Month: May 2024

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 340

    Part 1: Questions 1 – 10
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Flanders Conference Hotel

    Customer Services Manager – Angela

    Date available
    • weekend beginning February 4th

    Conference facilities
    • the (1)  room for talks, (projector and (2)  available)
    • area for coffee and an (3) 
    • free (4)  throughout
    • a standard buffet lunch costs (5) $  per head

    Accommodation
    • Rooms will cost (6) $  including breakfast.

    Other facilities
    • The hotel also has a spa and rooftop (7) 
    • There’s a free shuttle service to the (8) 

    Location
    • Wilby Street (quite near the (9)  )
    • near to restaurants and many (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11 and 12
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO activities that volunteers do are mentioned?
     A decorating
     B cleaning
     C delivering meals
     D shopping
     E childcare

    Questions 13 and 14
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO ways that volunteers can benefit from volunteering are mentioned?
     A learning how to be part of a team
     B having a sense of purpose
     C realising how lucky they are
     D improved ability at time management
     E boosting their employment prospects

    Questions 15 – 20
    What has each of the following volunteers helped someone to do?

    Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 15-20.

    What volunteers have helped people to do
    A overcome physical difficulties
    B rediscover skills not used for a long time
    C improve their communication skills
    D solve problems independently
    E escape isolation
    F remember past times
    G start a new hobby

    Volunteers

    15. Habib 
    16. Consuela 
    17. Minh 
    18. Tanya 
    19. Alexei 
    20. Juba 

    Part 3: Questions 21 – 26
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Background on school marching band

    It consists of around (21)  students.
    It is due to play in a (22)  band competition.
    It has been invited to play in the town’s (23) 
    They have listened to a talk by a (24) 
    Joe will discuss a (25)  with the band.
    Joe hopes the band will attend a (26)  next month.

    Questions 27 – 30
    What problem does Joe mention in connection with each of the following band members?

    Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 27-30.

    Problems
    A makes a lot of mistakes in rehearsals
    B keeps making unhelpful suggestions
    C has difficulty with rhythm
    D misses too many rehearsals
    E has a health problem
    F doesn’t mix with other students

    Band members
    27. flutist 
    28. trumpeter 
    29. trombonist 
    30. percussionist 

    Part 4: Questions 31 – 40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

    Concerts in university arts festival

    Concert 1
    • Australian composer: Liza Lim
    • studied piano and (31)  before turning to composition
    • performers and festivals around the world have given her a lot of commissions
    • compositions show a great deal of (32)  and are drawn from various cultural sources
    • her music is very expressive and also (33) 
    • festival will include her (34)  called The Oresteia
    • Lim described the sounds in The Oresteia as (35) 
    • British composers: Ralph Vaughan Williams, Frederick Delius

    Concert 2
    • British composers: Benjamin Britten, Judith Weir
    • Australian composer: Ross Edwards
    • festival will include The Tower of Remoteness, inspired by nature
    • The Tower of Remoteness is performed by piano and (36) 
    • compositions include music for children
    • celebrates Australia’s cultural (37) 

    Concert 3
    • Australian composer: Carl Vine
    • played cornet then piano
    • studied (38)  before studying music
    • worked in Sydney as a pianist and composer
    • became well known as composer of music for (39) 
    • festival will include his music for the 1996 (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 339

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    TOTAL HEALTH CLINIC

    PATIENT DETAILS
    Personal Information
    Name: Julie Anne Garcia

    Contact phone:                                     (1) 
    Date of birth:                                          (2)  , 1992
    Occupation works as a:                       (3) 
    Insurance company:                            (4)  Life insurance

    Details of the problem
    Type of problem:                                  pain in her left (5) 
    When it began:                                     (6)  ago
    Action already taken:                          has taken painkillers and applied ice

    Other information
    Sports played:                                     belongs to a (7)  club
    goes (8)  regularly

    Medical history:                                  injured her (9)  last year
    no allergies
    no regular medication apart from (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11 – 15
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Visit to Branley Castle

    11. Before Queen Elizabeth I visited the castle in 1576,
     A repairs were carried out to the guest rooms.
     B a new building was constructed for her.
     C a fire damaged part of the main hall.

    12. In 1982, the castle was sold to
     A the government.
     B the Fenys family.
     C an entertainment company.

    13. In some of the rooms, visitors can
     A speak to experts on the history of the castle.
     B interact with actors dressed as famous characters.
     C see models of historical figures moving and talking.

    14. In the castle park, visitors can
     A see an 800-year-old tree.
     B go to an art exhibition.
     C visit a small zoo.

    15. At the end of the visit, the group will have
     A afternoon tea in the conservatory.
     B the chance to meet the castle’s owners.
     C a photograph together on the Great Staircase.

    Questions 16 – 20
    Label the plan below. Write the correct letter A-H next to questions 16-20.

    16. Starting point for walking the walls 
    17. Bow and arrow display 
    18. Hunting birds display 
    19. Traditional dancing 
    20. Shop 

    Part 3: Questions 21 – 24
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Woolly mammoths on St Paul’s Island

    21 How will Rosie and Martin introduce their presentation?
     A with a drawing of woolly mammoths in their natural habitat
     B with a timeline showing when woolly mammoths lived
     C with a video clip about woolly mammoths

    22 What was surprising about the mammoth tooth found by Russell Graham?
     A It was still embedded in the mammoth’s jawbone.
     B It was from an unknown species of mammoth.
     C It was not as old as mammoth remains from elsewhere.

    23 The students will use an animated diagram to demonstrate how the mammoths
     A became isolated on the island.
     B spread from the island to other areas.
     C coexisted with other animals on the island.

    24 According to Martin, what is unusual about the date of the mammoths’ extinction on the island?
     A how exact it is
     B how early it is
     C how it was established

    Questions 25 – 30
    What action will the students take for each of the following sections of their presentation?
    Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 25-30.

    Actions

    A make it more interactive
    B reduce visual input
    C add personal opinions
    D contact one of the researchers
    E make detailed notes
    F find information online
    G check timing
    H organise the content more clearly

    Sections of presentation
    25. Introduction 
    26. Discovery of the mammoth tooth 
    27. Initial questions asked by the researchers 
    28. Further research carried out on the island 
    29. Findings and possible explanations 
    30. Relevance to the present day 

    Part 4: Questions 31 – 40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The history of weather forecasting

    Ancient cultures
    • many cultures believed that floods and other disasters were involved in the creation of the world
    • many cultures invented (31)  and other ceremonies to make the weather gods friendly
    • people needed to observe and interpret the sky to ensure their (32) 
    • around 650 BC, Babylonians started forecasting, using weather phenomena such as
    (33)
     
    • by 300 BC, the Chinese had a calendar made up of a number of (34)  connected with the weather

    Ancient Greeks
    • a more scientific approach
    • Aristotle tried to explain the formation of various weather phenomena
    • Aristotle also described haloes and (35) 

    Middle Ages
    • Aristotle’s work considered accurate
    • many proverbs, e.g. about the significance of the colour of the (36)  , passed on accurate information.

    15th-19th centuries
    • 15th century: scientists recognised value of (37)  for the first time
    • Galileo invented the (38) 
    • Pascal showed relationship between atmospheric pressure and altitude
    • from the 17th century, scientists could measure atmospheric pressure and temperature
    • 18th century: Franklin identified the movement of (39) 
    • 19th century: data from different locations could be sent to the same place by
    (40)
     

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 338

    Part 1: – Questions 1-10
    Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    CRIME REPORT FORM

    Type of crime: theft

    Personal information

    Example: Name – Louise Taylor

    Nationality:                    (1) 
    Date of birth:                  14 December 1977
    Occupation:                   interior designer
    Reason for visit:            business (to buy antique (2)  )
    Length of stay:               two months
    Current address:           (3)  Apartments (No 15)

    Details of theft
    Items stolen:                 – a wallet containing approximately (4) £ 
    – a (5) 
    Date of theft:                  (6) 

    Possible time and place of theft
    Location:                                outside the (7)  at about 4 pm
    Details of suspect:                – some boys asked for the (8) then ran off
    – one had a T-shirt with a picture of a tiger
    – he was about 12, slim build with (9)  hair

    Crime reference number allocated – (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11 – 20

    Induction talk for new apprentices

    Questions 11 and 12
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO pieces of advice for the first week of an apprenticeship does the manager give?
     A get to know colleagues
     B learn from any mistakes
     C ask lots of questions
     D react positively to feedback
     E enjoy new challenges

    Questions 13 and 14
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO things does the manager say mentors can help with?
     A confidence-building
     B making career plans
     C completing difficult tasks
     D making a weekly timetable
     E reviewing progress

    Questions 15 – 20
    What does the manager say about each of the following aspects of the company policy for apprentices?

    Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 15-20.

    A It is encouraged.
    B There are some restrictions.
    C It is against the rules.

    Company policy for apprentices

    15. Using the internet 
    16. Flexible working 
    17. Booking holidays 
    18. Working overtime 
    19. Wearing trainers 
    20. Bringing food to work 

    Part 3: Questions 21 – 25
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Cities built by the sea

    21. Carla and Rob were surprised to learn that coastal cities
     A contain nearly half the world’s population.
     B include most of the world’s largest cities.
     C are growing twice as fast as other cities.

    22. According to Rob, building coastal cities near to rivers
     A may bring pollution to the cities.
     B may reduce the land available for agriculture.
     C may mean the countryside is spoiled by industry.

    23. What mistake was made when building water drainage channels in Miami in the 1950s?
     A There were not enough of them.
     B They were made of unsuitable materials.
     C They did not allow for the effects of climate change.

    24. What do Rob and Carla think that the authorities in Miami should do immediately?
     A take measures to restore ecosystems
     B pay for a new flood prevention system
     C stop disposing of waste materials into the ocean

    25. What do they agree should be the priority for international action?
     A greater coordination of activities
     B more sharing of information
     C agreement on shared policies

    Questions 26 – 30
    What decision do the students make about each of the following parts of their presentation?

    Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30.

    Decisions
    A use visuals
    B keep it short
    C involve other students
    D check the information is accurate
    E provide a handout
    F focus on one example
    G do online research

    Parts of the presentation
    26. Historical background 
    27. Geographical factors 
    28. Past mistakes 
    29. Future risks 
    30. International implications 

    Part 4: Questions 31 – 40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Marine renewable energy (ocean energy)

    Introduction
    More energy required because of growth in population and (31) 
    What’s needed:
    • renewable energy sources
    • methods that won’t create pollution

    Wave energy
    Advantage: waves provide a (32)  source of renewable energy
    Electricity can be generated using offshore or onshore systems
    Onshore systems may use a reservoir

    Problems:
    • waves can move in any (33) 
    • movement of sand, etc. on the (34)  of the ocean may be affected

    Tidal energy
    Tides are more (35)  than waves
    Planned tidal lagoon in Wales:
    • will be created in a (36)  at Swansea
    • breakwater (dam) containing 16 turbines
    • rising tide forces water through turbines, generating electricity
    • stored water is released through (37)  , driving the turbines in the reverse direction

    Advantages:
    • not dependent on weather
    • no (38)  is required to make it work
    • likely to create a number of (39) 

    Problem:
    • may harm fish and birds, e.g. by affecting (40)  and building up silt

    Ocean thermal energy conversion
    Uses a difference in temperature between the surface and lower levels Water brought to the surface in a pipe

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 337

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Alex’s Training
    Alex completed his training in 2014

    About the applicant:
    • At first Alex did his training in the (1)  department
    • Alex did not have a qualification from school in (2) 

    • Alex thinks he should have done the diploma in (3)  skills
    • Age of other trainees: the youngest was (4) 

    Benefits of doing training at JPNW:
    • Lots of opportunities because of the size of the organization
    • Trainees receive the same amount of (5)  as permanent staff
    • The training experience increases people’s confidence a lot
    • Trainees go to (6)  one day per month
    • The company is in a convenient (7) 

    Advice for interview:
    • Do not wear (8) 
    • Do not be (9) 
    • Make sure you (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    The Snow Centre
    11. Annie recommends that when cross-country skiing, the visitors should
     A get away from the regular trails.
     B stop to enjoy views of the scenery.
     C go at a slow speed at the beginning.

    12. What does Annie tell the group about this afternoon’s dog-sled trip?
     A Those who want to can take part in a race.
     B Anyone has the chance to drive a team of dogs.
     C One group member will be chosen to lead the trail.

    13. What does Annie say about the team relay event?
     A All participants receive a medal.
     B The course is 4 km long.
     C Each team is led by a teacher.

    14. On the snow-shoe trip, the visitors will
     A visit an old gold mine.
     B learn about unusual flowers.
     C climb to the top of a mountain.

    15. The cost of accommodation in the mountain hut includes
     A a supply of drinking water.
     B transport of visitors’ luggage.
     C cooked meals.

    16. If there is a storm while the visitors are in the hut, they should
     A contact the bus driver.
     B wait until the weather improves.
     C use the emergency locator beacon.

    Questions 17-20

    What information does Annie give about skiing on each of the following mountain trails?

    Choose FOUR answers from the options below and write the correct letter A-F next to questions 17-20

    Information
    A it has a good place to stop and rest
    B it is suitable for all abilities
    C it involves crossing a river
    D it demands a lot of skill
    E it may be closed in bad weather
    F it has some very narrow sections

    Mountain trails
    17. Highland trail 
    18. Pine trail 
    19. Stony trail 
    20. Loser’s trail 

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Labels giving nutritional information on food packaging

    21. What was Jack’s attitude to nutritional food labels before this project?
     A He didn’t read everything on them.
     B He didn’t think they were important.
     C He thought they were too complicated.

    22. Alice says that before doing this project.
     A she was unaware of what certain foods contained.
     B she was too lazy to read food labels.
     C she was only interested in the number of calories.

    23. When discussing supermarket brands of pizza, Jack agrees with Alice that
     A the list of ingredients is shocking.
     B he will hesitate before buying pizza again.
     C the nutritional label is misleading.

    24. Jack prefers the daily value system to other labelling systems because it is
     A more accessible.
     B more logical.
     C more comprehensive.

    25. What surprised both students about one flavour of crisps?
     A The percentage of artificial additives given was incorrect.
     B The products did not contain any meat.
     C The labels did not list all the ingredients.

    26. What do the students think about research into the impact of nutritional food labelling?
     A It did not produce clear results.
     B It focused on the wrong people.
     C It made unrealistic recommendations

    Questions 27 and 28
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO things surprised the students about the traffic-light system for nutritional labels?

     A its widespread use
     B the fact that it is voluntary for supermarkets
     C how little research was done before its introduction
     D its unpopularity with food manufacturers
     E the way that certain colours are used

    Questions 29 and 30
    Choose TWO letters, A-E

    Which TWO things are true about the participants in the study on the traffic-light system?

     A They had low literacy levels.
     B They were regular consumers of packaged food.
     C They were selected randomly.
     D They were from all socio-economic groups.
     E They were interviewed face-to-face.

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The history of coffee
    Coffee in the Arab world
    • There was small-scale trade in wild coffee from Ethiopia.
    • 1522: Coffee was approved in the Ottoman court as a type of medicine.
    • 1623: In Constantinople, the ruler ordered the (31)  of every coffee house.

    Coffee arrives in Europe (17th century)
    • Coffee shops were compared to (32) 
    • They played an important part in social and (33)  changes.

    Coffee and European colonisation
    • European powers established coffee plantations in their colonies
    • Types of coffee were often named according to the (34)  they came from.
    • In Brazil and the Caribbean, most cultivation depended on (35) 
    • In Java, coffee was used as a form of (36) 
    • Coffee became almost as important as (37) 
    • The move towards the consumption of (38)  in Britain did not also take place in the USA.

    Coffee in the 19th century
    • Prices dropped because of improvements in (39) 
    • Industrial workers found coffee helped them to work at (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 336

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Moving to Banford City

    Linda recommends living in suburb of: Dalton

    Accommodation
    • Average rent: (1) £  a month

    Transport
    • Linda travels to work by (2) 
    • Limited (3)  in city centre
    • Trains to London every (4)  minutes
    • Poor train service at (5) 

    Advantages of living in Banford
    • New (6)  opened recently
    • (7)  has excellent reputation
    • Good (8)  on Bridge Street

    Meet Linda
    • Meet Linda on (9)  after 5.30 pm
    • In the (10)  opposite the station

    Part 2: Questions 11-16

    What advantages does the speaker mention for each of the following physical activities?

    Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to questions 11-16

    Advantages
    A not dependent on season
    B enjoyable
    C low risk of injury
    D fitness level unimportant
    E sociable
    F fast results
    G motivating

    Physical Activities
    11. using a gym 
    12. running 
    13. swimming 
    14. cycling 
    15. doing yoga 
    16. training with a personal trainer 

    Questions 17 and 18

    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    For which TWO reasons does the speaker say people give up going to the gym?

     A lack of time
     B loss of confidence
     C too much effort required
     D high costs
     E feeling less successful than others

    Questions 19 and 20
    Choose TWO letters A-E,

    Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give for setting goals?

     A write goals down
     B have achievable aims
     C set a time limit
     D give yourself rewards
     E challenge yourself

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Project on using natural dyes to colour fabrics

    21. What first inspired Jim to choose this project?
     A textiles displayed in an exhibition
     B a book about a botanic garden
     C carpets he saw on holiday

    22. Jim eventually decided to do a practical investigation which involved
     A using a range of dyes with different fibres
     B applying different dyes to one type of fibre
     C testing one dye and a range of fibres

    23. When doing his experiments Jim was surprised by
     A how much natural material was needed to make the dye
     B the fact that dyes were widely available on the internet
     C the time that he had to leave the fabric in the dye

    24. What problem did Jim have with using tartrazine as a fabric dye?
     A it caused a slight allergic reaction
     B it was not a permanent dye on cotton
     C it was ineffective when used on nylon

    Questions 25-30

    What problem is identified with each of the following natural dyes?

    Choose SIX answers from the options below and write correct letter A-H next to questions 25-30

    Problems
    A it is expensive
    B the color is too strong
    C the color is not long lasting
    D it is very poisonous
    E it can damage the fabric
    F the color may be unexpected
    G it is unsuitable for some fabrics
    H it is not generally available

    Natural dyes
    25. turmeric 
    26. Beetroot 
    27. Tyrian purple 
    28. Lowood 
    29. cochineal 
    30. metal oxide 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The sleepy lizard (tiliqua rugose)
    Description
    • They are common in western and south Australia
    • They are brown but recongisable by their blue (31) 
    • They are relatively large
    • Their diet consists mainly of (32) 
    • Their main predators are large birds and (33) 

    Navigation study
    • One study found that lizards can use the (34)  to help them navigate

    Observations in the wild
    • Observations show that these lizards keep the same (35)  for several years

    What people want
    • Possible reasons:
    o To improve the survival of their young (but little (36)  has been noted between parents and children)
    o To provide (37)  for female lizards

    Tracking study
    • A study was carried out using GPS systems attached to the (38)  of the lizards
    • This provided information on the lizards’ location and even the number of
    (39)
      taken
    • It appeared that the lizards were trying to avoid one another
    • This may be in order to reduce chances of (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 335

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    South city cycling club
    Name of club secretary: Jim Hunter

    Membership
    • Full membership costs $260; this covers cycling and (1)  all over Australia
    • Recreational membership costs $108
    • Cost of membership includes the club fee and (2) 
    • The club kit is made by a company called (3) 

    Training rides
    • Chance to improve cycling skills and fitness
    • Level B: speed about (4)  kph
    • Weekly sessions
    o Tuesdays at 5.30 am, meet at the (5) 
    o Thursdays at 5.30 am, meet at the entrance to the (6) 

    Further information
    • Rides are about an hour and half
    • Members often have (7)  together afterwards
    • There is not always a (8)  with the group on these rides
    • Check and print the (9)  on the website beforehand
    • Bikes must have (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Information on company volunteering projects

    11. How much time for volunteering does the company allow per employee?
     A two hours per week
     B one day per month
     C 8 hours per year

    12. In feedback almost all employees said that volunteering improved their
     A chances of promotion
     B job satisfaction
     C relationships with colleagues

    13. Last year some staff helped unemployed people with their
     A literacy skills
     B job applications
     C communication skills

    14. This year the company will start a new volunteering project with a local
     A school
     B park
     C charity

    15. Where will the Digital inclusion Day be held?
     A at the company’s training facility
     B at a college
     C in a community centre

    16. What should staff do if they want to take part in the Digital Inclusion Day?
     A fill in a form
     B attend a training workshop
     C get permission from their managers

    Questions 17 and 18
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO things are mentioned about the participants on the last Digital Inclusion Day?

     A they were all over 70
     B they never used their computer
     C their phones were mostly old fashioned
     D they only used their phones for making calls
     E they initially showed little interest

    Questions 19 and 20
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO activities on the last Digital Inclusion Day did participants describe as useful?

     A learning to use tablets
     B communicating with family
     C shopping online
     D playing online games
     E sending emails

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Planning a presentation on nanotechnology

    21. Russ says that his difficulty in planning the presentation is due to
     A his lack of knowledge about the topic.
     B his uncertainty about what he should try to achieve.
     C the short time that he has for preparation.

    22. Russ and his tutor agree that his approach in the presentation will be
     A to concentrate on how nanotechnology is used in one field.
     B to follow the chronological development of nanotechnology.
     C to show the range of applications of nanotechnology.

    23. In connection with slides, the tutor advises Russ to
     A talk about things that he can find slides to illustrate.
     B look for slides to illustrate the points he makes.
     C consider omitting slides altogether.

    24. They both agree that the best way for Russ to start his presentation is
     A to encourage the audience to talk.
     B to explain what Russ intends to do.
     C to provide an example.

    25. What does the tutor advise Russ to do next while preparing his presentation?
     A summarise the main point he wants to make
     B read the notes he has already made
     C list the topics he wants to cover

    Questions 26-30

    What comments do the speakers make about each of the following aspects of Russ’s previous presentation?

    Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to questions 26-30.

    Comments
    A lacked a conclusion
    B useful in the future
    C not enough
    D sometimes distracting
    E showed originality
    F covered a wide range
    G not too technical

    Aspects of Russ’s previous presentation
    26. structure 
    27. eye contact 
    28. body language 
    29. choice of words 
    30. handouts 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Episodic memory
    • The ability to recall details e.g. the time and (31)  of past events
    • Different to semantic memory- the ability to remember general information about the
    (32)
      which does not involve recalling (33)  information

    Forming episodic memories involves three steps:
    Encoding
    • Involves receiving and processing information
    • The more (34)  given to an event the more successfully it can be encoded
    • To remember a (35)  it is useful to have a strategy for encoding such information

    Consolidation
    • How memories are strengthened and stored
    • Most effective when memories can be added to a (36) 
    • The (37)  of retrieval affects the strength of memories

    Retrieval
    • Memory retrieval often depends on using a prompt e.g. the (38)  of an object near to the place where you left your car

    Episodic memory impairments
    • These affect people with a wide range of medical conditions
    • Games which stimulate the (39)  have been found to help people with schizophrenia
    • Children with autism may have difficulty forming episodic memories – possibly because their concept of the (40)  may be absent
    • Memory training may help autistic children to develop social skill

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 334

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    COOKERY CLASSES
    Cookery ClassesFocusOther Information
    The food studiohow to (1)………………and cook with seasonal products– small classes
    – also offers (2)………..classes
    – clients who return get a (3)…………discount
    Bond’s cookery schoolfood that is (4)………………– includes recipes to strengthen your (5)…………..
    – they have a free (6)……………every Thursday
    The (7)…………….Centremainly (8)…………….food– located near the (9)…………..
    – a special course in skills with a (10)………………is sometimes available

    (1)                     (2)   
    (3)                    (4)   
    (5)                    (6)   
    (7)                    (8)   
    (9)                   (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-13
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Traffic Changes in Granford
    11. Why are changes needed to traffic systems in Granford?
     A The number of traffic accidents has risen.
     B The amount of traffic on the roads has increased.
     C The types of vehicles on the roads have changed.

    12. In a survey, local residents particularly complained about
     A dangerous driving by parents.
     B pollution from trucks and lorries.
     C inconvenience from parked cars.

    13. According to the speaker, one problem with the new regulations will be
     A raising money to pay for them.
     B finding a way to make people follow them.
     C getting the support of the police.

    Questions 14-20
    Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 14-20.

    14. New traffic lights 
    15. Pedestrian crossing 
    16. Parking allowed 
    17. New ‘no parking’ sign 
    18. New disabled parking spaces 
    19. Widened pavement 
    20. Lorry loading/ unloading restrictions 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Why is Jack interested in investigating seed germination?
     A He may do a module on a related topic later on
     B He wants to have a career in plant science
     C He is thinking of choosing this topic for his dissertation

    22. Jack and Emma agree the main advantage of their present experiment is that it can be
     A described very easily
     B carried out inside the laboratory
     C completed in the time available

    23. What do they decide to check with their tutor?
     A whether their aim is appropriate
     B whether anyone else has chosen this topic
     C whether the assignment contributes to their final grade

    24. They agree that Grave’s book on seed germination is disappointing because
     A it fails to cover recent advances in seed science
     B the content is irrelevant for them
     C its focus is very theoretical

    25. What does Jack say about the article on seed germination by Lee Hall?
     A the diagrams of plant development are useful
     B the analysis of seed germination statistics is thorough
     C the findings on seed germination after fires are surprising

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the flow chart below. Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-H next to questions 26-30.

    A. containerB. soilC. weightD. condition
    E. heightF. colourG. typesH. depths
    Stages in the experiment
    Select seeds of different (26)………………….and sizes
    Measure and record the (27)………………and size of each one
    Decide on the (28)……………….to be used
    Use a different (29)………………..for each seed and label it
    After about 3 weeks record the plant’s (30)……………
    Investigate the findings

    (26)                  (27) 
    (28)                  (29) 
    (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40.
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Effects of urban environment on animals
    Introduction
    Recent urban developments represent massive environmental changes. It was previously thought that only a few animals were suitable for city life e.g.
    • The (31)  Because of its general adaptability
    • The pigeon – because walls of city buildings are similar to (32) 
    In fact, many urban animals are adapting with unusual (33) 

    Recent research
    • Emilie Snell-Rood studied urbanized mammal specimens from museums in Minnesota
    o She found the size of their (34)  had increased
    o She suggests this may be due to the need to locate new sources of
    (35)
      and to deal with new dangers
    • Catarina Miranda focused on the (36)  of urban and rural blackbirds.
    o She found urban birds were often braver but were afraid of situations that were
    (37)
     
    • Jonathan Atwell studies how animals respond to urban environments
    o He found that some animals respond to (38)  by producing lower levels of hormones.
    • Sarah Partan’s team found urban squirrels use their (39)  to help them communicate

    Long- term possibilities

    Species of animals may develop which are unique to cities. However, some changes may not be (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 333

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Cycle tour leader: Applicant enquiry
    Name: Margaret Smith

    About the applicant:
    • Wants a (1)  job
    • Will soon start work as a (2) 
    • Has led cycle trips in (3) 
    • Interested in being a leader of a cycling trip for families
    • Is currently doing voluntary work with members of a (4)  club
    • Available for five months from the 1st of (5) 
    • Can’t eat (6) 

    Contact details
    • Address: 27 (7)  Place, Dumfries
    • Postcode: (8) 

    Interview:
    • Interview at 2.30 pm on (9) 
    • Will plan a short (10)  about being a tour guide

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Visiting the Sheepmarket Area
    11. Which is the most rapidly growing group of residents in the sheepmarket area?
     A. young professional people
     B. students from the university
     C. employees in the local market

    12. The speaker recommends the side streets in the sheepmarket for their
     A. international restaurants
     B. historical buildings
     C. arts and crafts

    13. Clothes designed by entrants for the Young Fashion competition must
     A. be modelled by the designers themselves
     B. be inspired by aspects of contemporary culture
     C. be made from locally produced materials

    14. Car parking is free in some car parks if you
     A. stay for less than an hour
     B. buy something in the shops
     C. park in the evenings or at weekends

    Questions 15-20
    Label the map below. Write correct letter A-I next to questions 15-20.

    15. the Reynolds House 
    16. the Thumb 
    17. the Museum 
    18. the Contemporary Art Gallery 
    19. the Warner Gallery 
    20. Nucleus 

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    PRESENTATION OF FILM ADAPTATIONS OF SHAKESPEARE’S PLAY
    Stages of presentationWork still to be done
    Introduce Giannetti’s book containing a (21)……………of adaptationsorganize notes
    Ask class to suggest the (22)………………….adaptationsno further work needed
    Present Rachel Malchow’s ideasprepare some (23)………………..
    Discuss relationship between adaptations and (24)…………………..at the time of making the filmno further work needed

    (21)                    (22) 
    (23)                   (24) 

    Questions 25-30
    What do the speakers say about each of the following films?

    Choose SIX answers from below and write the correct letter A-G next to questions 25-30.

    Comments
    A clearly shows the historical period
    B contains only parts of the play
    C is too similar to another kind of film
    D turned out to be unpopular with audiences
    E presents the play in a different period from the original
    F sets the original in a different country
    G incorporates a variety of art forms

    Films
    25. Ran 
    26. Much Ado About Nothing 
    27. Romeo and Juliet 
    28. Hamlet 
    29. Prospero’s Books 
    30. Looking for Richard 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Noise in Cities
    Past research focused on noise level (measured in decibels) and people’s responses.

    Noise ‘maps’
    • Show that the highest noise levels are usually found on roads
    • Do not show other sources of noise e.g. when windows are open or people’s neighbours are in their (31) 
    • Ignore variations in people’s perceptions of noise
    • Have made people realize that the noise is a (32)  issue that must be dealt with

    Problems caused by noise
    • Sleep disturbance
    • Increase in amount of stress
    • Effect on the (33)  of school children

    Different types of noise
    Some noises can be considered pleasant e.g. the sound of a (34)  in a town
    To investigate this, researchers may use methods from (35)  sciences

    What people want
    Plenty of activity in urban environments which are (36)  but also allow people to relax

    But architects and town planners
    • Do not get much (37)  in acoustics
    • Regards sound as the responsibility of engineers

    Understanding sound as an art form
    We need to know
    • How sound relates to (38) 
    • What can be learnt from psychology about the effects of sound
    • Whether physics can help us understand the (39)  of sound

    Virtual reality programs
    • Advantage: predict the effect of buildings
    • Current disadvantage: they are (40) 


  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 332

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Public Library
    The library re-opened last month

    The library now has
    • A seating area with magazines
    • An expanded section for books on (1) 
    • A new section on local (2) 
    • A community room for meetings (also possible to (3)  there)
    • A new section of books for (4) 

    For younger children
    • The next Science club meeting: experiments using things from your (5) 
    • Reading challenge: read six books during the holidays

    For adults
    • This Friday: a local author talks about a novel based on a real (6) 
    • IT support is available on Tuesday-no (7)  is necessary
    • Free check of blood (8)  and cholesterol levels

    Other information
    • The library shop sells wall charts, cards and (9) 
    • Evenings and weekends: free (10)  is available

    Part 2: Questions 11 and 12
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO age groups are taking increasing numbers of holidays with BC Travel?
     A 16-30 years
     B 31-42 years
     C 43-54 years
     D 55-64 years
     E over 65 years

    Questions 13 and 14
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO are the main reasons given for the popularity of activity holidays?
     A clients make new friends
     B clients learn a useful skill
     C clients learn about a different culture
     D clients are excited by the risk involved
     E clients find them good value for money

    Questions 15-17
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    15. How does BC Travel plan to expand the painting holidays?
     A. by adding to the number of locations
     B. by increasing the range of levels
     C. by employing more teachers

    16. Why are BC Travel’s cooking holidays unusual?
     A. they only use organic foods
     B. they have an international focus
     C. they mainly involve vegetarian dishes

    17. What does the speaker say about the photography holidays?
     A. clients receive individual tuition
     B. the tutors are also trained guides
     C. advice is given on selling photographs

    Questions 18-20
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    FITNESS HOLIDAY
    LocationMain focusOther comments
    Ireland and ItalyGeneral fitness– personally designed programme
    – also reduces (18)……………
    Greece(19)……………….control– includes exercise on the beach
    MoroccoMountain biking– wide variety of levels
    – one holiday that is specially designed for (20)…………………

    (18) 
    (19) 
    (20) 
    Part 3: Questions 21-26

    Complete the flow chart below. Choose SIX answers from the options A-H given below.

    A. PatternsB. NamesC. SourcesD. Questions
    E. EmployeesF. SolutionsG. HeadingsH. Officials

    STAGES IN DOING A TOURISM CASE STUDY
    RESEARCH
    • Locate and read relevant articles, noting key information and also (21)  identify a problem or need
    • Select interviewees – these may be site (22)  , visitors for city (23) 
    • Prepare and carry out interview. If possible collect statistics.
    • Check whether (24)  of interviewees can be used

    ANALYSIS
    • Select relevant information and try to identify (25) 
    • Decide on the best form of visuals

    WRITING THE CASE STUDY
    • Give some background writing the main sections
    • Do not end with (26) 

    Questions 27-30
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    The Horton Castle Site
    27. Natalie and Dave agree one reason why so few people visit Horton Castle is that
     A. the publicity is poor
     B. it is difficult to get to
     C. there is little there of interest

    28. Natalie and Dave agree that the greatest problem with a visitor centre could be
     A. covering the investment costs
     B. finding a big enough space for it
     C. dealing with planning restrictions

    29. What does Dave say about conditions in the town of Horton?
     A. there is a lot of unemployment
     B. there are few people of working age
     C. there are opportunities for skilled worker

    30. According to Natalie, one way to prevent damage to the castle site would be to
     A. insist visitors have a guide
     B. make visitors keep to the paths
     C. limit visitor numbers

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The effects of environmental change on birds
    Mercury (Hg)
    • Highly toxic
    • Released into the atmosphere from coal
    • In water it may be consumed by fish
    • It has also recently been found to affect birds which feed on (31) 

    Research on effects of mercury on birds
    • Claire Varian Ramos is investigating:
    o The effects on birds’ (32)  or mental processes e.g. memory
    o The effects on bird song (usually learned from a bird’s (33)  )
    • Findings:
    o Songs learned by birds exposed to mercury are less (34) 
    o This may have a negative effect on birds’ (35) 
    • Lab based studies:
    o Allow more (36)  for the experimenter

    Implications for humans
    • Migrating birds such as (37)  containing mercury may be eaten by humans
    • Mercury also causes problems in learning (38) 
    • Mercury in a mother’s body from (39)  may affect the unborn child
    • New regulations for mercury emissions will affect everyone’s energy (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 331

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Events during Kenton Festival
    Start date: 16th May

    Opening ceremony (first day)
    • In town centre, starting at (1) 
    • The mayor will make a speck
    • A (2)  will perform
    • Performance of a (3)  about Hele Tungate (a (4)  )
    • Evening fireworks display situated across the (5) 

    Other events
    • Videos about relationships that children have with their (6) 
    • Venue: (7)  House
    • Performance of (8)  dances
    • Venue: the (9)  market in the town centre
    • Time: 2 and 5 pm every day except 1st day of festival
    • Several professional concerts and one by children
    • Venue: library
    • Time: 6.30 pm on the 18th
    • Tickets available online from festival box office and from shops which have the festival (10)  in their windows

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Theatre trip to Munich
    11. When the group meet at the airport they will have
     A. breakfast
     B. coffee
     C. lunch

    12. The group will be met at Munich airport by
     A. an employee at the National Theatre
     B. a theatre manager
     C. a tour operator

    13. How much will they pay per night for a double room at the hotel?
     A. 110 euros
     B. 120 euros
     C. 150 euros

    14. What type of restaurant will they go to on Tuesday evening?
     A. an Italian restaurant
     B. a Lebanese restaurant
     C. a typical restaurant of the region

    15. Who will they meet on Wednesday afternoon?
     A. an actor
     B. a playwright
     C. a theatre director

    Questions 16-20
    What does the man say about the play on each of the following days? Choose FIVE answers from options given below.

    Comments
    A The playwright will be present
    B The play was written to celebrate an anniversary
    C The play will be performed inside historic building
    D The play will be accompanies by live music
    E The play will be performed outdoors
    F The paly will be performed for the first time
    G The performance will be attended by officials from the town

    Days
    16. Wednesday 
    17. Thursday 
    18. Friday 
    19. Saturday 
    20. Monday 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Scandinavian Studies
    21. James chose to take Scandinavian Studies because when he was a child
     A. he was often taken to Denmark
     B. his mother spoke to him in Danish
     C. a number of Danish people visited his family

    22. When he graduates James would like to
     A. take a postgraduate course
     B. work in the media
     C. become a translator

    23. Which course will end this term?
     A. Swedish cinema
     B. Danish television programmes
     C. Scandinavian literature

    24. They agree that James’ literature paper this term will be on
     A. 19th century playwrights
     B. the Icelandic sagas
     C. modern Scandinavian novels

    25. Beth recommends that James’ paper should be
     A. a historical overview of the genre
     B. an in depth analysis of a single write
     C. a study of the social background to the literature

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the flow chart below.

    Choose FIVE answers from options given below and write correct letter A-G next to questions 26-30

    A bullet points
    B film
    C notes
    D structure
    E student paper
    F textbook
    G documentary

    How James will write his paper on the Vikings
    • He’ll read a (26)  and choose his topic
    • He’ll borrow a (27)  from Beth
    • He’ll plan the (28)  of the paper
    • He’ll read some material and write (29) 
    • He’ll write paper using (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Conflict at work
    Conflict mostly consists of behavior in the general category of (31) 
    Often a result of people wanting to prove their (32) 
    Also cause by differences in (33)  between people
    (34)  conflicts: people more concerned about own team than about company
    Conflict related stress can cause (35)  that may last for months

    Chief Executives (CEOs)
    Many have both (36)  and anxiety
    May not like to have their decisions questioned
    There may be conflict between people who have different (37) 

    Other managers
    A structure that is more (38)  may create a feeling of uncertainty about who staff should report to

    Minimizing conflict
    Bosses need to try hard to gain (39) 
    Someone from outside the company may be given the role of (40)  in order to resolve conflicts