the large quantities of fuel for the furnaces at Coalbrookdale and other surrounding ironworks, involved considerable expense and delay……”

So, it was the considerable expense and delay for ferrying stores for which a bridge was required across the River Severn.

So, the answer is: D

Question 38: a method used to raise money for the bridge

Keywords for this question: method used, raise money, for, bridge,   

In paragraph E the writer says in lines 6-7, “ . .. .. Abraham Darby III funded the bridge by commissioning paintings and engravings,. .. . .”

Here, funded the bridge = raised money for the bridge,

So, the answer is: E

Question 39: why Coalbrookdale became attractive to iron makers

Keywords for this question: why, Coalbrookdale, became attractive, iron makers,

In paragraph C the last few lines say, “ . . . coke derived from coal could provide a more economical alternative to charcoal as a fuel for iron-making. This led to cheaper, more efficient iron-making from the abundant supplies of coal, iron and limestone in the area.”

This means coke from coal became a great alternative to charcoal as a fuel in the iron-making process in Coalrookdale. This inspired cheaper and more efficient iron-making which made it attractive to iron makers.

So, the answer is: C

Question 40: how the sections of the bridge were connected to each other

Keywords for this question: how, the sections, bridge, connected to, each other,    

In paragraph H we find the description of how the sections of the bridge were connected to each other in lines 2-5, “ . . .. . The bridge wasn’t welded or bolted together as metal bridges are these days. Instead, it was fitted together using a complex system of joints normally used for wood – but this was the traditional way in which iron structures were joined at the time.”

Here, fitted together = connected,   

So, the answer is: H

Section 1: EASTERN ENERGY

Questions 1-7 (TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 1: Customers should inform Eastern Energy of a change of address on arrival at their new home.  

Keywords for this question: customers, should inform, change of address, arrival, new home,  

In the ‘Moving home’ section, the writer says in the beginning, “Please give as much notice as possible if you are moving home, but at least 48 hours is required for us to make the necessary arrangements for your gas and electricity supply.”

The lines suggest that customers should inform Eastern Energy of a change of address not on arrival, but before arrival at their new home as Eastern Energy needs 48 hours to arrange gas and electricity.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 2: Customers are expected to read their own gas or electricity meters.  

Keywords for this question: customers, expected to red, own, gas or electric meters,    

In the ‘Meter reading’ section, the writer says, “ . . . Always read the meter from left to right, ignoring any red dials.”

This means Eastern Energy expects that customers can read their own gas or electricity meters.

So, the answer is: TRUE                   

Question 3: It is now cheaper to use gas rather than electricity as a form of heating.

Keywords for this question: now cheaper, use gas, rather than electricity, form of heating,     

There is no information about any cheaper form of heating in this text.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN       

Question 4: Eastern Energy supplies energy to households throughout the country.

Keywords for this question: supplies energy, households, throughout the country,    

Again in the ‘Moving home’ section, in lines 5-7, the writer says, “ . . . Tell the new occupant that Eastern Energy supplies the household, to ensure the service is not interrupted. Remember we can now supply electricity and gas at your new address, anywhere in the UK.”

The lines suggest that Eastern Energy supplies households anywhere in the UK.

So, the answer is: TRUE                   

Question 5: The Energy Efficiency Line also handles queries about energy supply.

Keywords for this question: Energy Efficiency Line, handles, queries, energy supply,   

In the ‘Energy Efficiency Line’ section, the writer says, “If you would like advice on the efficient use of energy, please call our Energy Efficiency Line on 0995 7626 513. Please do not use this number for any other enquiries.”

It means the Energy Efficiency Line only handles queries about the efficient use of energy and nothing else.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 6: All complaints about energy supply should be made by phone.

Keywords for this question:  all complaints, energy supply, by phone,     

In the ‘Complaints’ section, the author mentions, “We hope you will never have a problem or cause to complain, but, if you do, please contact our complaints handling team at PO Box 220, Stanfield, ST55 6GF or telephone us on 01316 753270.”

This means customers can either make direct contact on the given address or make telephone call on the given number.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 7: Customers are not charged for the call when they report a fault in supply.

Keywords for this question: customers, not charged, call, report a fault in supply,   

In the ‘Supply Failure’ section, the author mentions, “If you experience any problems with your electricity supply, please call free on 0600 7838 836, 24 hours a day, seven days a week.”

This means there is no charge for making a call for reporting a fault in supply.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Using your new microwave oven  

Questions 8-14:  (List of headings)

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C, and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph that will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence.]

Question 8: Section A

In Section A the author says, “As microwave cooking times are much shorter than other cooking times, it is essential that recommended cooking times are not exceeded without first checking the food.”

Here, microwave cooking times are much shorter than other cooking times = rapid cooking times in microwave,

So, the answer is: v (Rapid cooking times)

Question 9: Section B

In Section B the author says, “Take care when heating small amounts of food as these can easily burn, dry out or catch fire if cooked too long. Always set short cooking times and check the food frequently.”

Here, small amounts of food = small quantities of food,

So, the answer is: vii (Small quantities of food)

Question 10: Section C

In Section C the writer states, “Take care when heating ‘dry’ foods, e.g. bread items, chocolate and pastries. These can easily burn or catch fire if cooked too long.”

Here, ‘dry’ foods = foods which do not have much moisture,

So, the answer is: ix (Foods low in moisture)

Question 11: Section D

In Section D the author mentions, “Some processed meats, such as sausages, have non-porous casings. These must be pierced by a fork before cooking, to prevent bursting. Whole fruit and vegetables should be similarly treated.”

Here, non-porous casings = skins through which water cannot enter easily,

So, the answer is: ii (Foods with skins)

Question 12: Section E

Section E says, “When heating soup, sauces and beverages in your microwave oven, heating beyond the boiling point can occur without evidence of bubbling. Care should be taken not to overheat.”

Here, soup, sauces and beverages = liquids,

So the answer is: x (Liquids)

Question 13: Section F

The first line of Section F says, “When warming up food for a second time, . .. .”

Here, warming up food for a second time = re-heating,

So the answer is: i (Re-heating)

Question 14: Section G 

In section G, the writer says, “It is important for the safe operation of the oven that it is wiped out regularly. Use warm, soapy water, squeeze the cloth out well and use it to remove any grease or food from the interior. The oven should be unplugged during this process.”

Here, wiped out regularly = keeping oven clean regularly,

So the answer is: iii (Keeping your oven clean)

Section 2:CHOOSING PREMISES FOR A NEW BUSINESS

Question 15: Some people choose expensive premises because they want to create an impressive _________ for their company.   

Keywords for this question:expensive premises, want to create, impressive,  

The answer can be found in the section ‘What you need’. In the second paragraph, the writer says, “Ironically some firms swing too far in the other direction, committing themselves to a heavy initial outlay because they believe in the importance of image – and that does not come cheap.”

Here, does not come cheap = expensive,

So, the answer is: image

Question 16: Businesses which depend on __________ need to be on or near the principal shopping areas.

Keywords for this question:depend on, need to be, on or near, principal shopping area,    

The answer can be found in the ‘Location’ section. Here, in the first paragraph, the writer says, “High street premises are important for shops which rely on passing trade – but these are expensive.”

Here, High street premises = principal shopping areas, rely on = depend on,

So, the answer is: passing trade

Question 17: Businesses which produce goods must check there is ___________ to the premises for delivery vehicles.

Keywords for this question:produce goods, must check, delivery vehicles,   

The answer can be found in the ‘Location’ section. Here, in the second paragraph, the writer says, “Manufacturing and storage relies heavily on access. Think about how vans and lorries will deliver and collect goods from the premises.”

Here, vans and lorries = delivery vehicles,

This means businesses that depend heavily on easy access to the premises for delivery vehicles must check there is ample access.

So, the answer is: access

Question 18: When choosing a building for your premises, find out whether ___________ could be removed to create more room.

Keywords for this question:choosing a building, find out, could be removed, to create more room,   

The answer can be found in the ‘Growth’ section. Here, in the first paragraph, the writer says, “Every small business aims to become a big business, but this prospect can be obstructed if the wrong decisions are made early on. It is important to consider flexibility from the start. Can a building be physically altered internally by knocking down walls or by extending outwards or adding extra floors?”

Here, knocking down = removed, a building be physically altered = to create more room,  

So, the answer is: walls

Question 19: Make sure that the __________ states what type of building alterations might be permitted.

Keywords for this question:make sure, states, type of building alternations, might be permitted,      

The answer can be found in the ‘Growth’ section. Here, in the second paragraph, the writer says in the beginning, “Landlords obviously have to agree to any changes so it is important that the contract includes details of what will be allowed and how much extra will be charged on top of the costs of rebuilding or alteration.”

Here, it is important = make sure, details of what will be allowed = what type of building alterations might be permitted,

So, the answer is: contract

Question 20: If business premises are located close to _________, extensions may not be allowed.

Keywords for this question:business premises, located, close to, extensions, may not be allowed,

The last line in the section ‘Growth’ gives us the answer to this question. The writer says, “ . . .. The building may be in a conservation area or near housing, in which case it will be much more difficult to consider changes.”

Here, near = close to, it will be much more difficult to consider changes = extensions may not be allowed,

So, the answer is: housing   

Questions 21-27: [Short answer to open questions (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS)

[In this kind of question candidates have to answer some questions, only with some conditions like NO MORE THAN THREE/TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER or, ONE WORD ONLY. Each question has keywords that will lead to the answer. This question type generally follows a sequence.]

CALIFORNIA STATE COLLEGE  

Question 21: Where do most employees collect their wages?

Keywords for this question:employees, collect, wages,

In the ‘Payday’ section, the writer says, “Employees are paid every other Friday. If Friday is a holiday, payday will be the following Monday. Generally, employees pick up the pay checks in their department; if not, they may be picked up at the Business Office.”  

Here, pick up = collect, pay checks = wages,

So, the answer is: their department

Question 22: Who has to authorise any overtime an employee wishes to do?

Keywords for this question:who, authorise, overtime, employee wishes to do,  

In the ‘Overtime’ section, the author states in line no. 3, “… .. . The supervisor must approve all overtime before overtime occurs.”

Here, approve = authorise,

So, the answer is: (the) supervisor

Question 23: Who is not paid extra for working more than 40 hours a week? 

Keywords for this question:not paid extra, working, more than 40 hours a week,  

The answer in found in the ‘Overtime’ section. Here, in the beginning, the writer says, “All time worked over eight hours in one day and forty hours in a workweek, and also the first eight hours worked on the seventh day of work in a workweek is considered overtime for non-exempt employees.” Then at the end of this section, the writer says, “. .. . Exempt employees receive no additional compensation for overtime hours.”

Here, receive no additional compensation = not paid extra, overtime hours = working more than 40 hours,

So, the answer is: exempt employees

Question 24: Where should employees go if they wish to have the parking charge taken off their salary? 

Keywords for this question:where, employees go, if, wish to have, parking charge taken off, salary,   

The answer is traced in the ‘Parking’ section, where the author says in the beginning, “All employees who will be parking in a staff parking zone must obtain a parking permit. A monthly pre-tax payroll deduction can be made by visiting Human Resources.”

Here, pre-tax payroll deduction = parking charge taken off . .. . salary,  

So, the answer is: Human Resources / HR

Question 25: What method is used to calculate part-time employees′ holidays? 

Keywords for this question:method, use, calculate, part-time employees’, holidays,   

In the ‘Holidays’ section, the writer mentions in lines 2-3, “Regular part-time employees will receive holiday benefits worked out using a prorated system.”

Here, worked out = calculate,

So, the answer is: (a) prorated system  

Question 26: Which documents must employees fill in to select their Personal Holiday?

Keywords for this answer: documents, must, employees fill, select, Personal Holiday, 

In the ‘Personal Holiday’ section, the writer says in the end, “ . . . Employees requesting Personal Holiday will be required to complete ‘Leave Request’ forms.”

Here, required to complete = must .. .. fill in,

So, the answer is: Leave Request forms  

Question 27: What is the name of the special entitlement provided to employees with birthdays in the second half of December? 

Keywords for this answer: name, special entitlement, employees with birthdays, second half of December,

In the last lines of the ‘Birthday Holiday’ section, the writer says, “. . . .. What is known as a grace period through January 15th is given to those employees whose birthdays fall between December 16th and the end of the year.”

Here, fall between December 16th and the end of the year = second half of December,

So, the answer is: (a) grace period  

Section 3: A Very Special Dog

Questions 28-32:  Multiple choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers to previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

Question 28: The drugs in the suitcase –    

Keywords for this question: drugs, suitcase,

The answer can be found in paragraph no. 2 in lines 2-4, “ . . .. . is a nondescript hardback suitcase. Inside the case, within styrofoam casing, packed in loose pepper and coffee, wrapped in freezer paper and heat-sealed in plastic, are 18 kilograms of hashish.”

Here, packed in = around, hashish = drugs,

So, the answer is: B (had pepper and coffee around them.)

Question 29: Most dogs are not good at finding drugs because –    

Keywords for this question: Most dogs, not good, finding drugs, 

In paragraph no. 3 the writer says, “ . .. Ordinary dogs have a 0.1% chance of making it in drug detection. The new breeding programme, run by the Australian Customs . . .. . . .”

Here, breeding programme = breeding dogs in a special way to improve their genetic qualities, 0.1% chance = not good at finding drugs, Ordinary dogs = most dogs, 

So, the answer is: D (they lack certain genetic qualities.)

Question 30: Florence is a good drug detector because she –    

Keywords for this question: Florence, good drug detector, because, 

In paragraph no. 4 take a look at lines 3-5, “. .. . It turns out that it’s not Florence’s nose that makes her a top drug dog, but her unswerving concentration, plus a few other essential traits.”

Here, unswerving concentration = not easily distracted,

So, the answer is: B (is not easily distracted.)

Question 31: Dogs like Florence may help scientists understand  –    

Keywords for this question: Dogs, like Florence, may help, scientists understand, 

The answer lies in paragraph no. 4 in lines 5-8, “…  .. . Florence could help neurobiologists to understand both what they call ‘attention processing’, the brain mechanisms that determine what a person pays attention to and for how long, and its flip side, problems such as Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).”

Here, help neurobiologists = help scientists, Attention Deficit / Hyperactivity Disorder = difficulty paying attention,

So, the answer is: C (why some people have difficulty paying attention.)

Question 32: In 1993, the Australian Customs –    

Keywords for this question: 1993, Australian Customs,

For this question, we should have a look at paragraph no. 5 which talks about the change in obtaining dogs.

Here, the author says in the first few lines, “The Australian Customs has used dogs to find drugs since 1969. Traditionally, the animals came from pounds and private breeders.” This means that the Australian Customs previously used dogs from private breeders and pounds.

Then, the next few lines say, “ . .. . But, in 1993, fed up with the poor success rate of finding good dogs this way, . . .. . . ., and set up a breeding programme.” So, the Australian Customs changed the way it obtained dogs.  

So, the answer is: C (changed the way it obtained dogs.)

Questions 33-36 (Choosing options)

[In this type of question candidates are asked to choose some options (mostly FOUR or FIVE) for a question from a given list. The answer-finding process is similar to other questions – find the keywords in the text and look around it. This question doesn’t necessarily maintain any sequence.]

Let’s have a look at the question:

The writer mentions a number of important qualities that detector dogs must have.

Which FOUR of the following qualities are mentioned by the writer of the text?

Keywords for this question: important qualities, detector dogs must have,

Take a look at paragraph no. 6 first, where the author talks about six essential traits (important qualities). “Champness began by defining six essential traits that make a detector dog. First, every good detector dog must love praise because this is the only tool trainers have at their disposal, but the dog must still be able to work for long periods without it.” This is a match with option I (a desire for people’s approval) and option F (a willingness to work without constant encouragement).

Then, in lines 5-6 the writer says, “.. . The ideal detector is also fearless enough to deal with jam-packed airport crowds and the roaring engine rooms of cargo ships.” This is a match with option D (an ability to work in noisy conditions).

Again, in lines 4-5 of paragraph no. 7, the writer says, “.. . . And finally, with potentially tens of thousands of hiding places for drugs, the dog must persevere and maintain focus for hours at a time.” This is a match with option E (an ability to maintain concentration).

So the answers are: (in any order)

D

E

F

I

Questions 37-40 (TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUEThe statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSEIf there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 37: Methods of determining if a child had ADHD are now widely accepted.

Keywords for this answer: Methods, determining, child, ADHD, now, widely, accepted,  

To find the answer to this question, we should have a look at the end of paragraph no. 4, at the very end, “. . .. problems such as Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). As many as 3 to 5% of children are thought to suffer from the condition in the US, where the incidence is highest, although diagnosis is often controversial.

Here, controversial = not widely accepted, rather it is criticised,

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 38: After about five minutes of a vigilance test, some subjects will still notice some tips.

Keywords for this answer: after, five minutes, vigilance test, some subjects, will notice, tips,   

We find the reference of ‘vigilance test’ in line no. 5. So, we need to scan this paragraph. In this paragraph, the last lines say, “ . . . Five minutes into the test, one in ten subjects will start to miss the majority of the blips, one in ten will still be able to spot nearly all of them and the rest will come somewhere in between.”

Therefore, the last lines are a clear match with the question.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 39: Vigilance tests help improve concentration.

Keywords for this answer: Vigilance tests help, improve concentration,   

The passage talks about the use of a vigilance test. However, there is no information regarding the improvement of concentration through the vigilance test.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 40: If a few grams of a drug are well concealed, even the best dogs will miss them.

Keywords for this answer: a few grams, drug, well concealed, best dogs, will miss,

Let’s have a look at lines 3-5, where the writer says, “.. .. .. During a routine mail screen that can take hours, the dogs stay so focused that not even a postcard lined with 0.5 grams of heroin and hidden in a bulging sack of letters escapes detection.”

Here, 0.5 grams of heroin = a few grams of a drug, hidden in a bulging sack of letters = well concealed,

This means the dogs are so well-trained that they do not miss a few grams of well-concealed drugs.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Section 1: Booking a Wessex Cottages Holiday

Questions 1-7: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 1: The office is open on Saturdays in February but closes slightly earlier than on weekdays.  

Keywords for this question: office, open, on Saturdays, February, closes, slightly earlier, on weekdays,      

Take a look at the lines of paragraph no. 3, in the ‘21^st October to 30^th March’ section. It says,

“Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday 9.00 a.m. to 5.00 p.m. and Thursday 9.30 a.m. to 5.00 p.m.

Saturday 9.30 a.m. to 4.30 p.m.

Sunday Closed.” 

Here, 21^st October to 30^th March means office is open in February, Saturday 9.30 a.m. to 4.30 p.m. = office is open on Saturdays but closes slightly earlier than on weekdays,

So, the answers are: TRUE

Question 2: On receipt of your deposit, Wessex Cottages will confirm your booking by telephone.

Keywords for this question: receipt, deposit, Wessex Cottages, will confirm, booking, by telephone,

Have a look at paragraph no. 7, as the writer of the text explains, “When we receive your booking form and deposit, your reservation will be confirmed – we will send you a Booking Confirmation, together with advice on how to reach your holiday cottage and the telephone number of a local contact should you require further details on the cottage before leaving home. . .. .”    

Here, Booking Confirmation means an email sent to the clients. (in the UK region)

So, the question statement contradicts the information in the text.

So, the answer is: FALSE     

Question 3: For UK bookings, any outstanding balance must be paid within ten weeks of sending the deposit.

Keywords for this question: UK bookings, any outstanding balance, must be paid, within ten weeks, sending the deposit,   

Again, in paragraph no. 6, the last lines say, “ .. ..  Outstanding balances on bookings made in the UK must be settled within 10 weeks of sending the deposit.”

Here, bookings made in the UK = UK bookings, must be settled within 10 weeks must be paid within ten weeks,

So, the answer is: TRUE                   

Question 4: Between the departure of one visitor and the arrival of the next, the properties are visited and made ready.

Keywords for this question: between, departure of one visitor, arrival, next, properties, visited and made ready,     

Have a look at the ‘Departure’ section, in lines 1-3, “On the morning of departure, please leave your holiday property by 10 a.m. to allow caretakers sufficient time to prepare the property for the next visitors. . . ..”

Here, On the morning of departure = Between the departure of one visitor, the next visitors = the arrival of the next, allow caretakers sufficient time to prepare the property = the properties are visited and made ready,

So, the answer is: TRUE                   

Question 5: The cost is lower if you make a last-minute booking.

Keywords for this question: cost, lower, if, make, last-minute booking,     

Have a look at the ‘LAST-MINUTE BOOKINGS’ section. It says, “ . .. . . If your reservation is made within 10 weeks of the holiday start date, full payment is due on booking.”

Here, full payment is due on booking = the cost is just as same as before,  

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 6: Electricity is included in the rental of the majority of Wessex Cottages properties.  

Keywords for this question: electricity, included, rental, majority, Wessex Cottages properties,    

Take a close look at ‘Electricity’ section. It says, “In most Wessex Cottages properties electricity must be paid for in addition to the holiday price. . …”

Here, In most Wessex Cottages properties = the majority of Wessex Cottages properties, must be paid for in addition to the holiday price =  not included in the rental,

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 7: Beach towels are available for hire.    

Keywords for this question: beach towels, available, for hire,    

Take a close look at ‘Linen’ section. It says in lines 7-8, “ . .. . .. , but will not include towels for swimming or beach use. .. ..”

Here, towels for swimming or beach use = Beach towels, will not include = not available,

So, the answer is: FALSE

The text is on some advertisements.

Questions 8-14: Classifying situations with advertisements

[This type of question asks candidates to classify some situations from the given advertisements. Candidates are given some situations based on the advertisements, and a list of advertisements, which is listed as A, B, C etc. They must match the correct situations with the correct options.

N.B.: This question doesn’t follow any sequence. So, they should be answered after all other questions in the passage.]

Question 8: I have had an accident in my car. One of the rear lights is broken. I need to have it replaced.

Keywords for this question: had an accident, one of the rear lights, broken, have it, replaced,     

Take a look at advertisement B.  

Here, Body repair service/ Restorations/ Breakdown service = broken lights can be replaced,

So, the answer is: B

Question 9: I am helping to organise a wedding. The party will be at the bride’s family’s house but we are looking for someone to provide the food.

Keywords for this question: helping to organise, wedding, party, will be, at the bride’s family’s house, but, looking for someone, provide the food,     

Have a look at advertisement D.  

Here, Catering/ We will supply the menu = provide the food,

So, the answer is: D

Question 10: I have just found a house that I want to buy and I need a lawyer to help me with all the paperwork.

Keywords for this question: found a house, want to buy, need a lawyer, to help me, with, all the paperwork,  

Have a look at advertisement K.  

Here, solicitors = a lawyer, legal services = to help with all the paperworks,

So, the answer is: K

Question 11: I have just returned from a holiday in Thailand, where I bought a Thai recipe book. I want to use the recipes in my restaurant, but I need someone to help me understand them.  

Keywords for this question: just returned, from a holiday, Thailand, bought, Thai recipe book, want to use, recipes, my restaurant, but, need someone, help, understand them,     

Take a look at advertisement L. 

Here, TRANSLATION & INTERPRETING = someone to help . .. understand Thai language, 

So, the answer is: L

Question 12: I have just got a new job. I need to find somewhere to live locally.

Keywords for this question: just got a new job, find somewhere, to live locally,      

Take a look at advertisement G.

Here, An independent property service, providing expert knowledge = find somewhere to live locally,

So the answer is: G

Question 13: Some friends are coming to visit me for the weekend, but my house is too small to put them all up. I want to find somewhere for them to stay.    

Keywords for this question: some friends, coming to visit, for the weekend, house, too small, find somewhere for them, to stay,   

Have a look at advertisement J.

Here, facilities with good-sized family rooms all with: colour TV, Tea/coffee-making facilities = somewhere for guests to stay,

So the answer is: J

Question 14: I work in a local firm of solicitors. It’s nearly the end of the tax year and I am trying to find someone to help us organise our finances.   

Keywords for this question: work in a local firm, of solicitors, nearly the end of the tax year, trying to find, someone to help, organise, finances,  

Have a look at advertisement A.

Here, All professional services, including Auditing, Accountancy and Taxation = help . .. . organise our finances,

So the answer is: A

Section 2:Courses Available at North Coast College Campuses

Questions 15-21: Matching information with appropriate information

[In this type of question candidates are asked to match some information as questions with some information given from the passage. These questions will not follow any sequential order. So, skimming first for the keywords and then scanning to match the information is the best option to find answers to these questions.]

Question 15: Wollongbar  

In the first paragraph (‘Agriculture’ section), the writer of the text says in lines 2-4, “. . .. .  The Wollongbar Campus is renowned for its Tropical Fruit Growing program and has introduced modules on macadamias, bushfoods and coffee production. .. ..”

Here, Tropical Fruit Growing program = banana cultivation,

So, the answer is: B (banana cultivation)

Question 16: Grafton   

Again, in the ‘Agriculture’ section, take a look at the last lines, “ .. . . Grafton, meanwhile, offers traineeships in agriculture including Beef and Dairy.”

Here, Beef and Dairy = cattle farming,

So, the answer is: H (cattle farming)

Question 17: Tweed Heads    

The answer to this question can be found in the ‘Health programs’ section as the writer mentions in lines 2-4 of the first paragraph, “ . .. .  Fitness Instruction courses are offered at Tweed Heads and teach students how to put together and lead a safe fitness program.” 

Here, Fitness Instruction courses = recreation programs,  

So, the answer is: K (recreation programs)

Question 18: Lismore   

In the ‘Health programs’ section, line no.1 of the second paragraph says, “Lismore offers the Aged Support Program and . .. ..” 

Here, Aged Support Program = elderly care,

So, the answer is: E (elderly care)

Question 19: Port Macquarie

Again, in the ‘Health programs’ section, lines 1-2 of the second paragraph say, “ . . .. and Port Macquarie offers the Early Childhood Nursing program. .. ..”

Here, Early Childhood Nursing program = infant illness,

So, the answer is: D (infant illness)

Question 20: Ballina  

To answer this particular question, we have to go to the ‘Environmental Studies’ section. Here, in the final lines of the first paragraph, the writer says, “. . .. The Environmental Practice course, which includes Coastal Management, is offered through Ballina campus.” 

Here, Coastal Management = beach protection,

So, the answer is: I (beach protection)

Question 21: Coffs Harbour  

For this question, let’s go to the final paragraph in the ‘Environmental Studies’ section, where the writer says in the final lines, “ . .. . Marine Industry Management programs are offered at Coffs Harbour.”

Here, Marine Industry Management programs = fish farming,

So, the answer is: F (fish farming)

Information on Photocopying

Questions 22-27: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUEThe statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSEIf there is no information on this – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 22: Prepaid Services Cards are in use in three locations.  

Keywords for this question: Prepaid Services Cards, in use, three locations,

Let’s have a look at the first paragraph, “Information Services provide a Prepaid Services Card system for student and staff use of photocopiers and associated equipment in the Library, and use of laser printers in B Block. The same system has recently been installed in the Student Representative Council (SRC) for use with photocopiers there.”

Here, the Library, B Block & the Student Representative Council (SRC) = three locations,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 23: You can only buy a Prepaid Services Card at the Library.

Keywords for this question:can only buy, Prepaid Services Cards, Library,   

In the second paragraph, take a look at lines 3-5, “ .. ..  .. Initially, students and other users will have to purchase a Prepaid Services Card from a teller machine located in the Library or B Block Computer Labs. . . ..”

This means there are two places from where users can buy a Prepaid Services Card; teller machine and B Block Computer labs.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 24: The smallest amount that can be added to the Prepaid Services Card at the Library teller machine is $5.   

Keywords for this question: smallest amount, can be added to, Prepaid Services Card, Library teller machine, $5,     

In paragraph no. 3, the maximum amount of prepaid services have been mentioned, “ . ..  The maximum amount of prepaid services or value that can be added to a card is $50.00.”

However, there is no mention of the smallest amount.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 25: The Prepaid Services Card can be used to pay library fines.  

Keywords for this question: Prepaid Services Card, pay, library fines,

Again, we do not find any comments made about paying library fines.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN  

Question 26: Notes and coins can be used in all teller machines.   

Keywords for this question: notes and coins, can be used, all teller machines, 

In the fourth paragraph, have a close look at the last lines, “ . . .. These teller machines accept any denomination of coins or notes up to $50.00. The SRC has a smaller, coin only, teller machine.  

Here, coin only = only coins can be used here; no notes.

So, the answer is: FALSE 

Question 27: A PIN is allocated when you purchase your Prepaid Services Card.   

Keywords for this question: PIN, allocated, when, purchase, Prepaid Services Card,   

In the final paragraph, take a look at lines 1-2, “For added security, a card user may choose to allocate a PIN or Personal Identification Number to their Prepaid Services Card. .. .. .”

Here, card user may choose to allocate a PIN = a PIN is optional; it depends on the choice of the users,

So, the answer is: FALSE 

Section 3:Understanding Bee Behaviour   

Section 3:Understanding Bee Behaviour   

Questions 28-34: List of headings

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph which will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

Tips to answer this question: Don’t read the list of headings first. Have a quick look at the questions, and go straight to the first question and start reading the paragraph associated with it. Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly, and don’t stop until you finish each sentence.]

Question 28: Section A

To find this answer, we have to read the middle part of the paragraph carefully. Here, the author of the text says, “ . . .. For bees are arguably the only animals apart from humans which have their own language. . . ..”

Here, the only animals apart from humans which have their own language = The special position of bee language,  

So, the answer is: vi (The special position of bee language)

Question 29: Section B

The final lines of paragraph B say, “ . ..  Von Frisch realised that, in some way, messages were being passed on back at the hive¹, messages which said, “Out there, at this spot, you’re going to find food.”

Here, Von Frisch realised that = Von Frisch discovers that,   

messages were being passed on back at the hive¹ = bees communicate,

So, the answer is: iv (Von Frisch discovers that bees communicate)

Question 30: Section C

Take a look at the first few lines, “But how was it happening? To watch the bees, von Frisch constructed a glass-sided hive. He found that, once the scout bees arrived back at the hive, they would perform one of three dance types.  . ..”

Then, in the following lines, he describes all the three dances in details.

So, the answer is: x (Von Frisch discovers three types of dance)

Question 31: Section D

In section D, the first few lines say, “Experimenting further, von Frisch unraveled the mystery of the first two related types, the round and the sickle dances. These dances, he concluded, told the bees simply that, within quite short distances of the hive there was a food source worth chasing. .. .. ..”

Here, These dances . ..  told the bees … . .. within quite short distances of the hive there was a food source = the purpose of the two simple dances,

So, the answer is: viii (The purpose of the two simple dances)

Question 32: Section E

Section E has two paragraphs.

First, in the end of the first paragraph, the writer says, “ . .. . If he placed the feeding dish over nine metres away, the second type of dance, the sickle version, came into play. But once he moved it past 36 metres, the scouts would then start dancing the third, quite different, waggle version.”    

These lines suggest that bees express the distance by means of different types of dance.

So, the answer is: vii (Expressing distance by means of dance)

Question 33: Section F

In section F, take a close look at lines 5-7, “ . .. .  The outside dance was fairly easy to decode: the straight portion of the dance pointed directly to the food source, so the bees would merely have to decode the distance message and fly off in that direction to find their food.”

Here, the outside dance = the dance to communicate from outside the hive,  

This means Section F talks about how bees communicate to provide direction to food source from outside a hive.

So, the answer is: ii (Communicating direction when outside a hive)

Question 34: Section G

Take a look at the first few line of Section G, “But by studying the dance on the inner wall of the hive, von Frisch discovered a remarkable method which the dancer used to tell her sisters the direction the direction of the food in relation to the sun. . . .”

Here, the dance on the inner wall of the hive = the dance when inside a hive,

This means paragraph G talks about how bees communicate to provide direction to food source from intside a hive.

So, the answer is: v (How bees communicate direction when inside a hive)

Questions 35-37: Listing names with ONE WORD only

[In this type of question, candidates need to list some names which can be found in the passage. The rules for finding answers to this sort of question are simple. Just scan for correct keywords in the question, locate the paragraphs carefully and find the names. Remember, the questions may not follow any sequential order but they can be found very close to each other.]

The writer mentions THREE kinds of bee dance identified by von Frisch.

List the name the writer gives to each dance.

Keywords for this question: THREE, kinds of, bee dance, identified by, Von Frisch,      

The names of the three dances can be found in paragraph D and E.

First, take a look at the first lines of Section D, as the writer explains, ”Experimenting further, von Frisch unraveled the mystery of the first two related types, the round and the sickle dances. . . ..”

Then, take a look at the final line of the first paragraph of Section E, “. .. .  But once he moved it past 36 metres, the scouts would then start dancing the third, quite different, waggle dance.”

So, the answers for questions 35, 36 & 37 are: (in any order)

round

sickle

waggle

Questions 38- 40: Completing sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS

In this type of question, candidates are asked to write maximum of three words to complete sentences on the given topic. For this type of question, first, skim the passage to find the keywords in the paragraph concerned with the answer, and then scan to find the exact word.

[TIPS: Here scanning technique will come in handy. Target the keywords of the questions to find the answers. Remember to focus on Proper nouns, random Capital letters, numbers, special characters of text etc.]

Question 38: von Frisch discovered the difference between dance types by changing the position of _______.

Keywords for this question: Von Frisch, discovered, difference between, dance types, changing, position of,    

In section E, lines 4-6 of the first paragraph explains how von Frisch discovered the difference between dance types, as he explains here, “ . .. . . On a hunch, he started gradually moving the feeding dish further and further away and noticed as he did so, that the dances of the returning scout bees also started changing. .. . . .”

Here, the dances of the returning scout bees also started changing = the difference between dance types, moving = changing the position of,

So, the answer is: the feeding dish

Question 39: The dance outside the hive points in the direction of _________.  

Keywords for this question: dance, outside the hive, points, direction of,   

The answer can be found in section F, in lines 4-6. The author of the text says here, “ … … . The outside dance was fairly easy to decode: the straight portion of the dance pointed directly to the food source, . . .. .”

Here, The outside dance = the dance outside the hive, pointed directly to = points in the direction of,

So, the answer is: the food (source)

Question 40: The angle of the dance from the vertical shows the angle of the food from __________.  

Keywords for this question: angle of the dance, from, vertical, shows, angle of the food, from,  

First, in section F, take a look at lines 1-3, “ . .. . .. When the scout bees came home to tell their sisters about the food source, sometimes they would dance outside on the horizontal entrance platform of the hive, and sometimes on the vertical wall inside. .. ..”

This means the dance inside the hive wall was vertical.

Then, in section G, the first few lines say, “But by studying the dance on the inner wall of the hive, von Frisch discovered a remarkable method which the dancer used to tell her sisters the direction of the food in relation to the sun. .. . .”

Here, the dance on the inner wall = the dance from the vertical, the direction of the food = the angle of the food,

So, the answer is: the sun

Reading Passage 1: The Thylacine

Appearances and behavior

1- ate an entirely ……… diet

The answer is TRUE.

In paragraph one, there are 56 hill figures scattered around England, with the vast majority on the chalk downlands of the country’s southern counties.

2- probably depended mainly on …… when hunting

The answer is NOT GIVEN.

In paragraph two, the figures include giants, crosses, and regimental badges. 

3- last evidence in mainland is a 3100-year-old …….

The answer is TRUE.

In paragraph two, the White Horse has recently been re-dated and shown to be even older than its previously assigned ancient pre-Roman Iron Age.

5- reduction in ……. and available sources of food were partly responsible for decline in Tasmania

The answer is FALSE.

In paragraph two, more controversial is the date of enigmatic Long Man of Wilmington in Sussex.

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? Write True, False or Not Given​

6- Significant numbers of thylacines were killed by humans from 1830s onwards.

 The answer is Ridgeway.

In paragraph four, the horse is situated 2.5 km from Uffington village on a steep slope close to the Late Bronze Age (c. 7th century BCE) hillfort of Uffington Castle and below the Ridgeway, a long-distance Neolithic track. 

7- Several thylacines were born in zoos during late 1800s.

 The answer is documents.

In paragraph five, the earliest evidence of a horse at Uffington is from the 1070s CE when ‘White Horse Hill’ is mentioned in documents from the nearby Abbey of Abingdon.

8- John Gould’s prediction about the thylacine surprised some biologists. 

 The answer is soil.

In paragraph six, in 1995 Optically Stimulated Luminescence (OSL) testing was carried out by the Oxford Archaeological Unit on soil from two of the lower layers of the horse’s body.

9- In the early 1900s, many scientists became worried about the possible extinction of the thylacine.

 The answer is fertility.

In paragraph seven, some researchers see the horse as representing the Celtic horse goddess Epona, who was worshipped as a protector of horses and for her associations with fertility.

10- T.T. Flynn’s proposal to regime captive thylacines on an island proved to be impractical.

 The answer is Rhiannon.

In paragraph seven, it is possible that the carving represents a goddess in native mythology, such as Rhiannon, described in later Welsh mythology as a beautiful woman dressed in gold and riding a white horse. 

11- There were still reasonable numbers of thylacines in existence when a piece of legislation protecting the species during their breeding season was passed.

 The answer is Rhiannon.

In paragraph seven, it is possible that the carving represents a goddess in native mythology, such as Rhiannon, described in later Welsh mythology as a beautiful woman dressed in gold and riding a white horse. 

12- From 1930 to 1936, the only known living thylacines were all in captivity. 

 The answer is Rhiannon.

In paragraph seven, it is possible that the carving represents a goddess in native mythology, such as Rhiannon, described in later Welsh mythology as a beautiful woman dressed in gold and riding a white horse. 10- T.T. Flynn’s proposal to regime captive thylacines on an island proved to be impractical.

13- Attempts to find living thylacines are now rarely made. 

 The answer is Rhiannon.

In paragraph seven, it is possible that the carving represents a goddess in native mythology, such as Rhiannon, described in later Welsh mythology as a beautiful woman dressed in gold and riding a white horse. 

Reading Passage 2:Palm Oil

14- examples of a range of potential environmental advantages of oil palm tree cultivation

The answer is F.

In paragraph F, that immensely high yield, which is predominantly what makes it so profitable, is potentially also an ecological benefit. If ten times are palm oil can be produced from a patch of land than any competing oil, then ten times more land would need to be cleared in order to produce the same volume of oil from competitor. 

15- description of an organization which controls the environmental impact of palm oil production

The answer is G.

In paragraph G, the industry is now regulated by s group called the Roundtable of Sustainable Palm Oil (RSPO), consisting of palm growers, retailers, product manufacturers, and other interested parties.

16- examples of the widespread global use of palm oil

The answer is A.

In paragraph A, Palm oil is an edible derived from the fruit of the American palm tree, and is currently the most consumed vegetable oil in the world. It’s almost certainly in the soap we wash with in the morning, the sandwich we have for lunch, and the biscuits we snack on during the day.

17- reference to a particular species which could benefit the ecosystem of oil palm plantations

The answer is H.

In paragraph H, Ellwood believes that reintroducing the bird’s nest fern into oil palm plantations could potentially allow these areas to recover their biodiversity, providing a home for all manner of species, from fungi and bacteria, to invertebrates such as insects, amphibians, reptiles and even mammals.

18- figures illustrating the rapid expansion of the palm oil industry

The answer is B.

In paragraph B, many farmers seized the opportunity to maximize the planting of oil palm trees. Between 1990 and 2012, the global land area devoted to growing oil palm trees grew from 6 to 17 million hectares, now accounting for around ten percent of total cropland in the entire world. 

19- an economic justification for not opposing the palm industry

The answer is E.

In paragraph E, one response to the boycott movement has been the argument for the vital role palm oil plays in lifting many millions of people in the developing world out of poverty.

20- examples of creatures badly affected by the establishment of oil plantations 

The answer is C.

In paragraph C, endangered species, most famously the Sumatran orangutan, but also rhinos, elephants, tigers, and numerous other fauna, have suffered from the unstoppable spread of oil palm plantations.

Choose two letters, A–E
Which TWO statements are made about the Roundtable on Sustainable Palm Oil (RSPO)

In either order

   B >> It demands that certified producers be open and honest about their practices.

In paragraph G, the RSPO insists upon no virgin forest clearing, transparency and regular assessment of carbon stocks, among other criteria. 

   C >> It took several years to establish its set of criteria for sustainable palm oil certification.

 In paragraph C, over the past decade or so, an agreement has gradually been reached regarding standards that producers of palm oil have to meet in order for their product to be regarded as officially ‘sustainable’.

 

Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

23- One advantage of palm oil for manufacturers is that it says … even when not refrigerated. 

 The answer is solid.

In paragraph A, primarily because unique properties, such as remaining solid at room temperature, make it an ideal ingredient for long-term preservation, allowing many packaged goods on supermarkets shelves to have ‘ best before’ dates of months, even years, into the future.

24- The ….. is the best known of the animals suffering habitat loss as a result of the spread of oil palm plantations.

 The answer is (Sumatran) orangutan / orang-tan.

In paragraph C, endangered species, most famously the Sumatran orangutan, but also rhinos, elephants, tigers, and numerous other fauna, have suffered from the unstoppable spread of oil palm plantations.

25- As one of its criteria for the certification of sustainable palm oil, the RSPO insists that growers check ….. on a routine basis.

 The answer is carbon stocks.

In paragraph G, the RSPO insists upon no virgin forest clearing, transparency and regular assessment of carbon stocks, among other criteria. 

26- Ellwood and his researchers are looking into whether the bird’s nest fern could restore ….. in areas where oil palm trees are grown.

 The answer is biodiversity.

In paragraph H, Ellwood believes that reintroducing the bird’s nest fern into oil palm plantations could potentially allow these areas to recover their biodiversity, providing a home for all manner of species, from fungi and bacteria, to invertebrates such as insects, amphibians, reptiles and even mammals.

 

Reading Passage 3:Building the Skyline: The Birth and Growth of Manhattan’s Skyscrapers

27. What point does Shester make about Barr’s book in the first paragraph?

The answer is D. > It covers a range of factors that affected the development of New York.

In paragraph one, the book combines geology, history, economics, and a lot of data to explain why business clusters developed where they did and how early decisions of workers and firms shaped the skyline we see today.

28. How does Shester respond to the information in the book about tenements? 

The answer is B. > She indicates a potential problem with Barr’s analysis. 

In paragraph three, I would have liked Barr to expand upon his claim that existing tenements prevented skyscrapers in certain neighborhoods because ‘likely no skyscraper developer was interested in performing the necessary “slum clearance”. 

29. What does Shester say about chapter six of the book?

The answer is C. > It is too specialized for most readers.

In paragraph six, while less technical than the research paper on which the chapter is based, it is probably more technical than would be preferred by a general audience.

30. What does Shester suggest about the chapters focusing on the 1920s building boom?

The answer is D. > Some parts will have limited appeal to certain people.

In paragraph eight, however, they would be well-suited for undergraduates learning about the economics of cities. 

31. What impresses Shester the most about the chapter on land values?

The answer is C. > the nature of the research into the topic

In paragraph nine, the data work that went into these estimations is impressive. 

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?
Choose Yes, No or not Given

 32- The description in the first chapter of how New York probably looked from the air in the early 1600s lacks interest.

 The answer is NO.

In paragraph two, Barr begins chapter one by taking the reader on a ‘helicopter time-machine’ ride – giving a fascinating account of how the New York landscape in 1609 might have looked from the sky. 

33- Chapters two and three prepare the reader well for material yet to come.

The answer is YES.

In paragraph three, both chapters are informative and well researched and set the stage for the economic analysis that comes  later in the book. 

34- The biggest problem for many nineteenth-centry New York immigrant neighborhoods was a lack of amenities.

 The answer is NOT GIVEN.

In paragraph four, Barr identifies four primary immigrant enclaves and analyzes their locations in terms of the amenities available in the area. 

Nothing is mentioned on whether this was the biggest problem for many immigrants at the time or not.

35- In the nineteenth century, New York’s immigrant neighborhoods tended to concentrate around the harbor.

 The answer is NO.

In paragraph four, most of these enclaves were located on the least valuable land, between the industries located on the waterfront and the wealthy neighborhoods bordering Central Park.

Complete the summary using the list of phrases, A–J, below.

The bedrock myth

36. H > The answer is SPECIFIC AREAS.

In paragraph seven, chapter seven tackles the ‘bedrock myth’, the assumption that the absence of bedrock close to the surface between Downtown and Midtown (SPECIFIC AREAS) is the reason for skyscrapers not being built between the two urban centers.

37. D > The answer is EXCESSIVE EXPENSE.

38. I > The answer is TOTAL EXPENDITURE.

In paragraph seven, Barr argues that while deeper bedrock does increase foundation costs, these costs were neither prohibitively high (EXCESSIVE EXPENSE) nor were they large compared to the overall cost (TOTAL EXPENDITURE) of building a skyscraper.

39. B > The answer is DEEP EXCAVATIONS

40. F > The answer is ASSOCIATED RISKS.

In paragraph seven, he describes the use of caissons, which enable workers to dig down for considerable distances (DEEP EXCAVATIONS), often below the water table, until they reach bedrock. 

Barr’s thorough technological history discusses not only how caissons work, but also the dangers involved (ASSOCIATED RISKS).

Reading Passage 1:The Dead Sea Scrolls

1- heard noise of breaking when one teenager threw a ……

The answer is rock.

In paragraph one,  one of these young shepherds tossed a rock into an opening on the side of a cliff and was surprised to hear a shattering sound.

2:3- teenagers went into the …….. and found a number of containers made of …….

The answer is cave.

The answer is clay.

In paragraph one, he and his companions later entered the cave and stumbled across a collection of large clay jars.

The Scrolls

4- thought to have been written by group of people known as the …..

The answer is Essenes.

In paragraph two, the area was known as Judea at that time, and the people are thought to have belonged to a group called the Essenes.

5- written mainly in the …….. language

The answer is Hebrew.

In paragraph three, the majority of the texts on the Dead Sea Scrolls are in Hebrew.

6- The Bedouin teenagers who found the scrolls were disappointed by how little money they received for them.

The answer is NOT GIVEN.

In paragraph one, the teenagers took the seven scrolls to a nearby town where they were sold for a small sum to a local antiquities dealer.

7- There is agreement among academics about the origin of the Dead Sea Scrolls.

The answer is FALSE.

In paragraph two, the origin of the Dead Sea Scrolls, which were written 2000 years ago between 150 BCE and 70 CE, is still the subject of scholarly debate even today.

8- Most of the books of the Bible written on the scrolls are incomplete.

The answer is TRUE.

In paragraph four, the Dead Sea Scrolls include fragments from every book of the Old Testament of the Bible except for the Book of Esther. 

9- The information on the Copper Scroll is written in an unusual way.

The answer is TRUE.

In paragraph five, the exception is the scroll numbered 3Q15, which was created out of a combination of copper and tin. Known as the Copper Scroll, this curious document features letters chiseled onto metal – perhaps, as some have theorized, to be better withstand the passage of time.

10- Mar Samuel was given some of the scrolls as a gift.

The answer is FALSE.

In paragraph six, some of the Dead Sea Scrolls have been on interesting journeys. In 1948, a Syrian Orthodox archbishop known as Mar Samuel acquired four of the original seven scrolls from a Jerusalem shoemaker and part-time antiquity dealer, paying less than $100 for them.

11- In the early 1950, a number of educational establishments in the US were keen to buy scrolls from Mar Samuel.

The answer is FALSE.

In paragraph six, fortunately, Israeli archeologist and statesman Yigael Ladin negotiated their purchase and brought the scrolls back to Jerusalem, where they remain to this day.

12- The scroll that was pieced together in 2017 contains information about annual occasions in the Qumran area 2000 years ago.

The answer is TRUE.

In paragraph seven, tdeciphered from a band of coded text on parchment, the find provides insight into the community of people who wrote it and the 364-day calendar they would have used.

13- Academics at the university of Haifa are currently researching how to decipher the final scroll.

The answer is NOT GIVEN.

Reading Passage 2:A Second Attempt at Domesticating Tomato

14- a reference to a type of tomato that resist a dangerous infection 

The answer is C.

In paragraph C, in this way they managed to create a strain 

resistant to a common disease called bacterial spot race, which can devastate yields.

15- an explanation of how problems can arise from focusing only on a certain type of tomato plant

The answer is B.

In paragraph B, but every time a single mutation is taken from a larger population breeding, much genetic diversity is lost. And sometimes the desirable mutations come with less desirable traits.

16- a number of examples of plants that are not cultivated at present but could be useful as food sources

The answer is E.

In paragraph E, the three teams already have their eyes on other plants that could be ‘catapulted into the mainstream’, including foxtail, oat-grass and cowpea. By choosing wild plants that are drought or heat tolerant, says Gas, we could create crops that will thrive even as the planet warms.

17- a comparison between the early domestication of the tomato and more recent research

The answer is A.

In paragraph A, and they have down it better in some ways, as the re-domesticated tomatoes are more nutritious than the ones we eat at present.

18- a personal reaction to the flavor of a tomato that has been genetically edited 

The answer is C.

In paragraph C, ‘they are quite tasty,’ says Kudla. ‘A little bit strong. And very aromatic.’

Look at the following statements (Questions 19–23) and the list of researchers below.
Write the correct letter, A–D, in boxes 19–23 on your answer sheet.

List of researchers
A Jorg Kudla
B Caixia Gao
C Joyce Van Eck
D Jonathan Jones

19- Domestication of certain plants could allow them to adapt to future environmental challenges.

The answer is B.

In paragraph E, the three teams already have their eye on other plants that could be ‘catapulted into the mainstream’, including foxtail, oat-grass and cowpea. By choosing wild plants that are drought or heat tolerant, says Gas, we could create crops that will thrive even as the plant warms.

20- The idea of growing and eating unusual plants may be accepted on a large scale.

The answer is D.

In paragraph E, this approach could boost the use of many obscure plants, says Jonathan Jones of the Sainsbury Lab in the UK. 

21- It is not advisable for the future direction of certain research to be made public.

The answer is A.

In paragraph E, but Kudla didn’t want to reveal which species were in his team’s sights, because CRISPR has made the process easy. ‘Any one with the right skills could go to their lab and do this.’

22- Present efforts to domesticate one wild fruit are limited by the costs involved.

The answer is C.

In paragraph D, but she adds that taking the work further would be expensive because of the need to pay for a license for the CRISPR technology and get regulatory approval.

23- Humans only make use of a small proportion of the plant food available on Earth.

The answer is A.

In paragraph A, ‘there are 50,000 edible plants in the world, but 90% of our energy comes from just 15 props.’

Complete the sentences below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

24- An undesirable trait such as loss of ….. may be caused by a mutation in a tomato gene.

 The answer is flavor/flavour.

In paragraph B, but every time a single plant with a mutation is taken from a larger population for breeding, much genetic diversity is lost. And sometimes the desirable mutations come with less desirable traits. For instance, the tomato strains grown for supermarkets have lost much of their flavor.

25- By modifying one gene in a tomato plant, researchers made the tomato three times its original ….

 The answer is size.

In paragraph C, Kuala’s team made six changes altogether. For instance, they tripled the size of fruit by editing a gene called FRUIT WEIGHT, and increased the number of tomatoes per truss by editing another called MULTIFLORA.

26- A type of tomato which was not badly affected by ……, and was rich in vitamin C, was produced by a team of researchers in China.

 The answer is salt.

In paragraph C, the team in China re-domesticated several strains of wild tomatoes with desirable traits lost in domesticated tomatoes. In this way they managed to create a strain resistant to a common disease called bacterial spot race, which can devastate yields. They also created another strain that is more salt tolerant – and has higher levels of vitamin C.

Reading Passage 3:Insight or evolution?

Choose the correct letter in boxes, A, B, C or D.

27- The purpose of the first paragraph is to 

The answer is D.

In paragraph one, scientific discovery id popularly believed to result from the sheer genius of such intellectual stars as naturalist Charles Darwin and theoretical physicist Albert Einstein. Our view of such unique contributions to science often discards the person’s prior experience and the efforts of their lesser-known predecessors. 

28- What are the writers doing in the second paragraph?

The answer is A. >> outline a common assumption

In paragraph two, there may be limited truth to this view.

29- In the third paragraph, what do the writers suggest about Darwin and Einstein?

The answer is A. >>  they represent an exception to a general rule.

In paragraph three, setting aside such greats as Darwin and Einstein, we suggest that innovation is more of a process of trial and error, where two steps forward may sometimes come with one step back, as well as more steps to the right or to the left.

30- John Nicholson is an example of a person whose idea 

The answer is C. >> laid the foundations for someone else’s breakthrough

In paragraph four, Niels Bohr, the Nobel prize-winning father of modern atomic theory, jumped off from this interesting idea to conceive his now-famous model of the atom. 

31- What is the key point of interest about the ‘ace-deucy’ stirrup placement?

The answer is A. >> the simple reason why it was invented 

In paragraph six, had he foreseen the speed advantage that would be conferred by riding ace-deucy? No. He suffered a leg injury, which left him unable to fully bend his left knee. His modification just happened to coincide with enhanced left-hand turning performance. 

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
Write True, False or Not Given

32- Acknowledging people such as Plato da Vinci as geniuses will help us understand the process by which great minds create new ideas.

 The answer is NO.

In paragraph eight, the notion of insight, creativity and genius are often invoked, but they remain vague and of doubtful scientific utility, especially when one considers the diverse and enduring contributions individuals such as Plato, Leonardo da Vinci, Shakespeare, Beethoven, Galileo, Newton, Kleper, Curie, Pasteur and Edison. These notions merely label rather than explain the evolution of human innovations. We need another approach, and there is a promising candidate.

33- The Law of Effect was discovered at a time when psychologists were seeking a scientific reason why creativity occurs.

 The answer is NOT GIVEN.

In paragraph nine, the Law of Effect was advanced by psychologist Edward Thorndike in 1898, some 40 years after Charles Darwin published his groundbreaking work on biological evolution, On the Origin of Species.

34- The Law of Effect states that no planning is involved in the behavior of organisms.

 The answer is YES.

In paragraph nine, just like Darwin’s Law of Natural Selection, the Law of Effect involves an entirely mechanical process of variation and selection, without any end objective in sight. 

35- The Law of Effect sets out clear explanations about the sources of new ideas and behaviors.

 The answer is NO.

In paragraph ten, the generation of novel ideas and behaviors may not be entirely random, but constrained by prior successes and failures – of current individual (such as Bohr) or of predecessors (such as Nicholson)

36- Many scientists are now turning away from the notion of intelligent design and genius.

 The answer is NOT GIVEN.

In paragraph eleven, this time seems right for abandoning the naive of intelligent design and genius, and for scientifically exploring the true origins of creative behavior. 

Complete the summary using the list of words, A–G, below.

The origins of creative behavior 

37- The traditional view of scientific discovery is that breakthroughs happens when a single great mind has sudden ……..

 The answer is F. >> inspiration

In paragraph one, conventional wisdom also places great weight on insight in promoting breakthrough scientific achievements, as if ideas spontaneously pop into someone’s head – fully formed and functional. 

38- In some cases, this process involves …., such as Nicholdos’s theory about proto-elements.

 The answer is D. >> mistakes

In paragraph four, these successes are all the more noteworthy given the fact that Nicholson was wrong about the presence of porto-elements. 

39- There is also often an element of ……, for example, the coincidence of ideas that led to the invention of the Post-It note.

 The answer is E. >> luck

In paragraph seven, plenty of other stories show that fresh advances can arise from error, misadventure, and also pure serendipity. 

40- With both the Law of Natural Selection and the Law of Effect, there may be no clear  ….. involved, but merely a process of variation and selection.

The answer is B. >> goals

In paragraph nine, just like Darwin’s Law of Natural Selection, the Law of Effect involves an entirely mechanical process of variation and selection, without any end objective in sight. 

Reading Passage 1: The Development of the London underground railway

1. ………………………… of London increased rapidly between 1800 and 1850

population – First paragraph, first line. In the first half (1800 – 1850) of the 1800s, London’s population grew at an astonishing rate.

• Building the railway would make it possible to move people to better housing in the……………….

Suburb – Second Paragraph, Fourth line. His idea was to relocate the poor workers who lived in the inner- city slums to newly constructed suburbs.

• A number of …………….agreed with Pearson’s idea

Businessmen –  Second Paragraph, Sixth line. Pearson’s ideas gained support amongst some businessmen and in.

• The company initially had problem getting the …………….needed for the project

Funding – Third Paragraph, Fourth line. The organization had difficulty in raising the funding for such a radical and expensive scheme.

• Negative articles about the project appeared in the………………

press –  Third Paragraph, Fifth line.  not least because of the critical (negative) articles printed by the press.

• With the completion of the brick arch, the tunnel was covered with ……..

soil – Fourth Paragraph, Last line. A two-metre-deep layer of soil was laid on the top of the tunnel and the road above rebuilt.

True/ False/Not given

       7. Other countries had built underground railways before the metropolitan line opened.

False – Fifth Paragraph, First line. The metropolitan line, which opened on 10 January 1863, was the world’s first underground railway.

• More people than predicted travelled on the metropolitan line on the first day.

Not Given – Fifth Paragraph, Second and third line.  On its first day, almost 40,000 passengers were carried between Paddington and Farringdon, the journey taking 18 minutes.
Explanation:- nowhere it is written that people were more than predicted (already thought).

• The use of ventilation shafts failed to prevent pollution in the tunnels.

True – Sixth Paragrah, Fifth line to last line. The line used specially designed locomotives that were fitted with water tanks in which steam could be condensed. However, smoke and fumes remained a problem, even though ventilation shafts were added to the tunnels.

Explanation:- Smoke and fumes remained (persisted) despite ventilation shafts in tunnel. It means shafts were failed to stop pollution in tunnels.

1. A different approach from the ‘cut and cover’ technique was required in London’s central area.

True – Seventh Paragraph, Second line to last line. The problem was partly that that the existing underground lines formed a circuit around the centre of London and extended to the suburbs, but did not cross the capital’s centre. The ‘cut and cover’ method of construction was not an option in this part of the capital. The only alternative was to tunnel deep underground.  

Explanation:- The ‘cut and cover’ method of construction was not an option means this method could not be used.

1. The windows on City & South London trains were at eye level.

False – Eighth Paragraph, Sixth line. The carriages were narrow and had tiny windows just  below the roof because it was thought that passengers would not want to look out at the tunnels walls.

Explanation:- Windows were just below the train’s roof. It means above the eye level.

1. The City & South London Railway was a financial success.

False  – Eighth Paragraph, Eighth line . Although the city & South London Railway was a great technical achievement, it did not make a profit.

Explanation:- Financial success means earning a lot of money. But it was not true.

1. Trains on the ‘Tuppenny Tube’ nearly always ran on time.

Not Given – Eighth Paragraph, last three lines. The Central London Railway, known as the ‘Tuppenny Tube’, began operation using new electric locomotives. It was very popular and soon afterwards new railways and extensions were added to growing tube networks.

Explanation:- There is nothing about time.

Reading Passage 2:Stadiums: past, present, and future

Which section contain the following information?

1. a mention of negative attitudes towards stadium building projects.

A – A paragraph’s second part full. Today, however, stadiums are regarded with growing scepticism. Construction costs can soar above 1 billion, and stadiums finished for major events such as the Olympic Games or the FIFA World Cup have notably fallen into disuse and disrepair. Vocabulary :- Scepticism – doubt as to the truth of something

Explanation:- The meaning of these lines is that billions are spent on making these stadium, which are used only for one big event, and after that, there is no use of them, and even, they are not repaired. These are negative points for stadiums.

1. figures demonstrating the environmental benefits of a certain stadium.

F – F Pragraph’s second part’s first line to fifth line. Freiburg Mage Solar Stadium in Germany is the first of new wave of stadiums as power plants, which also includes the Amsterdam Arena and the Kaohsiung Stadium. The latter, inaugurated in 2009, has         8,844 photovoltaic panels producing up to 1.14 GWh of electricity annually. This reduces the annual output of carbon dioxide by 660 tons and supplies up to 80 percent of the surrounding area when the stadium is not in use.

Explanation:- Environmental benefits: 1.14 GWh of electricity is produced annually from the solar system at Kaohsiung Stadium, which reduces 660 tons of carbon dioxide emission. Figures: 1.14 GHW & 660 tons.

1. examples of the wide range of facilities available at some new stadiums.

E – paragraph’s second part full paragraph and first line from third paragraph. There’s a growing trend for stadiums to be equipped with public spaces and services that serve a function beyond sport, such as hotels, retail outlets, conference centres, restaurants and bars, children’s playgrounds and green space. Creating mixed-use developments such as this reinforces compactness and multi – functionality, making more efficient use of land helping to regenerate urban spaces.

Explanation:- The wide range of facilities: hotels, retail outlets, conference centres, restaurants, bars, children’s playgrounds and green space.

1. reference to the disadvantages of the stadiums built during a certain era.

 D – D Paragraph’s second line to the last line. But some of the flexibility was lost at the beginning of the 20^th century, as stadiums were developed using new products such as steel and reinforced concrete, and made use of bright lights for night-time matches. Many such stadiums are situated in suburban areas, designed for sporting use only and surrounded by parking lots. These factors mean that they may not be as accessible to the general public

Explanation:- Certain era: 20^th century. Disadvantages:- 1. Due to the use of steel and concrete, the stadiums were not easy to change as intended. 2. Designed for sporting only so not accessible to the general public.

Complete the summary below.

Roman amphitheatres

1. The amphitheatre of Arles, for example, was converted first into a………………, then into a residential area

fortress – B paragraph’s first three line. The amphitheatre of Arles in Southwest France, with a capacity of 25,000 spectators, is perhaps the best example of just how versatile stadium can be. Built by the Romans in 90 AD, it became a fortress with four towers after the fifth century,

1. and finally into an arena where spectators could watch……………… .

bullfights – B paragraph’s first part’s last three lines. With the growing interest in conservation during the 19^th century, it was converted back into an arena for the staging of bullfights, thereby returning the structure to its original use as a venue for public spectacles.

• Meanwhile, the arena in Verona, one of the oldest Roman amphitheatres, is famous today as a venue where………………..is performed.

opera –  B paragraph’s second part’s last two lines It has endured the centuries and is currently considered one of the world’s prime sites for opera

• The site of Lucca’s amphitheatre has also been used for many

purposes over the centuries, including the storage of…………………………..

salt – C paragraph from third line.  The site (centre of the Italian Town of Lucca) evolved in a similar way to Arles and was progressively filled with buildings from the Middle Ages until the 19th century, variously used as houses, a salt depot and a prison.

Explanation:- Depot = Storage

• It is now a market square with…………………….and homes incorporated into the remains of the Roman amphitheatre.

shops – C Paragraph’s last two line. Today, the ruins of the amphitheatre remain embedded in the various shops and residences surrounding the public square.

Choose TWO letters, A-E

     23&24 When comparing twentieth–century stadiums to ancient amphitheatre in Section D, which TWO negative features does the writer mention?

C –  They are in less convenient location. D paragraph’s last three line. Many such stadiums are situated in suburban areas, designed for sporting use only and surrounded       by parking lots. These factors mean that they may not be as accessible to the general public.

Explanation:- Because of stadiums surrounded by car parks, they might not accessible to the public. 

D – They are less versatile. D paragraph’s second & third line. But some of the flexibility was lost at the beginning of the 20th century, as stadiums were developed using new products such as steel and reinforced concrete,

Explanation:- The use of steel and concrete reduced the flexibility(Versatility) of changing the structure of stadiums. 

    25&26. Which TWO advantages of modern stadium design does the writer mention?  

B – bringing community life back into the city environment. E paragraph’s third part’s first two line.  This opens the space up to families and wider cross-section of society, instead of catering only to sportspeople and supporters.

Explanation:- for more clarification, please read the second part of the E paragraph. Rest is clear I think😉

E – providing a suitable site for the installation of renewable power generators. F paragraph’s first paragraph’s last three line. Stadiums are ideal for these purposes (power stations), because their canopies have large surface area for fitting photovoltaic panels (Solar Panels) and rise high enough (more than 40 metres) to make use of micro wind turbines.

Reading Passage 3:To catch a king

• Charles II then formed a ……………………with the Scots, and in order to become King of Scots,

H – strategic alliance, First paragraph’s fifth line to ninth line. After his father was executed by the parliamentarians in 1649, the young Charles II sacrificed one of the very principles his father had died for and did a deal with the Scots,

Explanation:- Deal = an agreement entered into by two or more parties for their mutual benefit. Alliance= a union or association formed for mutual benefit

• he abandoned an important……………………. that was held by his father

and had contributed to his father’s death.

J – religious conviction, First paragraph 7^th line to 11^th line. Charles II sacrificed one of the very principles his father had died for and did a deal with the Scots, thereby accepting Presbyterianism as the national religion in return for being crowned King of Scots.

Explanation:- Principle =  proposition that serves as the foundation for a system of belief or behavior. Conviction = a firmly held belief or opinion. Presbyterianism =  part of the reformed Protestant religion.

Further explanation:- Charles II’s father had religious principles for what her died, but Charles II abandoned those principles by accepting Presbyterianism.

• The battle led to a………………..for the Parliamentarians and Charles had to flee for his life.

F – decisive victory, First paragraph’s 8^th line to 12^th line from the bottom.  After being comprehensively defeated on the meadows outside the city by the parliamentarian army, the 21-year-old king found himself the subject of a national manhunt

Explanation:- Parliamentarians comprehensively defeated the Charles and he had to flee. Charles’s defeat means parliamentarians’ victory.

• A…………………….was offered for Charles’s capture, but after six weeks spent in hiding,

B – large reward, First paragraph’s 7^th to 9^th line from bottom. with a huge sum offered for his capture.    

Explanation:- Huge sum = Large reward

• he eventually managed to reach the…………………….of continental Europe.

D – relative safety. First paragraph’s 3^rd  to 7^th line from bottom. Over the following six weeks he managed, through a series of heart-poundingly close escapes, to evade the Parliamentarians before seeking refuge in France.

Explanation:- Refuge = a condition of being safe or sheltered from pursuit, danger, or trouble.

Yes/No/Not given

     32.Charles chose Pepys for the task because he considered him to be trustworthy.

Not given – second paragraph’s first to sixth line. Years later, after his restoration as king,  the 50-year-old Charles II requested a meeting with the writer and diarist Samuel Pepys. His intention when asking Pepys to commit his story to paper was ensure that this most extraordinary episode was never forgotten.

Explanation:- These lines do not explain whether Pepys was trustworthy or not, and he just want to ensure him to write important episode of his life.    

• Charles’s personal recollection of the escape lacked sufficient detail.

No – Second paragraph’s 7^th  to 9^th line. Over two three-hour sittings, the king related to him in great detail his personal recollections of the six weeks he had spent as fugitive.

Explanation:- The king told him his personal recollections in a great detail.

• Charles indicated to Pepys that he had planned his escape before the battle.

No – second paragraph’s last four line. After the battle was so absolutely lost as to be beyond hope of recovery, I began to think of the best way of saving myself.

Explanation:- Charles decided to escape when he realized that winning the war was not possible for him.

• The inclusion of Charles’s account is a positive aspect of the book.

 Yes – third paragraph’s first line to fourth line. One of the joys of Spencer’s book, a result not least of its use of Charles II’s own narrative as well as those of his supporters, is just how close the reader gets to the action.

Explanation:- The book makes readers feel that they are spectators of the actions (events). In simple language, they feel that they are seeing those events happening in reality, which is joyous.

Choose the correct letter A,B,C and D

• What is the reviewer’s main purpose in the first paragraph?

B – to give an account of the circumstances leading to Charles II’s escape. first paragraph’s twelfth line to twenty-first line. His arrival in Edinburgh prompted the English Parliamentary army to invade Scotland in a pre-emptive strike. This was followed by a Scottish invasion of England. The two sides finally faced one another at Worcester in the west of England in 1651. After being comprehensively defeated on the meadows outside the city by the parliamentarian army the 21-year-old king found himself the subject of a national manhunt.

Explanation:- From his return to Scotland, he was attacked by the British, and then Charles II had to escape because he was defeated in the war. So, the paragraph tells all about the reasons why he had to run after the war.

• Why does the reviewer include examples of the fugitives’ behavior in the third paragraph?

C – to illustrate how the events of six weeks are brought to life. Third paragraph’s last seven line. Spencer draws out both the humour – such as the preposterous refusal of Charles’s friend Henry Wilmot to adopt disguise on the grounds that it was beneath his dignity – and the emotional tension when the secret of the king’s presence was cautiously revealed to his supporters.

Explanation:- The reviewer wants to illustrate how to make the story more realistic (brought to life) the book includes the behaviour of the king and his companions.

• What point does the reviewer makes about Charles II in the fourth paragraph?

A –He chose to celebrate what was essentially a defeat. Fourth paragraph’s eleventh line to last line. This makes it all the more interesting that Charles II himself loved the story ever after. As well as retelling it to anyone who would listen, causing eye-rolling among courtiers, he set in train a series of initiatives to memorialize it……. A series of enormous oil paintings depicting the episode were produced, including a two-metre-wide canvas of Boscobel Wood and a set of six similarly enormous paintings of the king on the run. In 1660, Charles II commissioned the artist John Michael Wright to paint a flying squadron of cherubs carrying an oak tree to the heavens on the ceilings of his bedchamber. It is hard to imagine many other kings marking the lowest point in their life so enthusiastically, or indeed pulling off such an escape in the first place.

Explanation:- Charles II got the episodes of his run painted in numerous ways. He was escaping for his life during that time, which was his life’s low point. Instead of hiding it, he depicted it in several artistic ways.  

• What does the reviewer say about Charles Spencer in the fifth paragraph?

B – He takes an unbiased approach to the subject matter, fifth paragraph’s fifth line to tenth line. He has even-handed sympathy for both the fugitive king and the fierce republican regime that hunted him, he succeeds in his desire to explore far more of the background of the story than previous books on the subject have done.

Explanation:- Even Handed – fair and impartial in treatment or judgment (Unbiased). Charles Spenser (the book writer) did not favour the king or his hunters (republican).

• When the reviewer says the book ‘doesn’t quite hit the mark’, she is making the point that

D – It fails to address whether Charles II’s experiences had a lasting influence on him. Sixth paragraph is first line to tenth line. The tantalizing question left, in the end, is that of what it all meant. Would Charles II have been a different king had these six weeks never happened? The days and nights spent in hiding must have affected him in some way. Did the need to assume disguises, to survive on wit and charm alone, to use trickery and subterfuge to escape from tight corners form him? This is the one area   where the book doesn’t quite hit the mark.

Explanation: – The book did not answer questions like whether this incident brought some changes in his life and character or not. So, this area is not discussed in the book.

Reading Passage 1: Roman tunnels

1. ………………………. to direct the tunneling

posts – First paragraph, 3^rd line. “They introduced the qanat method of tunnel construction, which consisted of placing posts over a hill in a straight line, to ensure that the tunnel kept to its route.” The meaning of “to ensure that the tunnel kept to its route” is that tunnel should go into the right direction.

2. water runs into a …………………….. used by local people

canal – First paragraph, 7^th line. “Once the tunnel was completed, it allowed water to flow from top of a hillside down towards a canal, which supplied water for human use.” Human use = local people.

3. vertical shafts to remove earth and for………………………..

ventilation – First paragraph, 6^th line. “The excavated soil was taken up to the surface using the shafts, which also provided ventilation.”

4. ………………………… made of wood or stone

lid – Second paragraph, 3^rd line. “The shafts were equipped with handholds and footholds to help those climbing in and out of them and were covered with a wooden or stone lid.”

5. ………………………… attached to plumb line

weight – Second paragraph, 5^th line. “Romans hung a plumb line from a rod placed across the top of each shaft and made sure that the weight at the end of it hung in the centre of the shaft.”

6. handholds and footholds used for…………………….

climbing – Second paragraph, 3^rd line.  “The shafts were equipped with handholds and footholds to help those climbing in and out of them.”

TRUE/ FALSE/ NOT GIVEN

7. The counter-excavation method completely replaced the qanat method in the 6^th century BCE.

FALSE – Third paragraph’s first 3 lines. “It was used to cut through high mountains when the qanat method was not practical alternative.” It means when qanat method was not useful, then counter-excavation method was used. So counter-excavation method did not completely replaced qanat method. So FALSE.

8. Only experienced builders were employed to construct a tunnel using the counter-excavation method.

NOT GIVEN – In third paragraph, from 3^rd line to 5^th line, they talk about knowledge, skill, and planning needed for counter excavation. But not anywhere they said only experienced were employed to construct tunnels using counter-excavation method. So NOT GIVEN.

9. The information about a problem that occurred during the construction of the Saldae aqueduct system was found in ancient book.

False – Third paragraph’s last four lines. In these lines, they said that inscription was written on the side of 428-meter tunnel that describes how two teams of builders missed each other in the mountain. The problem is written on side of the cave not in any ancient book. So FALSE. (Inscription: written or carved on something)  

10. The mistake made by the builders of the Saldae aqueduct system was that the two parts of the tunnel failed to meet.

True –  Third paragraph’s second-last line. “Teams of builders missed each other in the mountain and how the later construction of a lateral link between both corridors corrected the initial error.” Clearly given. So TRUE. (Lateral – from a side or sides)

Answer the questions below

11. What type of mineral were the Dolaucothi mines in Wales built to extract?

gold – Fourth paragraph, 6^th line. “Traces of such tunnels used to mine gold can still be found at Dolaucothi mines in Wales.”

12. In addition to the patron, whose name might be carved onto a tunnel?

(the) architect(‘s) (name) – Last paragraph, 11^th line. “Most tunnels had inscriptions showing the names of patrons who ordered construction and sometimes the name of the architect.”

13. What part of Seleuceia Pieria was the Cevlik tunnel built to protect?

(the) harbour/ harbor – Last paragraph, 13^th line. “1.4- kilometer Cevlik tunnel in Turkey, built to divert the floodwater threatening the harbor of the ancient city of Seleuceia Pieria”

Reading Passage 2:Changes in reading habits

14. What is the writer’s main point in the first paragraph?

A – Our use of technology is having a hidden effect on us– First paragraph, lines 4 to 6. “The meaning of these lines is that neuronal circuit related to our reading ability is changing without everyone’s knowledge.” Unbeknown-without the knowledge of someone. Invisible is a synonym to hidden. Hence, there is a hidden effect.

15. What main point does Sherry Turkle make about innovation?

B – We should pay attention to what might be lost when innovation occurs– Third paragraph, line 2 to 5. “We do not err as a society when we innovate but when we ignore what we disrupt or diminish while innovating.” In these lines, the writer said that we make an err (mistake) when we do not pay attention to what we disrupt or diminish (make or become less) while innovating.

16. What point is the writer making in the fourth paragraph?

D – Some brain circuits adjust to whatever is required of them– Fourth paragraph, line 2 to 6. “It will adapt to that environment’s requirements” This paragraph is about reading circuit of the brain, and the writer explained that reading circuit changes according to the requirement. (Adapt- adjust modify)

17. According to Mark Edmundson, the attitude of college students

B – has influenced what they select to read– Fifth paragraph, line 3 to 5. “In these lines, Mark Edmundson said the students have attitude of no patience to read longer, denser, and more difficult text so they avoid (not select) classic literature of 19^th and 20^th century.”

Write the correct letter A-H

Studies on digital screen use

18. showing some……………. trends.

D – worrying. Sixth paragraph’s First two lines. Keyword -> Troubling = Worrying.

19. technique to find out how ………………….. each group’s understanding

H – thorough. 6^th paragraph, line 6 and 7. “Result indicated that who read on print were superior in their comprehension” Keyword – superior in their comprehension = thorough in understanding.  

20. finding the order of information …………………… to recall.

F – hard. 6^th paragraph, line 6 to 8. “Result indicated that students who read on print were superior in their comprehension to screen-reading peers, particularly in their ability to sequence detail and reconstruct the plot in chronological order.” In these lines, the writer said students who read on print were good at understanding and they can better detail information in chronological (following the order of events in which they occurred) order. So it means screen reading peers were not good at such capabilities and it was hard for them to recall order of information.

21. tending to read  ………………….. words and phrases in a text to save time.

B – isolated. 7^th paragraph line 3 to 4. “ Many readers now use a pattern when reading in which they sample the first line and the word-spot through rest of the text. When the reading brain skims like this, it reduces time allocated to deep reading processes.” Word-spotting = isolated words

22. superficial understanding of the ……………………… content of material

C – emotional. 7^th paragraph’s last 2 lines. “In other words, we don’t have time to grasp complexity, to understand another’s feelings.” Feelings = emotions.

YES/ NO/ NOT GIVEN

23. The medium we use to read can affect our choice of reading content.

Yes – Eighth paragraph, line 3 & 4. “It is about how all we have begun to read on various mediums and how that changes not only what we read, but also purposes for which we read.” What we read = choice of reading content. So the answer is YES.

24. Some age groups are more likely to lose the complex reading skills than others.

No – Eighth paragraph, line 4 & 5. “Nor is it only about the young. The subtle atrophy of critical analysis and empathy effects us all equally.” It effects us all equally, not some age groups. So the answer is NO. Atrophy = gradual decline in effectiveness or vigour. 

25. False information has become more widespread in today’s digital era.

Not Given – Eighth paragraph, line 5 to 8. In these lines, the writer said that due to a lot of information, we go to familiar (known) information which is unchecked and receive and require no analysis. It makes likely to influence by false information. But nowhere the writer talk about false information has become widespread. So the answer is NOT GIVEN.

26. We still have opportunities to rectify the problems that technology is presenting.

YES – Last paragraph’s line 3 & 4. “We possess both the science and the technology to identify and redress the changes how we read before they become entrenched.” It means we have science and technology to find and rectify (solve/ redress) problems that technology is presenting before they get permanent. Entrenched = firmly established.

Reading Passage 3:Attitudes towards Artificial Intelligence

27. Section A

iii – The superiority of AI projections over those made by humans. Section A’s full first part and the second part’s first line. A section’s first part tells about fields in which AI is used to predict future. In the A section’s second part’s first line, it is clearly said that AI is almost always better at forecasting (predict/projection) than we are. So the answer is iii. 

28. Section B

vi – Widespread distrust of an AI innovation. B section’s first part, from line 6 to 9, and line 1 & 2 of the second part of B section. Watson is a supercomputer used for Oncology. If Watson gives opinion about treatment that doctors already know, then doctors do not see it with much value. If Watson recommends something opposite of expert’s opinion, doctors think Watson is not smart enough. It means they do not want to trust Watson in any way. So the answer is vi. 

29. Section C

ii – Reasons why we have more faith in human judgement than in AI. Section C, from line 1 to 5. In these lines, the writer explained that we trust in human more because we understand how others think and our trust on them was right so we feel safe. But we do not know much about AI, so we do not faith them. Thus, the answer is ii.   

30. Section D

i – An increasing divergence of attitudes towards AI. Section D’s 2^nd part’s 3^rd & 4^th line. “ As AI is represented more and more in media and entertainment, it could lead to society split between those who benefit and those who reject it.” Divergence (split) = Difference in opinions.

31. Section E

vii – Encouraging openness about how AI functions. Section E’s full second part. The first line of this part said showing more about how algorithms work and for what they work will improve the trust in AI. So answer is vii.

32. Section F

v – The advantages of involving users in AI processes. First line of F section. “Allowing people’s control over AI decision-making could also improve trust”. Advantage-> improve people’s trust.

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

33. What is the writer doing in Section A?

C  – highlighting the existence of a problem. Section A’s second part’s line 2 & 3. The problem is the lack of confidence in AI predictions. So the answer is C. 

34. According to Section C, why might some people be reluctant to accept AI?

B – its complexity makes them feel they are at a disadvantage. Section C’s first part’s last three lines. A sense of losing control is the disadvantage that the writer talked about. Complexity-> difficult to comprehend. Comprehend = understand.

35. What does the writer say about the media in Section C of the text?

A – It leads the public to be mistrustful of AI. Section C’s second part’s lines 3 to 5. “Embarrassing AI failures receive a disproportionate amount of media attention, emphasizing the massage that we cannot rely on technology.” Clearly give.   

YES/ NO/ NOT GIVEN

36. Subjective depictions of AI in sci-fi films make people change their opinion about automation.

NO – Section D’s first part’s lines 3 to 7. “In the last line of this part, it is said that optimists became more extreme in their enthusiasm for AI and skeptics became even more guarded.” It means people who favour AI start favoring more while who doubt AI became stronger in their opinion after watching AI film. So the answer is NO.

37. Portrayals of AI in media and entertainment are likely to become more positive.

NOT GIVEN – There is discussion related to media and entertainment in D section but nothing is discussed whether the media will portray AI positively or not.

38. Rejection of the possibilities of AI may have a negative effect on many people’s lives.

YES – Section D’s second part’s last 2 lines. “Refusing to accept the advantages offered by AI could place a large group of people at a serious disadvantage.” Clearly given. So, the answer is YES.

39. Familiarity with AI has very little impact on people’s attitude to the technology.

NO – Section E’s first part’s lines 2 to 4. “In these lines, the writer said that having previous experience with AI can significantly improve people’s opinion about technology.” The given lines contradict with the question. So the answer is NO.

40. AI applications which users are able to modify are more likely to gain consumer approval.

YES – Section F’s first part’s lines 3 & 4. “When people were allowed the freedom to slightly modify an algorithm, they felt more satisfied with its decision”. So the answer is YES.

Reading Passage 1:Roman shipbuilding and navigation

1. The Romans’ shipbuilding skills were passed on to the Greeks and the Egyptians.

FALSE – First paragraph, third line. “The Romans were not traditionally sailors but mostly land-based people, who learned to build ships from the people that they conquered, namely the Greeks and the Egyptians.” Here, the writer said that the Romans learned to build ships from the Greeks and the Egyptians. The question statement contradicts the information given in the passage. Hence, the answer is FALSE.

2. Skilled craftsmen were needed for the mortise and tenon method of fixing planks.

NOT GIVEN – There is no such information given in the passage. Some information is given in the second paragraph related to fixing mortise and tenon, in fifth line. However, there is no information on whether skilled craftsmen were needed for this work or not. So, NOT GIVEN.

3. The later practice used by Mediterranean shipbuilders involved building the hull before the frame.

FALSE – Second paragraph, seventh line. “Mediterranean shipbuilders shifted to another shipbuilding method, still in use today, which consisted of building the frame first and then proceeding with the hull ….” Here, the writer said that Mediterranean shipbuilders build the frame first and then the hull. The question statement contradicts the information given in the passage. Hence, the answer is FALSE.

4. The Romans called the Mediterranean Sea Mare Nostrum because they dominated its use.

TRUE – Third paragraph, second-last line. “Eventually, Rome’s navy became the largest and most powerful in the Mediterranean, and the Romans had control over what they therefore called Mare Nostrum meaning ‘our sea’.” Here, ‘dominated‘ means ‘had control’. Hence, the answer is TRUE.

5. Most rowers on ships were people from the Roman army.

TRUE – Fourth paragraph, fourth line from end. “It is worth noting that contrary to popular perception, rowers were not slaves but mostly Roman citizens enrolled in the military.” Here, the writer said that rowers were Roman people who were in the military (army). The question statement matches the information given in the passage. Hence, the answer is TRUE.

Complete the summary below.

Warships and merchant ships

6. Warships were designed so that they were ………. and moved quickly.

Lightweight – Third paragraph, first line. “Warships were built to be lightweight and very speedy.” ‘Speedy’ means warships can ‘move quickly’. ‘Designed’ is similar to ‘built’. Hence, the answer is lightweight.

7. A battering ram made of ………. was included in the design for attacking and damaging the timber and oars of enemy ships.

Bronze – Third paragraph, fourth line. “They had a bronze battering ram, which was used to pierce the timber hulls or break the oars of enemy vessels.” Here, bronze battering ram means that battering ram is made of bronze.

8. Warships, such as the ‘trireme’, had rowers on three different ………. .

Levels – Fourth paragraph, first line. “The ‘trireme’ was the dominant warship from the 7^th to 4^th century BCE. It had rowers in the top, middle and lower levels,…” Here, it is given that trireme is a warship, and it had rowers on three (top, middle and lower) different levels.

9. Unlike warships, merchant ships had a broad ………. that lay far below the surface of the sea.

Hull – Fifth paragraph, second line. “They had a wider hull, …… Unlike warships, their V-shaped hull was deep underwater, …..” Here, ‘they’ referred to ‘merchant ships’ (read the first line of this paragraph). ‘Wider’ is a synonym for ‘broad’. ‘Deep’ gives a hint that it is ‘far’. ‘Underwater’ means it is ‘below the surface of the sea’. Hence, the answer is hull.

10. They had both square and ………. sails.

Triangular – Fifth paragraph, fifth line. “They had from one to three masts with large square sails and a small triangular sail at the bow.” Here, it is clear that the two shapes of sail are square and triangular. Hence, the answer is triangular.

11. On merchant ships and warships, ………. was used to ensure rowers moved their oars in and out of the water at the same time.

Music – Fifth paragraph, second-last line. “In order to assist them, music would be played on an instrument, and oars would then keep time with this.” Here, it is given that oars keep time (move in and out at the same time) with the music.

12. Quantities of agricultural goods such as ………. were transported by merchant ships to two main ports in Italy.

Grain – Sixth paragraph, first line. “The cargo on merchant ships included raw materials …… and agricultural products (e.g. grain from Egypt’s Nile valley).” Here, ‘goods’ are similar to ‘products’. Hence, the answer is grain.

13. The ships were pulled to the shore by ………. .

Towboats – Sixth paragraph, third-last line. “Large merchant ships would approach the destination port and just like today, be intercepted by a number of towboats that would drag them to the quay.” Here, ‘quay’ means ‘shore’. ‘Drag’ means ‘pull’. Hence, towboats are used to pull the ships to the shore.

Reading Passage 2:Climate change reveals ancient artefacts in Norway’s glaciers

14. an explanation for weapons being left behind in the mountains

D – D paragraph, third line. “Hunters would have easily misplaced arrows and they often discarded broken bows rather than take them all the way home.” So, hunters did not take weapons to their home and left them in the mountains.

15. a reference to the physical difficulties involved in an archaeological expedition

C – C paragraph’s 2^nd part’s first line. “The slow but steady movement of glaciers tends to destroy anything at their bases, so the team focused on stationary patches of ice, mostly above 1,400 metres.

C paragraph’s 3^rd part’s first line. “Fieldwork is hard work- hiking with all our equipment, often camping on permafrost.”

 In the above-given lines, the writer talked about physical difficulties. Hence, these are the physical difficulties faced by archaeologists.

16. an explanation of why less food may have been available

F – F paragraph’s 2^nd part’s last three lines. “A colder turn in the Scandinavian climate would likely have meant widespread crop failures, …” Hence, less food may have been available because of crop failure due to cold climate.

17. a reference to the possibility of future archaeological discoveries

H – H paragraph, second-last line. “That means archaeologists could be extracting some of those artefacts from retreating ice in years to come.” Here, the writer said that in the coming years, archaeologists could find some artefacts.

18. examples of items that would have been traded

G – G paragraph, from fifth line. “And growing Norwegian …… would have created a booming demand for hides to fight off the cold, as well as antlers to make useful things like combs.” Here, the writer gives examples of two things that would have been traded. Hide = skin of an animal. Antler = horns of an adult deer.

19. a reference to the pressure archaeologists are under to work quickly

B – B paragraph’s 2^nd part’s first 2 lines. “With climate change shrinking ice cover around the world, glacial archaeologists need to race the clock to find newly revealed artefacts, preserve them and study them.” ‘Race the clock’ means they have to do ‘hurry’.

Complete the summary below.

Interesting finds at an archaeological site

20. They have little protection against ………. , which means that they decay relatively quickly.

Microorganisms/ micro-organisms – B paragraph, second line. “This is because unless they’re protected from the microorganisms that cause decay, they tend not to last long.” For more understanding, read the first line of this paragraph also. Hence, the answer is microorganisms.

21. In the past, there were trade routes through these mountains and ………. gathered there in the summer months

Reindeer – C paragraph, fourth line. “Reindeer once congregated on these icy patches in the later summer months …….. In addition, trade routes threaded through the mountain passes ….” Congregated means gathered. Reindeer gathered on icy patches during the summer months. Hence, the answer is reindeer.

22. gathered there in the summer months to avoid being attacked by ………. on lower grounds.

Insects – C paragraph, fourth line. “Reindeer once congregated on these icy patches in the later summer months to escape biting insects, ….” Here, the writer said reindeer gathered there to save themselves from insects. ‘Biting insects’ means ‘insects that bite’. ‘Escape’ means ‘to avoid’. Hence, the answer is insects.

Questions 23 and 24

Choose TWO letters, A–E.

Which TWO of the following statements does the writer make about the discoveries of Barrett’s team?

B – Hunters went into the mountains even during periods of extreme cold. F paragraph, sixth line. “But it turned out that hunters kept regularly venturing into the mountains even when the climate turned cold, …” Hence, hunters regularly went to mountains during cold climate.

C – The number of artefacts from certain time periods was relatively low. E paragraph, forth line. “They found that some periods had produced lots of artefacts, which indicates that people had been pretty active in the mountains during those times. But there were few or no signs of activity during other periods.” Here, the writer said that some periods had produced lots of artefacts which mean people were more active during those periods. However, there were some periods when people were less active means those periods had produced fewer artefacts.

Questions 25 and 26

Choose TWO letters, A–E.

Which TWO of the following statements does the writer make about the Viking Age?

A – Hunters at this time benefitted from an increased demand for goods. G paragraph, fifth line. “And growing Norwegian towns, along with export markets, would have created a booming demand for hides to fight off the cold, as well as antlers to make useful things like combs. Business must have been good for hunters.” The writer said that the booming (increased) demand for goods necessarily (must) benefitted the hunters.

C – Vikings did not rely on ships alone to transport goods. G paragraph, third line. “Although we usually think of ships when we think of Scadinavian expansion, these recent discoveries show that plenty of goods travelled on overland routes, ..” Here, the writer said that the latest discoveries show that a lot of goods were transported on overland (by land) routes. Hence, they did not rely only on ships.

Reading Passage 3:Plant ‘thermometer’ triggers springtime growth by measuring night-time heat

27. The Cambridge scientists’ discovery of the ‘thermometer molecule’ caused surprise among other scientists.

NOT GIVEN – There is no such information given in the passage. There is some information related to the discovery of the thermometer molecule by Cambridge scientists in paragraph A, but there is no such information whether it caused surprise among other scientists or not. Hence, the answer is NOT GIVEN.

28. The target for agricultural production by 2050 could be missed.

TRUE – D paragraph, fourth line. “It is estimated that agricultural yields will need to double by 2050, but climate change is a major threat to achieving this.” Here, it is given that the target for 2050 could not be achieved due to climate change. It means it could be missed. Hence, the answer is TRUE.

29. Wheat and rice suffer from a rise in temperatures.

TRUE – D paragraph, fifth line. “Key crops such as wheat and rice are sensitive to high temperatures. Thermal stress reduces crop yields by around 10% of every one degree increase in temperature.” Sensitive means wheat and rice are affected by high temperatures. Hence, the answer is TRUE.

30. It may be possible to develop crops that require less water.

NOT GIVEN – There is no such information given in the passage. Hence, the answer is not given.

31. Plants grow faster in sunlight than in shade.

FALSE – E paragraph, second line. “During the day, sunlight activates the molecules, slowing down growth. If a plant finds itself in shade, phytochromes are quickly inactivated – enabling it to grow faster to find sunlight again.” Here, it is given that sunlight slows the growth of a plant, and in the shade, the plant grows faster to find sunlight. The question statement contradicts the information given in the passage. Hence, the answer is FALSE.

32. Phytochromes change their state at the same speed day and night.

FALSE – E paragraph’s 1^st part’s second-last line. “’Light-driven changes to phytochrome activity occur very fast, in less than a second,’ says Wigge. At night, however, it’s a different story. Instead of a rapid deactivation following sundown, the molecules gradually change from their active to inactive state.” Here, the writer said that during the day, the state of phytochromes changes very fast. However, at night, it changes gradually (slowly). The question statement contradicts the information given in the passage. Hence, the answer is FALSE.

Which section contains the following information?

33. mention of specialists who can make use of the research findings

H – H paragraph, seventh line. “’Cambridge is uniquely well-positioned………. Into the field” In these lines they talk about outstanding collaborators (specialists) who work on more applied aspects of plant biology. Outstanding collaborators can help this new knowledge (research findings) into the fields. So “H” is the right answer.

34. a reference to a potential benefit of the research findings

D – D paragraph, 8th line. “’Discovering the molecules that allow plants to sense temperature has the potential to accelerate the breeding of crops resilient to thermal stress and climate change.” Here, the writer said that molecules have the potential to speed up the breeding of crops. It is the potential (having the capacity to do something in the future) benefit of the research.

35. scientific support for a traditional saying

G – G paragraph, third line. “In fact, the discovery of the dual role of phytochromes provides the science behind a well-known rhyme long used to predict the coming season: oak before ash we’ll have a splash, ash before oak we’re in for a soak.” Here, ‘well-known’ means ‘famous’, and it is said that this rhyme was used earlier (means it is traditional) to predict the season. The writer said that certain discovery gives the science behind this rhyme. Hence, it provides scientific support to this traditional rhyme.

36. a reference to people traditionally making plans based on plant behavior

C – C paragraph, first line. “Farmers and gardeners have known for hundreds of years how responsive plants are to temperature: warm winters cause many trees and flowers to bud early, something humans have long used to predict weather and harvest times for the coming year.” Here, the writer said that farmers and gardeners know about plants’ behavior to temperature, and they used this knowledge to predict weather and harvest times (plan).

37. a reference to where the research has been reported

A – A paragraph’s 2^nd part’s first line. “The new findings, published in the journal Science, show that phytochromes  ….” Hence, the research (new findings) has been reported in the journal Science.

Complete the sentences below.

38. Daffodils are likely to flower early in response to ………. weather.

Warm (winter) – G paragraph, first line. “Other species, such as daffodils, have considerable temperature sensitivity, and can flower months in advance during a warm winter.” Here, the writer said that daffodils flower early during a warm winter. Hence, the answer is warm (winter).

39. If ash trees come into leaf before oak trees, the weather in ………. will probably be wet.

Summer – G paragraph, eighth line. “A warmer spring, and consequently a higher likeliness of a hot summer will result in oak leafing before ash. …….. a colder summer is likely to be a rain-soaked one.” The meaning of above lines is that warmer spring > hot summer > oak leafing before ash. The opposite of it: ash leafing before oak > colder spring > colder summer (rain-soaked). ‘Rain-Soaked’ means ‘wet’. Hence, the answer is summer.

40. The research was carried out using a particular species of ………. .

Mustard plant(s) / mustard – H paragraph, second line. “The work was done in a model system, using a mustard plant called Arabidopsis, …” In the first line of this paragraph, the writer started discussing the research, and later in this line, it is said that the work was done using a mustard plant. Hence, the answer is mustard.