Month: May 2024

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 479

    PART 1 Questions 1-10

    Questions 1-4

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Wayside Camera Club Membership Form
    Name:Dan Green
    Email address:dan1068@market.com
    Home address:52 1  Street, Peacetown
    Heard about us:from a 2 
    Reasons for joining:to enter competitions
    to 3 
    Type of membership:4  membership (£ 30)

    Table Questions IELTS Listening Test 3 Cambridge 18

    Questions 5-10

    Complete the table below.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Photography competitions
    TITLE OF COMPETITIONINSTRUCTIONS    FEEDBACK TO DAN
    5 ‘‘A scene in the homeThe picture’s composition
    was not good.
    ‘Beautiful Sunsets’Scene must show
    some 6 
    The 7  was wrong.
    8 ‘‘Scene must show
    9 
    The photograph was
    too 10  .

    Complete the table

    PART 2 Questions 11-20

    Questions 11 and 12

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO warnings does Dan give about picking mushrooms?

    1. Don’t pick more than one variety of mushroom at a time.
    2. Don’t pick mushrooms near busy roads.
    3. Don’t eat mushrooms given to you.
    4. Don’t eat mushrooms while picking them.
    5. Don’t pick old mushrooms.

    Questions 13 and 14

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO ideas about wild mushrooms does Dan say are correct?

    1. Mushrooms should always be peeled before eating.
    2. Mushrooms eaten by animals may be unsafe.
    3. Cooking destroys toxins in mushrooms.
    4. Brightly coloured mushrooms can be edible.
    5. All poisonous mushrooms have a bad smell.

    Questions 15-20

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    15. What advice does Dan give about picking mushrooms in parks?

    1. Choose wooded areas.
    2. Don’t disturb wildlife.
    3. Get there early.

    16. Dan says it is a good idea for beginners to

    1. use a mushroom app.
    2. join a group.
    3. take a reference book.

    17. What does Dan say is important for conservation?

    1. selecting only fully grown mushrooms
    2. picking a limited amount of mushrooms
    3. avoiding areas where rare mushroom species grow

    18. According to Dan, some varieties of wild mushrooms are in decline because there is

    1. a huge demand for them from restaurants.
    2. a lack of rain in this part of the country.
    3. a rise in building developments locally.

    19. Dan says that when storing mushrooms, people should

    1. keep them in the fridge for no more than two days.
    2. keep them in a brown bag in a dark room.
    3. leave them for a period after washing them.

    20. What does Dan say about trying new varieties of mushrooms?

    1. Experiment with different recipes.
    2. Expect some to have a strong taste.
    3. Cook them for a long time.
    PART 3 Questions 21-30

    Questions 21 and 22

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO opinions about the Luddites do the students express?

    1. Their actions were ineffective.
    2. They are still influential today.
    3. They have received unfair criticism.
    4. They were proved right.
    5. Their attitude is understandable.

    Questions 23 and 24

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO predictions about the future of work are the students doubtful about?

    1. Work will be more rewarding.
    2. Unemployment will fall.
    3. People will want to delay retiring.
    4. Working hours will be shorter.
    5. People will change jobs more frequently.

    Questions 25-30

    What comment do the students make about each of the following jobs?

    Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 25-30.

    Comments

    1. These jobs are likely to be at risk.
    2. Their role has become more interesting in recent years.
    3. The number of people working in this sector has fallen dramatically.
    4. This job will require more qualifications.
    5. Higher disposable income has led to a huge increase in jobs.
    6. There is likely to be a significant rise in demand for this service.
    7. Both employment and productivity have risen.

    Jobs

    1. ABCDEFG Accountants
    2. ABCDEFG Hairdressers
    3. ABCDEFG Administrative staff
    4. ABCDEFG Agricultural workers
    5. ABCDEFG Care workers
    6. ABCDEFG Bank clerks
    PART 4 Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Space Traffic Management
    A Space Traffic Management system
    • is a concept similar to Air Traffic Control, but for satellites rather than planes.
    • would aim to set up legal and 31  ways of improving safety.
    • does not actually exist at present.
    Problems in developing effective Space Traffic Management
    • Satellites are now quite 32  and therefore more widespread (e.g. there are constellations made up of 33  of satellites).
    • At present, satellites are not required to transmit information to help with their 34  .
    • There are few systems for 35  satellites.
    • Small pieces of debris may be difficult to identify.
    • Operators may be unwilling to share details of satellites used for 36  or commercial reasons.
    • It may be hard to collect details of the object’s 37  at a given time.
    • Scientists can only make a 38  about where the satellite will go.
    Solutions
    • Common standards should be agreed on for the presentation of information.
    • The information should be combined in one 39  .
    • A coordinated system must be designed to create 40  in its users.
  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 478

    PART 1 Questions 1-10

    Questions 1-5

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Working at Milo’s Restaurants
    Benefits
    • 1  provided for all staff
    • 2  during weekdays at all Milo’s Restaurants
    • 3  provided after midnight
    Person specification
    • must be prepared to work well in a team
    • must care about maintaining a high standard of 4 
    • must have a qualification in 5 

    Question 6-10

    Complete the table below.

    Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    LOCATION    JOB TITLERESPONSIBILITIES INCLUDEDPAY AND CONDITIONS
    6  StreetBreakfast supervisorChecking portions, etc. are correct
    Making sure 7  is clean
    Starting Salary 8 £  per hour
    Start work at 5.30 am
    City RoadJunior chefSupporting senior chefs
    Maintaining stock and organising   9
    Annual salary £ 23,000
    No work on a 10  once a month

    Table for IELTS Cambridge Book 18 Listening Test 2

    PART 2 Questions 11-20

    Questions 11 and 12

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    What are the TWO main reasons why this site has been chosen for the housing development?

    1. It has suitable geographical features.
    2. There is easy access to local facilities.
    3. It has good connections with the airport.
    4. The land is of little agricultural value.
    5. It will be convenient for workers.

    Questions 13 and 14

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO aspects of the planned housing development have people given positive feedback about?

    1. the facilities for cyclists
    2. the impact on the environment
    3. the encouragement of good relations between residents
    4. the low cost of all the accommodation
    5. the rural location

    Questions 15-20

    Label the map below.

    Write the correct letter, A-l, next to Questions 15-20.

    Map-IELTS-Cambridge-Book-18-Listening-Test-2
    Map-IELTS-Cambridge-Book-18-Listening-Test-2
    1. ABCDEFGHI School
    2. ABCDEFGHI Sports centre
    3. ABCDEFGHI Clinic
    4. ABCDEFGHI Community centre
    5. ABCDEFGHI Supermarket
    6. ABCDEFGHI Playground
    PART 3 Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-24

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    21. Why do the students think the Laki eruption of 1783 is so important?

    1. It was the most severe eruption in modern times.
    2. It led to the formal study of volcanoes.
    3. It had a profound effect on society.

    22. What surprised Adam about observations made at the time?

    1. the number of places producing them
    2. the contradictions in them
    3. the lack of scientific data to support them

    23. According to Michelle, what did the contemporary sources say about the Laki haze?

    1. People thought it was similar to ordinary fog.
    2. It was associated with health issues.
    3. It completely blocked out the sun for weeks.

    24. Adam corrects Michelle when she claims that Benjamin Franklin

    1. came to the wrong conclusion about the cause of the haze.
    2. was the first to identify the reason for the haze.
    3. supported the opinions of other observers about the haze.

    Questions 25 and 26

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO issues following the Laki eruption surprised the students?

    1. how widespread the effects were
    2. how long-lasting the effects were
    3. the number of deaths it caused
    4. the speed at which the volcanic ash cloud spread
    5. how people ignored the warning signs

    Questions 27-30

    What comment do the students make about the impact of the Laki eruption on the following countries?

    Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 27-30.

    Comments

    1. This country suffered the most severe loss of life.
    2. The impact on agriculture was predictable.
    3. There was a significant increase in deaths of young people.
    4. Animals suffered from a sickness.
    5. This country saw the highest rise in food prices in the world.
    6. It caused a particularly harsh winter.

    Countries

    1. ABCDEF Iceland
    2. ABCDEF Egypt
    3. ABCDEF UK
    4. ABCDEF USA
    PART 4 Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Pockets
    Reason for choice of subject
    • They are 31  but can be overlooked by consumers and designers.
    Pockets in men’s clothes
    • Men started to wear 32  in the 18th century.
    • 33  sewed pockets into the lining of the garments.
    • The wearer could use the pockets for small items.
    • Bigger pockets might be made for men who belonged to a certain type of 34  .
    Pockets in women’s clothes
    • Women’s pockets were less 35  than men’s.
    • Women were very concerned about pickpockets.
    • Pockets were produced in pairs using 36  to link them together.
    • Pockets hung from the women’s 37  under skirts and petticoats.
    • Items such as 38  could be reached through a gap in the material.
    • Pockets, of various sizes, stayed inside clothing for many decades.
    • When dresses changed shape, hidden pockets had a negative effect on the 39  of women.
    • Bags called ‘pouches’ became popular, before women carried a 40  .
  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 477

    PART 1 Questions 1-10

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Transport Survey

    Name: Sadie Jones

    Year of birth: 1991

    Postcode1 

    Traveling by bus

    Date of bus journey: 2 

    Reason for trip: shopping and visit to the 3 

    Travelled by bus because cost of 4  too high

    Got on bus at 5  Street

    Complaints about bus service:

    • bus today was 6 
    • Frequency of buses in the 7 

    Traveling by car

    Goes to the 8  By car

    Traveling by bicycle

    Dislikes traveling by bike in the city centre because of the 9 

    Doesn’t own a bike because of a lack of 10 

    PART 2 Questions 11-20

    Questions 11-13

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Becoming a volunteer for ACE

    11. Why does the speaker apologise about the seats?

    1. They are too small.
    2. There are not enough of them.
    3. Some of them are very close together.

    12. What does the speaker say about the age of volunteers?

    1. The age of volunteers is less important than other factors.
    2. Young volunteers are less reliable than older ones.
    3. Most volunteers are about 60 years old.

    13. What does the speaker say about training?

    1. It is continuous.
    2. It is conducted by a manager.
    3. It takes place online.

    Questions 14 and 15

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO issues does the speaker ask the audience to consider before they apply to be volunteers?

    1. their financial situation
    2. their level of commitment
    3. their work experience
    4. their ambition
    5. their availability

    Questions 16-20

    What does the speaker suggest would be helpful for each of the following areas of voluntary work?

    Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 16-20.

    Helpful things volunteers might offer
    1. experience on stage
    2. original, new ideas
    3. parenting skills
    4. an understanding of food and diet
    5. retail experience
    6. a good memory
    7. a good level of fitness
    Area of voluntary work
    1. ABCDEFG Fundraising
    2. ABCDEFG Litter collection
    3. ABCDEFG ‘Playmates’
    4. ABCDEFG Story club
    5. ABCDEFG First aid
    PART 3 Questions 21-30

    Questions 21-26

    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Talk on Jobs in fashion design

    21. What problem did Chantal have at the start of the talk?

    1. Her view of the speaker was blocked.
    2. She was unable to find an empty seat.
    3. The students next to her were talking.

    22. What were Hugo and Chantal surprised to hear about the job market?

    1. It has become more competitive than it used to be.
    2. There is more variety in it than they had realised.
    3. Some areas of it are more exciting than others.

    23. Hugo and Chantal agree that the speaker’s message was

    1. unfair to them at times.
    2. hard for them to follow.
    3. critical of the industry.

    24. What do Huao and Chantal criticise about their school careers advice?

    1. when they received the advice
    2. how much advice was given
    3. who gave the advice

    25. When discussing their future, Hugo and Chantal disagree on

    1. which is the best career in fashion.
    2. when to choose a career in fashion.
    3. why they would like a career in fashion.

    26. How does Hugo feel about being an unpaid assistant?

    1. He is realistic about the practice.
    2. He feels the practice is dishonest.
    3. He thinks others want to change the practice.

    Questions 27 and 28

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO mistakes did the speaker admit she made in her first job?

    1. being dishonest to her employer
    2. paying too much attention to how she looked
    3. expecting to become well-known
    4. trying to earn a lot of money
    5. openly disliking her client

    Questions 29 and 30

    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO pieces of retail information do Hugo and Chantal agree would be useful?

    1. the reasons people return fashion items
    2. how much time people have to shop for clothes
    3. fashion designs people want but can’t find
    4. the best time of year for fashion buying
    5. the most popular fashion sizes
    PART 4 Questions 31-40

    Complete the notes below.

    Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Elephant translocation
    Reasons for overpopulation at Majete National Park
    • strict enforcement of anti-poaching laws
    • successful breeding
    Problems caused by elephant overpopulation
    • greater competition, causing hunger for elephants
    • damage to 31  in the park
    The translocation process
    • a suitable group of elephants from the same 32  was selected
    • vets and park staff made use of 33  to help guide the elephants into an open plain
    • elephants were immobilised with tranquilisers

    – this process had to be completed quickly to reduce 34 

    – elephants had to be turned on their 35  to avoid damage to their lungs

    – elephants’ 36  had to be monitored constantly

    – tracking devices were fitted to the matriarchs

    – data including the size of their tusks and 37  was taken

    • • elephants were taken by truck to their new reserve
    Advantages of translocation at Nkhotakota Wildlife Park
    • 38  opportunities
    • a reduction in the number of poachers and 39 
    • an example of conservation that other parks can follow
    • an increase in 40  as a contributor to GDP
  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 476

    Section 1
    Use Of University Grounds By Vehicular Traffic

    The University grounds are private.

    The University authorities only allow authorised members of the University, visitors and drivers of vehicles servicing the University to enter the grounds.

    Members of staff who have paid the requisite fee and display the appropriate permit may bring a vehicle into the grounds. A University permit does not entitle them to park in Hall car parks however, unless authorised by the Warden of the Hall concerned.

    Students may not bring vehicles into the grounds during the working day unless they have been given special permission by the Security Officer and have paid for and are displaying an appropriate entry permit. Students living in Halls of Residence must obtain permission from the Warden to keep a motor vehicle at their residence.

    Students are reminded that if they park a motor vehicle on University premises without a valid permit, they will be fined £20

    Questions 1-5
    Look at the information on the following reading passage about the use of vehicles in the University grounds.

    TRUE                                if the statement is true
    FALSE                              if the statement is false
    NOT GIVEN                  if the information is not given in the passage

    Example
    The campus roads are not open to general members of the public. TRUE

    1. University employees do not need to pay for their parking permits.
    2. Parking in Halls of Residence is handled by the Wardens of the Halls.
    3. Having a University permit does not allow staff to park at Halls.
    4. Parking permits cost £20 a year.
    5. Students living in Hall do not need permission to park in Hall car parks.

    PATIENT INFORMATION LEAFLET

    The name of your medicine is Borodine tablets
    What are Borodine Tablets used for?

    Borodine tablets are used to help relieve hay fever and conditions due to allergies in particular skin reactions and a runny nose.

    It is not recommended that Borodine tablets are given to children under 12 years of age or pregnant or breastfeeding women.

    BEFORE YOU TAKE Borodine Tablets

    In some circumstances it is very important not to take Borodine tablets. If you ignore these instructions this medicine could affect your heart rhythm.

    Are you taking oral medicines for fungal infections?

    Have you suffered a reaction to medicines containing Borodine before?

    Do you suffer from any liver, kidney or heart disease?

    If the answer to any of these questions is YES do not take Borodine tablets before consulting your doctor.
    After taking Borodine tablets

    Borodine tablets like many other medicines may cause side effects in some people.

    If you faint, stop taking Borodine tablets and tell your doctor immediately.

    In addition Borodine tablets may cause problems with your vision, hair loss, depression or confusion, yellowing of your skin or your eyes.

    If you have these effects whilst taking Borodine tablets tell your doctor immediately.

    Other side effects are dizziness or headaches and indigestion or stomach ache. However, these effects are often mild and usually wear off after a few days’ treatment. If they last for more than a few days tell your doctor.


    Questions 6-13
    Look at the patient information leaflet on the following page.
    Match each of the following sentences with TWO possible endings A-M from the box below.

    Example
    Borodine table should not be given to …… A and M

    Questions 6 and 7
    Borodine tablets might be used to treat……

    Questions 8 and 9
    You must ask your doctor before taking Borodine tablets if you are already being treated for ……

    Questions 10 and 11
    You do not need to consult your doctor immediately if Borodine tablets give you ……

    Questions 12 and 13
    You must consult your doctor at once if you find Borodine tablets cause……

    Possible Endings
    A children under 12 years of age.
    B a headache.
    C an uncomfortable feeling in your stomach.
    D symptoms similar to a cold.
    E a change in your skin colour.
    F anything treated by a prescription medicine.
    G a kidney complaint.
    H a whitening of the eyes.
    I sore or broken skin.
    J a fungal infection.
    K a feeling of sadness.
    L shortness of breath.
    M a woman expecting a child.

    Section 2
    West Thames College – Background Information For Candidates

    West Thames College (initially known as Hounslow Borough College) came into existence in 1976 following the merger of Isleworth Polytechnic with part of Chiswick Polytechnic. Both parent colleges, in various guises, enjoyed a long tradition of service to the community dating back to the 1890s.

    The college is located at London Road, Isleworth, on a site occupied by the Victorian house of the Pears family, Spring Grove House. An earlier house of the same name on this site had been the home of Sir Joseph Banks, the botanist who named Botany Bay with Captain Cook in 1770. Later he founded Kew Gardens.

    Situated at the heart of West London, West Thames College is ideally placed to serve the training and education needs of local industry and local people. But its influence reaches much further than the immediate locality.

    Under its former name, Hounslow Borough College, it had already established a regional, national and international reputation for excellence. In fact, about eight per cent of its students come from continental Europe and further afield, whilst a further 52 per cent are from outside the immediate area. Since 1 April 1993, when it became independent of the local authority and adopted its new title, West Thames College has continued to build on that first class reputation.

    These days there is no such thing as a typical student. More than half of West Thames college’s 6000 students are over 19 years old. Some of these will be attending college part-time under their employers’ training schemes. Others will want to learn new skills purely out of interest, or out of a desire to improve their promotion chances, or they may want a change in career.

    The college is also very popular with 16-18 year olds, who see it as a practical alternative to a further two years at school. They want to study in the more adult atmosphere the college provides. They can choose from a far wider range of subjects than it would be practical for a sixth form to offer. If they want to go straight into employment they can still study at college to gain qualifications relevant to the job, either on a day-release basis or through Network or the Modern Apprenticeship Scheme.

    Questions 14-20

    Look at the introduction to West Thames College below and at the statements (Questions 14-20 ) below.
    In boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet write

    TRUE                               if the statement is true
    FALSE                             if the statement is false
    NOT GIVEN                  if the information is not given in the passage

    14. Chiswick Polytechnic was closed at the same time West Thames College was opened.
    15. Most of the students at the college come from outside the local area.
    16. The college changed its name to West Thames College in 1993.
    17. There are currently 6000 students over the age of 19 attending the college.
    18. Students under the age of 16 cannot attend any of the courses offered by the college.
    19. The college offers a more mature environment in which to learn than a school.
    20. There are fewer subjects to study in the sixth form of a school than at the college.

    WEST THAMES COLLEGE SERVICES FOR STUDENTS

    A As a full-time student at West Thames College you will have your own Personal mentor who will see you each week to guide you through your studies, and discuss any problems which may arise. We take a cooperative approach to the assessment of your work and encourage you to contribute to discussion.

    B This service provides specialist assistance and courses for those who need help to improve their writing, oral and numeracy skills for the successful completion of their college course. Help with basic skills is also available.

    C This service is available to anyone who is undecided as to which course to follow. It is very much a service for the individual, whatever your age, helping you to select the best option to suit your circumstances. The service includes educational advice, guidance and support, including a facility for accrediting your previous experience – the Accreditation of Prior Learning (APL). The Admissions Office is open Monday to Friday 9.00 am to 5.00 pm. All interviews are confidential and conducted in a relaxed and friendly atmosphere. Evening appointments are available on request.

    D The College Bookshop stocks a wide range of books, covering aspects of all courses, together with a good selection of stationery. It also supplies stamps, phone cards, blank videos and computer disks. The shop is open at times specified In the Student Handbook in the mornings, afternoons and evenings.

    E When students are weary from study and want the chance to relax and enjoy themselves with friends, they can participate in a number of recreational activities. Depending on demand, we offer a range of
    sporting activities including football, badminton, basketball, table tennis, volleyball, weight training and aerobics. For the non-sporting students we offer a debating society, video club, hair and beauty
    sessions, as well as a range of creative activities. Suggestions for activities from students are always welcome.

    F This confidential service is available if you have practical or personal difficulties during your course of study, whether of a financial or personal nature. Our Student Advisors can help you directly or put you in touch with someone else who can give you the help you need.

    G The College Nurses are there for general medical advice and for treatment of illness or injury. All visits are confidential. First aid boxes and fully-trained First Aiders are also on hand at various locations around the college.

    H West London employers have a permanent base in the centre of college, with access to a database of more than 24,000 jobs available locally and in Central London. They will also help you with job applications and interview techniques.

    Look at the West Thames College’s Services for Students on the following page. Each paragraph A-H describes a different service provided by the college.
    From the list below (i-xi) choose the most suitable summaries for paragraphs A, C and E-H. Write the appropriate number (i-xi) in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.

    NB There are more summaries than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

    i A shop for the books and stationery needed to study
    ii Counseling and welfare willing to listen, offer advice or arrange a referral
    iii An Examinations Office arranging exams and issuing certificates
    iv A Registrar’s Office handling all fee payments and related enquiries
    v A Medical service offering on-site assistance with health-related problems
    vi A tutorial system for regular one-to-one guidance, support and feedback
    vii Careers Advice helping students into employment
    viii An admissions Service providing assistance in choosing and applying for higher education courses
    ix A Student Union representing students on college committees
    x Clubs and societies for students’ free-time
    xi A Learning Support Service supporting students in studying, presenting information and handling numbers.

    21 Paragraph A

    Example
    Paragraph B xi

    22 Paragraph C

    Example
    Paragraph D i

    23. Paragraph E
    24. Paragraph F
    25. Paragraph G
    26. Paragraph H

    Section 3
    Read the following passage and answer questions 27-40.
    The Discovery Of Uranus

    Someone once put forward an attractive though unlikely theory. Throughout the Earth’s annual revolution around the sun, there is one point of space always hidden from our eyes. This point is the opposite part of the Earth’s orbit, which is always hidden by the sun. Could there be another planet there, essentially similar to our own, but always invisible?

    If a space probe today sent back evidence that such a world existed it would cause not much more sensation than Sir William Herschel’s discovery of a new planet, Uranus, in 1781. Herschel was an extraordinary man — no other astronomer has ever covered so vast a field of work — and his career deserves study. He was born in Hanover in Germany in 1738, left the German army in 1757, and arrived in England the same year with no money but quite exceptional music ability. He played the violin and oboe and at one time was organist in the Octagon Chapel in the city of Bath. Herschel’s was an active mind, and deep inside he was conscious that music was not his destiny; he therefore, read widely in science and the arts, but not until 1772 did he come across a book on astronomy. He was then 34, middle-aged by the standards of the time, but without hesitation he embarked on his new career, financing it by his professional work as a musician. He spent years mastering the art of telescope construction, and even by present-day standards his instruments are comparable with the best.

    Serious observation began 1774. He set himself the astonishing task of ‘reviewing the heavens’, in other words, pointing his telescope to every accessible part of the sky and recording what he saw. The first review was made in 1775; the second, and most momentous, in 1780-81. It was during the latter part of this that he discovered Uranus. Afterwards, supported by the royal grant in recognition of his work, he was able to devote himself entirely to astronomy. His final achievements spread from the sun and moon to remote galaxies (of which he discovered hundreds), and papers flooded from his pen until his death in 1822. Among these, there was one sent to the Royal Society in 1781, entitled An Account of a Comet. In his own words:

    On Tuesday the 13th of March, between ten and eleven in the evening, while I was examining the small stars in the neighbourhood of H Geminorum, I perceived one that appeared visibly larger than the rest; being struck with its uncommon magnitude, I compared it to H Geminorum and the small star in the quartile between Auriga and Gemini, and finding it to be much larger than either of them, suspected it to be a comet.

    Herschel’s care was the hallmark of a great observer; he was not prepared to jump any conclusions. Also, to be fair, the discovery of a new planet was the last thought in anybody’s mind. But further observation by other astronomers besides Herschel revealed two curious facts. For the comet, it showed a remarkably sharp disc; furthermore, it was moving so slowly that it was thought to be a great distance from the sun, and comets are only normally visible in the immediate vicinity of the sun. As its orbit came to be worked out the truth dawned that it was a new planet far beyond Saturn’s realm, and that the ‘reviewer of the heavens’ had stumbled across an unprecedented prize. Herschel wanted to call it georgium sidus (Star of George) in honour of his royal patron King George III of Great Britain. The planet was later for a time called Herschel in honour of its discoverer. The name Uranus, which was first proposed by the German astronomer Johann Elert Bode, was in use by the late 19th century.

    Uranus is a giant in construction, but not so much in size; its diameter compares unfavourably with that of Jupiter and Saturn, though on the terrestrial scale it is still colossal. Uranus’ atmosphere consists largely of hydrogen and helium, with a trace of methane. Through a telescope the planet appears as a small bluish-green disc with a faint green periphery. In 1977, while recording the occultation 1 of a star behind the planet, the American astronomer James L. Elliot discovered the presence of five rings encircling the equator of Uranus. Four more rings were discovered in January 1986 during the exploratory flight of Voyager 2 2 , In addition to its rings, Uranus has 15 satellites (‘moons’), the last 10 discovered by Voyager 2 on the same flight; all revolve about its equator and move with the planet in an east—west direction. The two largest moons, Titania and Oberon, were discovered by Herschel in 1787. The next two, Umbriel and Ariel, were found in 1851 by the British astronomer William Lassell. Miranda, thought before 1986 to be the innermost moon, was discovered in 1948 by the American astronomer Gerard Peter Kuiper.

    Questions 27-31

    Complete the table below. Write a date for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

    EventDate
    Example: William Herschel was bornAnswer – 1738
    Herschel began investigating astronomy(27)…………………..
    Discovery of the planet Uranus(28)…………………..
    Discovery of the moons Titania and Oberon(29)…………………..
    First discovery of Uranus’ rings(30)…………………..
    Discovery of the last 10 moons of Uranus(31)…………………..

    Questions 32-36

    Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer of the Reading Passage?
    In boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet write

    YES              if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
    NO             if the statement contradicts the writer
    NOT GIVEN             if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    Example
    Herschel was multi-talented YES

    32. It is improbable that there is a planet hidden behind the sun.
    33. Herschel knew immediately that he had found a new planet.
    34. Herschel collaborated with other astronomers of his time.
    35. Herschel’s newly-discovered object was considered to be too far from the sun to be a comet.
    36. Herschel’s discovery was the most important find of the last three hundred years.

    Questions 37-40

    Complete each of the following statements (Questions 37-40) with a name from the Reading Passage.
    Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

    The suggested names of the new planet started with …….. (37) …….., then …….. (38) ……., before finally settling on Uranus. The first five rings around Uranus were discovered by …….. (39) ……… From 1948 until 1986, the moon …….. (40)…….. was believed to be the moon closest to the surface of Uranus.

  • IELTS Speaking Part 1 – Introduction – Jokes and Comedies

    Jokes and Comedies

    1. Are you adept at delivering jokes?
      Well, I make an attempt, but I don’t consider myself skilled because my friends don’t laugh at my jokes. Perhaps, my jokes lack the required wit.
    2. Do your friends enjoy sharing jokes?
      Absolutely, my friends take pleasure in exchanging jokes. During our free time, we frequently search for jokes on the internet.
    3. Do you have an affinity for watching comedies?
      Yes, I have a fondness for watching comedies. I believe they provide an excellent way to unwind and pass the time.
    4. Have you ever attended a live show?
      No, I haven’t witnessed a live stand-up comedy show, but I am keen on experiencing live comedy in the future.
  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 475

    You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 1-14. First, read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

    Filling the reservoir
    Your iron is designed to function using tap water. However, it will last longer if you use distilled water.
    – Always unplug the iron before filling the reservoir.
    – Always empty the reservoir after use.

    Temperature and steam control
    Your Moulex iron has two buttons which control the intensity of heat produced by the iron. You can, therefore, adjust the temperature of the iron and the amount of steam being given off depending upon the type of fabric being ironed.
    – Turn the steam control to the desired intensity.
    – Turn the thermostat control to the desired temperature.
    Important: If your iron produces droplets of water instead of giving off steam, your temperature control is set too low.

    C Spray button
    This button activates a jet of cold water which allows you to iron out any unintentional creases. Press the button for one second.

    D Pressing button
    This button activates a super shot of steam which momentarily gives you an additional 40g of steam when needed.
    Important: Do not use this more than five successive times.

    E Suits etc.
    It is possible to use this iron in a vertical position so that you can remove creases from clothes on coathangers or from curtains. Turning the thermostat control and the steam button to maximum, hold the iron in a vertical position close to the fabric but without touching it. Hold down the pressing button for a maximum of one second. The steam produced is not always visible but is still able to remove creases.
    Important: Hold the iron at a sufficient distance from silk and wool to avoid all risk of scorching Do not attempt to remove creases from an item of clothing that is being worn, always use a coathanger.

    F Auto-clean
    In order that your iron does not become furred up, Moulex have integrated an auto-clean system and we advise you to use it very regularly (1-2 times per month).
    – Turn the steam control to the off position.
    – Fill the reservoir and turn the thermostat control to maximum.
    – As soon as the indicator light goes out, unplug the iron and, holding it over the sink, turn the steam control to auto-clean. Any calcium deposits will be washed out by the steam. Continue the procedure until the reservoir is empty.

    Questions 1-4
    Match the pictures below to the appropriate section in the instructions. Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

    Questions 5-8
    Answer the following questions on the Moulex iron using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Write your answers in boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet.

    5. What sort of water are you advised to use?
    6. What factor makes you decide on the quantity of steam to use?
    7. What should you do if your iron starts to drip water?
    8. What could damage your iron if you do not clean it?

    Now, read the information below and answer Questions 9-14.

    CLASSIC TOURS – coach break information

    Luggage
    We ask you to keep luggage down to one medium-sized suitcase per person, but a small holdall can also be taken on board the coach.

    Seat Allocation
    Requests for particular seats can be made on most coach breaks when booking, but since allocations are made on a first come first served basis, early booking is advisable. When bookings are made with us you will be offered the best seats that are available on the coach at that time.

    Travel Documents
    When you have paid your deposit we will send to you all the necessary documents and labels, so that you receive them in good time before the coach break departure date. Certain documents, for example air or boat tickets, may have to be retained and your driver or courier will then issue them to you at the relevant point.

    Special Diets
    If you require a special diet you must inform us at the time of booking with a copy of the diet. This will be notified to the hotel or hotels on your coach break, but on certain coach breaks the hotels used are tourist class and whilst offering value for money within the price range, they may not have the full facilities to cope with special diets. Any extra costs incurred must be paid to the hotel by yourself before departure from the hotel.

    Accommodation
    Many of our coach breaks now include, within the price, accommodation with private facilities, and this will be indicated on the coach break page. Other coach breaks have a limited number of rooms with private facilities which, subject to availability, can be reserved and guaranteed at the time of booking – the supplementary charge shown in the price panel will be added to your account. On any coach break there are only a limited number of single rooms. When a single room is available it may be subject to a supplementary charge and this will be shown on the brochure page.

    Entertainment
    Some of our hotels arrange additional entertainment which could include music, dancing, film shows, etc. The nature and frequency of the entertainment presented is at the discretion of the hotel and therefore not guaranteed and could be withdrawn if there is a lack of demand or insufficient numbers in the hotel.

    Questions 9-14
    Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

    9. If you want to sit at the front of the coach
    A ask when you get on the coach.
    B arrive early on the departure date.
    C book your seat well in advance.
    D avoid travelling at peak times.

    10. Your air tickets
    A will be sent to your departure point.
    B must be collected before leaving.
    C will be enclosed with other documents.
    D may be held by your coach driver.

    11. If you need a special diet you should
    A inform the hotel when you arrive.
    B pay extra with the booking.
    C tell the coach company.
    D book tourist class.

    12. It may be necessary to pay extra for
    A a bathroom.
    B boat tickets.
    C additional luggage.
    D entertainment.

    13. Entertainment is available
    A at all hotels.
    B if there is the demand.
    C upon request.
    D for an additional cost.

    14. With every booking Classic Tours guarantee you will be able to
    A request high quality meals.
    B take hand luggage on the coach.
    C use your own personal bathroom.
    D film if you want to.

    You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 15-29.
    Questions 15-21
    Look at the article Clubs for Students below. Which club would you contact for each of the requirements below? Write the appropriate letter A-G in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet. You may use each letter more than once.

    The first one has been done for you as an example.

    Example- you wish to go swimming at 7am every morning. Answer-G

    15. You would like to take Spanish classes.
    16. You want to join a club that has international branches.
    17. You would like an opportunity to speak in public.
    18. You would like to take part in amateur theatrical productions.
    19. You want to visit some famous sites with a group of other students.
    20. You are interested in finding out about part-time work.
    21. You want to meet some English people who have started their careers.

    CLUBS FOR STUDENTS

    There are a variety of Clubs which provide social and cultural activities for those wishing to meet others with similar interests from the same or from different national backgrounds.

    A Commonwealth Trust
    Organised discussion meetings, learned talks, cultural events excursions to places of interest and invitations to major British diary events Open to overseas visitors and students.

    B Charles Peguy Centre
    French youth centre providing advice, support and information to young Europeans aged between 18-30. Facilities include an information and advice service regarding education, work placement and general welfare rights. Moreover the centre holds a database of jobs, accommodation and au pair placements specifically in London. Members may use a fax machine a copier and computers for CVs.
    Hours Monday: 14.00-17.00

    Tuesday-Friday: 10.00-17.00
    Membership: £35 per year, plus £5 per month.

    C Kensington Committee of Friendship for Overseas Students
    KCOF is the society for young people from all countries. Each month there are some 40 parties, discos, visits to theatres, concerts, walks and other gatherings where you will be able to meet lots of people. A new programme is sent each month directly to members (£5 to join in October, less later in the year). Events are free or at low often reduced prices. Office open 10.30-17.30 weekdays only

    D Royal Overseas League
    Open 365 days per year, this is a club with facilities in London and Edinburgh with restaurants, bars and accommodation. There are branches around the world and 57 reciprocal clubs world-wide. Quarterly magazine, literary lectures, annual music and art competitions, and summer and winter programme of events for members. Membership fees overseas students aged 17¬24 £47 per year + initial joining fee £23.50; others £70 per year + initial joining fee £35 (half price after July). Further information from the Membership Secretary.

    E YMCA London Central
    Facilities include photography art drama, pottery, language courses, badminton, squash, exercise to music, circuit training, sports clinic, fitness testing and other activities. Hours weekdays 07.00-22.30, weekends 10.00-21.00. Membership fees: aged 16-17 £25 per year plus attendance charge of £1 30 per visit; aged 18-19 £213 per year; aged 20¬25 £366 per year

    F London Inter-Varsity Club (IVC)
    IVC is an activities and social club with a varied range of events, from cycling and drama to windsurfing and yoga. Most members are young English professionals, but overseas visitors are welcome. The club arranges restaurant meals, dancing and parties, weekends away around Britain, plus a weekly club night in a Covent Garden bar. There are usually over 25 different events every week run by IVG members for IVC members. To find out more, telephone the club or write (Freepost) to the office.

    G Central Club
    Provides accommodation and club facilities. No membership fee. Coffee shop open for all meals swimming pool (open 06.00), multi¬gym, hairdressing salon.

    Questions 22-29
    Read the article on International Students House and look at the statements below. In boxes 22-29 on your answer sheet write

    TRUE                                   if the statement is true
    FALSE                                 if the statement is false
    NOT GIVEN                      if the information is not given in the passage

    Example
    The club is for overseas students only Answer- False
    The first one has been done for you as an example.

    22. The club has long-term dormitory accommodation.
    23. Membership must be renewed monthly.
    24. The club provides subsidised restaurant meals.
    25. The club is open to non-members on Tuesday evenings.
    26. STA Travel help finance the Students Adviser.
    27. The services of the Students Adviser are free to all club members.
    28. You must make an appointment to see the Students Adviser.
    29. There will be a surcharge for accommodation over the Christmas period.

    INTERNATIONAL STUDENTS HOUSE

    International Students House is a unique club and accommodation centre for British and overseas students in London. It is located in the heart of London’s West End and is close to all public transport facilities.

    ACCOMMODATION
    * comfortable accommodation for up to 450 people in single, twin, 3/4 bedded and multi-bedded rooms
    * 44 self-contained flats for married students and families
    * long and short stays welcomed

    MEMBERSHIP
    Club membership is open to all full¬time students, professional trainees, student nurses and au pairs. Membership costs are kept to an absolute minimum to enable the widest possible access. You can join for as little as one month and for up to one year at a time. Membership entitles you to use the various facilities of the House. It has:
    * restaurants
    * student bars and coffee shop
    * study rooms
    * clubs and societies
    * aerobics and fitness training
    * discos, dance, jazz and cinema
    * travel and excursions and much more! The best way to check out all we have on offer is to drop in any Tuesday evening between 7.15 pm and 8.30 pm for Open House in the Club Room. This is an opportunity for you to meet the staff and other club members, enjoy a free cup of coffee and find out all about what’s going on. You can take advantage of special membership offers. (Useful tip: bring along 3 passport size photographs if you wish to take out membership.)

    ADVICE SERVICE
    Thanks to the support of STA Travel and in association with LCOS (the London Conference on Overseas Students) International Students House now provides the service of an International Students Adviser. This new welfare service is open to all students at London’s bona-fide academic institutions. It aims to provide welfare support to help students overcome any personal or practical difficulties they may be experiencing whilst studying in Britain. One of the key features of the Advice Service is that the Adviser can be seen during the evenings until about 8 pm, Monday to Thursday.

    CHRISTMAS & NEW YEAR
    Unable to get home for Christmas? How about joining in the fun at International Students House! Check out our special programme of activity taking place over the Christmas period. Even come and stay – the House will be offering reduced accommodation rates for students wishing to spend a few days in London over Christmas. We’ll also have an exciting New Year’s Eve party so come and join us and ring in the new year in the spirit of internationalism.

    Reading passage 3

    You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 30-41 which are based on the reading passage below.

    PAPER RECYCLING

    A Paper is different from other waste produce because it comes from a sustainable resource: trees. Unlike the minerals and oil used to make plastics and metals, trees are replaceable. Paper is also biodegradable, so it does not pose as much threat to the environment when it is discarded. While 45 out of every 100 tonnes of wood fibre used to make paper in Australia comes from waste paper, the rest comes directly from virgin fibre from forests and plantations. By world standards this is a good performance since the world-wide average is 33 per cent waste paper. Governments have encouraged waste paper collection and sorting schemes and at the same time, the paper industry has responded by developing new recycling technologies that have paved the way for even greater utilisation of used fibre. As a result, industry’s use of recycled fibres is expected to increase at twice the rate of virgin fibre over the coming years.

    B Already, waste paper constitutes 70% of paper used for packaging and advances in the technology required to remove ink from the paper have allowed a higher recycled content in newsprint and writing paper. To achieve the benefits of recycling, the community must also contribute. We need to accept a change in the quality of paper prod¬ucts; for example stationery may be less white and of a rougher texture. There also needs to be support from the community for waste paper collec¬tion programs. Not only do we need to make the paper available to collectors but it also needs to be separated into different types and sorted from con-taminants such as staples, paperclips, string and other miscellaneous items.

    C There are technical limitations to the amount of paper which can be recycled and some paper products cannot be collected for re-use. These include paper in the form of books and permanent records, photographic paper and paper which is badly contaminated. The four most common sources of paper for recycling are factories and retail stores which gather large amounts of packaging material in which goods are delivered, also offices which have unwanted business documents and computer output, paper converters and printers and lastly households which discard newspapers and packaging material. The paper manufacturer pays a price for the paper and may also incur the collection cost.

    D Once collected, the paper has to be sorted by hand by people trained to recognise various types of paper. This is necessary because some types of paper can only be made from particular kinds of recycled fibre. The sorted paper then has to be repulped or mixed with water and broken down into its individual fibres. This mixture is called stock and may contain a wide variety of contaminating materials, particularly if it is made from mixed waste paper which has had little sorting. Various machinery is used to remove other materials from the stock. After passing through the repulping process, the fibres from printed waste paper are grey in colour because the printing ink has soaked into the individual fibres. This recycled material can only be used in products where the grey colour does not matter, such as cardboard boxes but if the grey colour is not acceptable, the fibres must be de-inked. This involves adding chemicals such as caustic soda or other alkalis, soaps and detergents, water-hardening agents such as cal¬cium chloride, frothing agents and bleaching agents. Before the recycled fibres can be made into paper they must be refined or treated in such a way that they bond together.

    E Most paper products must contain some virgin fibre as well as recycled fibres and unlike glass, paper cannot be recycled indefinitely. Most paper is down-cycled which means that a product made from recycled paper is of an inferior quality to the original paper. Recycling paper is beneficial in that it saves some of the energy, labour and capital that goes into producing virgin pulp. However, recycling requires the use of fossil fuel, a non-renewable energy source, to collect the waste paper from the community and to process it to produce new paper. And the recycling process still creates emissions which require treatment before they can be disposed of safely. Nevertheless, paper recycling is an important economical and environmental practice but one which must be carried out in a rational and viable manner for it to be useful to both industry and the community.

    Questions 30-36
    Complete the summary below of the first two paragraphs of the Reading Passage. Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.

    SUMMARY
    Example
    From the point of view of recycling, paper has two advantages over minerals and Oil
    in that firstly it comes from a resource which is (30) ……………………. and secondly it is less threatening to our environment when we throw it away because it is (31) ……………………. Although Australia’s record in the re-use of waste paper is good, it is still necessary to use a combination of recycled fibre and (32) …………………… to make new paper. The paper industry has contributed positively and people have also been encouraged by (33) ……………………. to collect their waste on a regular basis. One major difficulty is the removal of ink from used paper but (34) ……………………. are being made in this area. However, we need to learn to accept paper which is generally of a lower (35) …………………….than before and to sort our waste paper by removing (36) …………………….before discarding it for collection.

    Questions 37-41
    Look at paragraphs C, D, and E and, using the information in the passage, complete the flow chart below. Use ONE OR TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Step 1: Waster paper collected from:
    – factories
    – retail stores
    – (37) …………..
    – paper converters and printers household
    Step 2: The paper is then (38) ………… and
    Step 3: (39) ………… by adding water
    Step 4: Chemicals are added in order to (40) …………

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 474

    GLASS – Capturing The Dance of Light

    A Glass, in one form or another, has long been in noble service to humans. As one of the most widely used of manufactured materials, and certainly the most versatile, it can be as imposing as a telescope mirror the width of a tennis court or as small and simple as a marble rolling across dirt. The uses of this adaptable material have been broadened dramatically by new technologies glass fibre optics — more than eight million miles — carrying telephone and television signals across nations, glass ceramics serving as the nose cones of missiles and as crowns for teeth; tiny glass beads taking radiation doses inside the body to specific organs, even a new type of glass fashioned of nuclear waste in order to dispose of that unwanted material.

    B On the horizon are optical computers. These could store programs and process information by means of light – pulses from tiny lasers – rather than electrons and the pulses would travel over glass fibres, not copper wire. These machines could function hundreds of times faster than today’s electronic computers and hold vastly more information. Today fibre optics viruses. A new generation of optical instruments is emerging that can provide detailed imaging of the inner workings of cells. It is the surge in fibre optic use and in liquid crystal displays that has set the U.S. glass industry (a 16 billion dollar business employing some 150,000 workers) to building new plants to meet demand.

    C But it is not only in technology and commerce that glass has widened its horizons. The use of glass as art, a tradition spins back at least to Roman times, is also booming. Nearly everywhere, it seems, men and women are blowing glass and creating works of art. “I didn’t sell a piece of glass until 1975”, Dale Chihuly said, smiling, for in the 18 years since the end of the dry spell, he has become one of the most financially successful artists of the 20th century. He now has a new commission – a glass sculpture for the headquarters building of a pizza company – for which his fee is half a million dollars.

    D But not all the glass technology that touches our lives is ultra-modern. Consider the simple light bulb; at the turn of the century most light bulbs were hand blown, and the cost of one was equivalent to half a day’s pay for the average worker. In effect, the invention of the ribbon machine by Corning in the 1920s lighted a nation. The price of a bulb plunged. Small wonder that the machine has been called one of the great mechanical achievements of all time. Yet it is very simple: a narrow ribbon of molten glass travels over a moving belt of steel in which there are holes. The glass sags through the holes and into waiting moulds. Puffs of compressed air then shape the glass. In this way, the envelope of a light bulb is made by a single machine at the rate of 66,000 an hour, as compared with 1,200 a day produced by a team of four glassblowers.

    E The secret of the versatility of glass lies in its interior structure. Although it is rigid, and thus like a solid, the atoms are arranged in a random disordered fashion, characteristic of a liquid. In the melting process, the atoms in the raw materials are disturbed from their normal position in the molecular structure; before they can find their way back to crystalline arrangements the glass cools. This looseness in molecular structure gives the material what engineers call tremendous “formability” which allows technicians to tailor glass to whatever they need.

    F Today, scientists continue to experiment with new glass mixtures and building designers test their imaginations with applications of special types of glass. A London architect, Mike Davies, sees even more dramatic buildings using molecular chemistry. “Glass is the great building material of the future, the dynamic skin,’ he said. “Think of glass that has been treated to react to electric currents going through it, glass that will change from clear to opaque at the push of a button, that gives you instant curtains. Think of how the tall buildings in New York could perform a symphony of colours as the glass in them is made to change colours instantly.” Glass as instant curtains is available now, but the cost is exorbitant. As for the glass changing colours instantly, that may come true. Mike Davies’s vision may indeed be on the way to fulfilment.

    Questions 1-5
    Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable heading/or each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet. Paragraph A has been done for you as an example.
    NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. You may use any heading more at once.

    List of Headings
    i. Growth in the market for glass crafts
    ii. Computers and their dependence on glass
    iii. What makes glass so adaptable
    iv. Historical development of glass
    v. Scientists’ dreams cost millions
    vi. Architectural experiments with glass
    vii. Glass art galleries flourish
    viii. Exciting innovations in fibre optics
    ix. A former glass technology
    x. Everyday uses of glass

    1 Paragraph B
    2 Paragraph C
    3 Paragraph D
    4 Paragraph E
    5 Paragraph F

    Questions 6-8
    The diagram below shows the principle of Corning’s ribbon machine. Label the diagram by selecting NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the Reading Passage to fill each numbered space. Write your answers in boxes 6-8 on your answer sheet.

    Questions 9-13
    Look at the list below of the uses of glass. According to the passage, state whether these uses exist today, will exist in the future or are not mentioned by the writer. In boxes 9-13 write

    A if the uses exist today
    B if the uses will exist in the future
    C if the uses are not mentioned by the writer

    9 dental fittings
    10 optical computers
    11 sculptures
    12 fashions
    13 curtains

    Why some women cross the finish line ahead of men

    A Women who apply for jobs in middle or senior management have a higher success rate than men, according to an employment survey. But of course far fewer of them apply for these positions. The study, by recruitment consultants NB Selection, shows that while one in six men who appear on interview shortlists get jobs, the figure rises to one in four for women.

    B The study concentrated on applications for management positions in the $45,000 to $110,000 salary range and found that women are more successful than men in both the private and public sectors Dr Elisabeth Marx from London-based NB Selection described the findings as encouraging for women, in that they send a positive message to them to apply for interesting management positions. But she added, “We should not lose sight of the fact that significantly fewer women apply for senior positions in comparison with men.”

    C Reasons for higher success rates among women are difficult to isolate. One explanation suggested is that if a woman candidate manages to get on a shortlist, then she has probably already proved herself to be an exceptional candidate. Dr Marx said that when women apply for positions they tend to be better qualified than their male counterparts but are more selective and conservative in their job search. Women tend to research thoroughly before applying for positions or attending interviews. Men, on the other hand, seem to rely on their ability to sell themselves and to convince employers that any shortcomings they have will not prevent them from doing a good job.

    D Managerial and executive progress made by women is confirmed by the annual survey of boards of directors carried out by Korn/ Ferry/ Carre/ Orban International. This year the survey shows a doubling of the number of women serving as non-executive directors compared with the previous year. However, progress remains painfully slow and there were still only 18 posts filled by women out of a total of 354 nonexecutive positions surveyed. Hilary Sears, a partner with Korn/ Ferry, said, “Women have raised the level of grades we are employed in but we have still not broken through barriers to the top.”

    E In Europe a recent feature of corporate life in the recession has been the delayering of management structures.
    Sears said that this has halted progress for women in as much as de-layering has taken place either where women are working or in layers they aspire to. Sears also noted a positive trend from the recession, which has been the growing number of women who have started up on their own.

    F In business as a whole, there are a number of factors encouraging the prospect of greater equality in the workforce. Demographic trends suggest that the number of women going into employment is steadily increasing. In addition a far greater number of women are now passing through higher education, making them better qualified to move into management positions.

    G Organisations such as the European Women’s Management Development Network provide a range of opportunities for women to enhance their skills and contacts. Through a series of both pan-European and national workshops and conferences the barriers to women in employment are being broken down. However, Ariane Berthoin Antal, director of the International Institute for Organisational Change of Archamps in France, said that there is only anecdotal evidence of changes in recruitment patterns. And she said, “It’s still so hard for women to even get on to shortlists -there are so many hurdles and barriers.” Antal agreed that there have been some positive signs but said “Until there is a belief among employers, until they value the difference, nothing will change.”

    Questions 14-19
    Reading Passage 2 has 7 paragraphs (A-G). State which paragraph discusses each of the points below. Write the appropriate letter (A-G) in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

    Example: The salary range studied in the NB Selection survey. Answer B

    14 The drawbacks of current company restructuring patterns.
    15 Associations that provide support for professional women.
    16 The success rate of female job applicants for management positions.
    17 Male and female approaches to job applications.
    18 Reasons why more women are being employed in the business sector.
    19 The improvement in female numbers on company management structures.

    Questions 20-23
    The author makes reference to three consultants in the Reading Passage. Which of the list of points below do these consultants make? In boxes 20-23 write

    M if the point is made by Dr Marx
    S if the point is made by Hilary Sears
    A if the point is made by Ariane Berthoin Antal

    20 Selection procedures do not favour women.
    21 The number of female-run businesses is increasing.
    22 Male applicants exceed female applicants for top posts.
    23 Women hold higher positions now than they used to.

    Questions 24-27
    Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 24-27 on your answer sheet.

    24 What change has there been in the number of women in top management positions detailed in the annual survey?
    25 What aspect of company structuring has disadvantaged women?
    26 What information tells us that more women are working nowadays?
    27 Which group of people should change their attitude to recruitment?

    Population viability analysis

    Part A
    To make political decisions about the extent and type of forestry in a region it is important to understand the consequences of those decisions. One tool for assessing the impact of forestry on the ecosystem is population viability analysis (PVA). This is a tool for predicting the probability that a species will become extinct in a particular region over a specific period. It has been successfully used in the United States to provide input into resource exploitation decisions and assist wildlife managers and there is now enormous potential for using population viability to assist wildlife management in Australia’s forests.

    A species becomes extinct when the last individual dies. This observation is a useful starting point for any discussion of extinction as it highlights the role of luck and chance in the extinction process. To make a prediction about extinction we need to understand the processes that can contribute to it and these fall into four broad categories which are discussed below.

    Part B
    A Early attempts to predict population viability were based on demographic uncertainty Whether an individual survives from one year to the next will largely be a matter of chance. Some pairs may produce several young in a single year while others may produce none in that same year. Small populations will fluctuate enormously because of the random nature of birth and death and these chance fluctuations can cause species extinctions even if, on average, the population size should increase. Taking only this uncertainty of ability to reproduce into account, extinction is unlikely if the number of individuals in a population is above about 50 and the population is growing.

    B Small populations cannot avoid a certain amount of inbreeding. This is particularly true if there is a very small number of one sex. For example, if there are only 20 individuals of a species and only one is a male, all future individuals in the species must be descended from that one male. For most animal species such individuals are less likely to survive and reproduce. Inbreeding increases the chance of extinction.

    C Variation within a species is the raw material upon which natural selection acts. Without genetic variability a species lacks the capacity to evolve and cannot adapt to changes in its environment or to new predators and new diseases. The loss of genetic diversity associated with reductions in population size will contribute to the likelihood of extinction.

    D Recent research has shown that other factors need to be considered. Australia’s environment fluctuates enormously from year to year. These fluctuations add yet another degree of uncertainty to the survival of many species. Catastrophes such as fire, flood, drought or epidemic may reduce population sizes to a small fraction of their average level. When allowance is made for these two additional elements of uncertainty the population size necessary to be confident of persistence for a few hundred years may increase to several thousand.

    Part C
    Beside these processes we need to bear in mind the distribution of a population. A species that occurs in five isolated places each containing 20 individuals will not have the same probability of extinction as a species with a single population of 100 individuals in a single locality.

    Where logging occurs (that is, the cutting down of forests for timber) forest dependent creatures in that area will be forced to leave. Ground-dwelling herbivores may return within a decade. However, arboreal marsupials (that is animals which live in trees) may not recover to pre-logging densities for over a century. As more forests are logged, animal population sizes will be reduced further. Regardless of the theory or model that we choose, a reduction in population size decreases the genetic diversity of a population and increases the probability of extinction because of any or all of the processes listed above. It is therefore a scientific fact that increasing the area that is loaded in any region will increase the probability that forest-dependent animals will become extinct.

    Questions 28-31
    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Part A of Reading Passage 3? In boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet write

    YES                              if the statement agrees with the writer
    NO                                if the statement contradicts the writer
    NOT GIVEN             if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    28 Scientists are interested in the effect of forestry on native animals.
    29 PVA has been used in Australia for many years.
    30 A species is said to be extinct when only one individual exists.
    31 Extinction is a naturally occurring phenomenon.

    Questions 32-35
    These questions are based on Part B of Reading Passage 3. In paragraphs A to D the author describes four processes which may contribute to the extinction of a species. Match the list of processes (i-vi) to the paragraphs. Write the appropriate number (i-vi) in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet. NB There are more processes than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.

    32 Paragraph A
    33 Paragraph B
    34 Paragraph C
    35 Paragraph D

    Processes
    i. Loss of ability to adapt
    ii. Natural disasters
    iii. An imbalance of the sexes
    iv. Human disasters
    v. Evolution
    vi. The haphazard nature of reproduction

    Questions 36-39
    Based on your reading of Part C, complete the sentences below with words taken from the passage. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 36-38 on your answer sheet.

    While the population of a species may be on the increase, there is always a chance that small isolated groups (36)……………………….
    Survival of a species depends on a balance between the size of a population and its (37)…………………….
    The likelihood that animals which live in forests will become extinct is increased when (38)……………………
    After logging herbivores that reside on ground find it easier to return as compared to (39)………………

    Question 40
    Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write it in box 39 on your answer sheet.

    40 An alternative heading for the passage could be:
    A The protection of native flora and fauna
    B Influential factors in assessing survival probability
    C An economic rationale for the logging of forests
    D Preventive measures for the extinction of a species

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 473

    SPOKEN CORPUS COMES TO LIFE

    A The compiling of dictionaries has been historically the provenance of studious professorial types – usually bespectacled – who love to pore over weighty tomes and make pronouncements on the finer nuances of meaning. They were probably good at crosswords and definitely knew a lot of words, but the image was always rather dry and dusty. The latest technology, and simple technology at that, is revolutionising the content of dictionaries and the way they are put together.

    B For the first time, dictionary publishers are incorporating real, spoken English into their data. It gives lexicographers (people who write dictionaries) access to a more vibrant, up-to-date vernacular language which has never really been studied before. In one project, 150 volunteers each agreed to discreetly tie a Walkman recorder to their waist and leave it running for anything up to two weeks. Every conversation they had was recorded. When the data was collected, the length of tapes was 35 times the depth of the Atlantic Ocean. Teams of audio typists transcribed the tapes to produce a computerised database of ten million words.

    C This has been the basis – along with an existing written corpus – for the Language Activator dictionary, described by lexicographer Professor Randolph Quirk as “the book the world has been waiting for”. It shows advanced foreign learners of English how the language is really used. In the dictionary, key words such as “eat” are followed by related phrases such as “wolf down” or “be a picky eater”, allowing the student to choose the appropriate phrase.

    D “This kind of research would be impossible without computers,” said Delia Summers, a director of dictionaries. “It has transformed the way lexicographers work. If you look at the word “like”, you may intuitively think that the first and most frequent meaning is the verb, as in “I like swimming”. It is not. It is the preposition, as in: “she walked like a duck”. Just because a word or phrase is used doesn’t mean it ends up in a dictionary. The sifting out process is as vital as ever. But the database does allow lexicographers to search for a word and find out how frequently it is used – something that could only be guessed at intuitively before.

    E Researchers have found that written English works in a very different way to spoken English. The phrase “say what you like” literally means “feel free to say anything you want”, but in reality it is used, evidence shows, by someone to prevent the other person voicing disagreement. The phrase “it’s a question of crops up on the database over and over again. It has nothing to do with enquiry, but it’s one of the most frequent English phrases which has never been in a language learner’s dictionary before: it is now.

    F The Spoken Corpus computer shows how inventive and humorous people are when they are using language by twisting familiar phrases for effect. It also reveals the power of the pauses and noises we use to play for time, convey emotion, doubt and irony.

    G For the moment, those benefiting most from the Spoken Corpus are foreign learners. “Computers allow lexicographers to search quickly through more examples of real English,” said Professor Geoffrey Leech of Lancaster University. “They allow dictionaries to be more accurate and give a feel for how language is being used.” The Spoken Corpus is part of the larger British National Corpus, an initiative carried out by several groups involved in the production of language learning materials: publishers, universities and the British Library.

    Questions 1-6
    Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs (A-G). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xi) in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet. Paragraph C has been done for you as an example.
    NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. You may use any heading more than once.

    List of Headings
    i. Grammar is corrected
    ii. New method of research
    iii. Technology learns from dictionaries
    iv. Non-verbal content
    v. The first study of spoken language
    vi. Traditional lexicographical methods
    vii Written English tells the truth
    viii New phrases enter dictionary
    ix A cooperative research project
    x Accurate word frequency counts
    xi Alternative expressions provided

    1 Paragraph A
    2 Paragraph B
    3 Paragraph D
    4 Paragraph E
    5 Paragraph F
    6 Paragraph G

    Questions 7-11
    The diagram below illustrates the information provided in paragraphs B-F of Reading Passage 1 Complete the labels on the diagram with an appropriate word or words. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each space.

    Question 12
    Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write it in box 12 on your answer sheet

    12 Why was this article written?
    A To give an example of a current dictionary
    B To announce a new approach to dictionary writing
    C To show how dictionaries have progressed over the years
    D To compare the content of different dictionaries

    Moles happy as homes go underground

    A The first anybody knew about Dutchman Frank Siegmund and his family was when workmen tramping through a field found a narrow steel chimney protruding through the grass. Closer inspection revealed a chink of sky-light window among the thistles, and when amazed investigators moved down the side of the hill they came across a pine door complete with leaded diamond glass and a brass knocker set into an underground building. The Siegmunds had managed to live undetected for six years outside the border town of Breda, in Holland. They are the latest in a clutch of individualistic homemakers who have burrowed underground in search of tranquility.

    B Most, falling foul of strict building regulations, have been forced to dismantle their individualistic homes and return to more conventional lifestyles. But subterranean suburbia, Dutch-style, is about to become respectable and chic. Seven luxury homes cosseted away inside a high earth-covered noise embankment next to the main Tilburg city road recently went on the market for $296,500 each. The foundations had yet to be dug, but customers queued up to buy the unusual part-submerged houses, whose back wall consists of a grassy mound and whose front is a long glass gallery.

    C The Dutch are not the only would-be moles. Growing numbers of Europeans are burrowing below ground to create houses, offices, discos and shopping malls. It is already proving a way of life in extreme climates; in winter months in Montreal, Canada, for instance, citizens can escape the cold in an underground complex complete with shops and even health clinics. In Tokyo builders are planning a massive underground city to be begun in the next decade, and underground shopping malls are already common in Japan, where 90 percent of the population is squeezed into 20 percent of the land space.

    D Building big commercial buildings underground can be a way to avoid disfiguring or threatening a beautiful or environmentally sensitive landscape. Indeed many of the buildings which consume most land -such as cinemas, supermarkets, theatres, warehouses or libraries -have no need to be on the surface since they do not need windows.

    E There are big advantages, too, when it comes to private homes. A development of 194 houses which would take up 14 hectares of land above ground would occupy 2.7 hectares below it, while the number of roads would be halved. Under several metres of earth, noise is minimal and insulation is excellent. “We get 40 to 50 enquiries a week”, says Peter Carpenter, secretary of the British Earth Sheltering Association, which builds similar homes in Britain. “People see this as a way of building for the future.” An underground dweller himself, Carpenter has never paid a heating bill, thanks to solar panels and natural insulation.

    F In Europe the obstacle has been conservative local authorities and developers who prefer to ensure quick sales with conventional mass produced housing. But the Dutch development was greeted with undisguised relief by South Limburg planners because of Holland’s chronic shortage of land. It was the Tilburg architect Jo Hurkmans who hit on the idea of making use of noise embankments on main roads. His twofloored, four-bedroomed, two-bathroomed detached homes are now taking shape. “They are not so much below the earth as in it,” he says. “All the light will come through the glass front, which runs from the second floor ceiling to the ground. Areas which do not need much natural lighting are at the back. The living accommodation is to the front so nobody notices that the back is dark.”

    G In the US, where energy-efficient homes became popular after the oil crisis of 1973, 10,000 underground houses have been built. A terrace of five homes, Britain’s first subterranean development, is under way in Nottinghamshire. Italy’s outstanding example of subterranean architecture is the Olivetti residential centre in Ivrea. Commissioned by Roberto Olivetti in 1969, it comprises 82 one-bedroomed apartments and 12 maisonettes and forms a house/ hotel for Olivetti employees. It is built into a hill and little can be seen from outside except a glass facade. Patnzia Vallecchi, a resident since 1992, says it is little different from living in a conventional apartment.

    H Not everyone adapts so well, and in Japan scientists at the Shimizu Corporation have developed “space creation” systems which mix light, sounds, breezes and scents to stimulate people who spend long periods below ground. Underground offices in Japan are being equipped with “virtual” windows and mirrors, while underground departments in the University of Minnesota have periscopes to reflect views and light.

    I But Frank Siegmund and his family love their hobbit lifestyle. Their home evolved when he dug a cool room for his bakery business in a hill he had created. During a heatwave they took to sleeping there. “We felt at peace and so close to nature,” he says. “Gradually I began adding to the rooms. It sounds strange but we are so close to the earth we draw strength from its vibrations. Our children love it; not every child can boast of being watched through their playroom windows by rabbits.

    Questions 13-20
    Reading Passage 2 has nine paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xii) in boxes 13 20 on your answer sheet. Paragraph A has been done for you as an example. NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.

    List of Headings
    i. A designer describes his houses
    ii. Most people prefer conventional housing
    iii. Simulating a natural environment
    iv. How an underground family home developed
    v. Demands on space and energy are reduced
    vi. The plans for future homes
    vii. Worldwide examples of underground living accommodation
    viii. Some buildings do not require natural light
    ix. Developing underground services around the world
    x. Underground living improves health
    xi. Homes sold before completion
    xii. An underground home is discovered

    13 Paragraph B
    14 Paragraph C
    15 Paragraph D
    16 Paragraph E
    17 Paragraph F
    18 Paragraph G
    19 Paragraph H
    20 Paragraph I

    Questions 21-26
    Complete the sentences below after reading the passage. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.

    21 Many developers prefer mass-produced houses because they …
    22 The Dutch development was welcomed by …
    23 Hurkmans’ houses are built into …
    24 The Ivrea centre was developed for …
    25 Japanese scientists are helping people … underground life.
    26 Frank Siegmund’s first underground room was used for …

    A Workaholic Economy

    FOR THE first century or so of the industrial revolution, increased productivity led to decreases in working hours. Employees who had been putting in 12-hour days, six days a week, found their time on the job shrinking to 10 hours daily, then, finally, to eight hours, five days a week. Only a generation ago social planners worried about what people would do with all this new-found free time. In the US, at least, it seems they need not have bothered.

    Although the output per hour of work has more than doubled since 1945, leisure seems reserved largely for the unemployed and underemployed. Those who work full-time spend as much time on the job as they did at the end of World War II. In fact, working hours have increased noticeably since 1970 — perhaps because real wages have stagnated since that year. Bookstores now abound with manuals describing how to manage time and cope with stress.

    There are several reasons for lost leisure. Since 1979, companies have responded to improvements in the business climate by having employees work overtime rather than by hiring extra personnel, says economist Juliet B. Schor of Harvard University. Indeed, the current economic recovery has gained a certain amount of notoriety for its “jobless” nature: increased production has been almost entirely decoupled from employment. Some firms are even downsizing as their profits climb. “All things being equal, we’d be better off spreading around the work,’ observes labour economist Ronald G. Ehrenberg of Cornell University.

    Yet a host of factors pushes employers to hire fewer workers for more hours and, at the same time, compels workers to spend more time on the job. Most of those incentives involve what Ehrenberg calls the structure of compensation: quirks in the way salaries and benefits are organised that make it more profitable to ask 40 employees to labour an extra hour each than to hire one more worker to do the same 40-hour job.

    Professional and managerial employees supply the most obvious lesson along these lines. Once people are on salary, their cost to a firm is the same whether they spend 35 hours a week in the office or 70. Diminishing returns may eventually set in as overworked employees lose efficiency or leave for more arable pastures. But in the short run, the employer’s incentive is clear.

    Even hourly employees receive benefits – such as pension contributions and medical insurance – that are not tied to the number of hours they work. Therefore, it is more profitable for employers to work their existing employees harder.

    For all that employees complain about long hours, they, too, have reasons not to trade money for leisure. “People who work reduced hours pay a huge penalty in career terms,” Schor maintains. It’s taken as a negative signal about their commitment to the firm.’ [Lotte] Bailyn [of Massachusetts Institute of Technology] adds that many corporate managers find it difficult to measure the contribution of their underlings to a firm’s well-being, so they use the number of hours worked as a proxy for output. “Employees know this,” she says, and they adjust their behavior accordingly.

    “Although the image of the good worker is the one whose life belongs to the company,” Bailyn says, “it doesn’t fit the facts.’ She cites both quantitative and qualitative studies that show increased productivity for part-time workers: they make better use of the time they have, and they are less likely to succumb to fatigue in stressful jobs. Companies that employ more workers for less time also gain from the resulting redundancy, she asserts. “The extra people can cover the contingencies that you know are going to happen, such as when crises take people away from the workplace.’ Positive experiences with reduced hours have begun to change the more-is-better culture at some companies, Schor reports.

    Larger firms, in particular, appear to be more willing to experiment with flexible working arrangements…

    It may take even more than changes in the financial and cultural structures of employment for workers successfully to trade increased productivity and money for leisure time, Schor contends. She says the U.S. market for goods has become skewed by the assumption of full-time, two-career households. Automobile makers no longer manufacture cheap models, and developers do not build the tiny bungalows that served the first postwar generation of home buyers. Not even the humblest household object is made without a microprocessor. As Schor notes, the situation is a curious inversion of the “appropriate technology” vision that designers have had for developing countries: U.S. goods are appropriate only for high incomes and long hours.

    Questions 27-32
    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 27-32 write

    YES                         if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
    NO                           if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
    NOT GIVEN        if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    27 Today, employees are facing a reduction in working hours.
    28 Social planners have been consulted about US employment figures.
    29 Salaries have not risen significantly since the 1970s.
    30 The economic recovery created more jobs.
    31 Bailyn’s research shows that part-time employees work more efficiently.
    32 Increased leisure time would benefit two-career households.

    Questions 33 and 34
    Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 33 and 34 on your answer sheet.

    33 Bailyn argues that it is better for a company to employ more workers because
    A it is easy to make excess staff redundant.
    B crises occur if you are under-staffed.
    C people are available to substitute for absent staff.
    D they can project a positive image at work.

    34 Schor thinks it will be difficult for workers in the US to reduce their working hours because
    A they would not be able to afford cars or homes.
    B employers are offering high incomes for long hours.
    C the future is dependent on technological advances.
    D they do not wish to return to the humble post-war era.

    Questions 35-38
    The writer mentions a number of factors that have resulted, in employees working longer hours. Which FOUR of the following factors are mentioned? Write your answers (A-H) in boxes 35-38 on your answer sheet.

    List of Factors
    A Books are available to help employees cope with stress.
    B Extra work is offered to existing employees.
    C Increased production has led to joblessness.
    D Benefits and hours spent on the job are not linked.
    E Overworked employees require longer to do their work.
    F Longer hours indicate greater commitment to the firm.
    G Managers estimate staff productivity in terms of hours worked.
    H Employees value a career more than a family.

    Questions 39 and 40
    Complete the sentences below with words from the reading passage. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD.

    39. Returns from overburdened employees decreases with time because they lose……..
    40. Employees give more work to their existing employees because for them it is……….

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 472

    Right and left-handedness in humans

    Why do humans, virtually alone among all animal species, display a distinct left or right-handedness? Not even our closest relatives among the apes possess such decided lateral asymmetry, as psychologists call it. Yet about 90 per cent of every human population that has ever lived appears to have been right-handed. Professor Bryan Turner at Deakin University has studied the research literature on left-handedness and found that handedness goes with sidedness. So nine out of ten people are right-handed and eight are right-footed. He noted that this distinctive asymmetry in the human population is itself systematic. “Humans think in categories: black and white, up and down, left and right. It’s a system of signs that enables us to categorise phenomena that are essentially ambiguous.’

    Research has shown that there is a genetic or inherited element to handedness. But while left-handedness tends to run in families, neither left nor right handers will automatically produce off-spring with the same handedness; in fact about 6 per cent of children with two right-handed parents will be left-handed. However, among two left-handed parents, perhaps 40 per cent of the children will also be left-handed. With one right and one left-handed parent, 15 to 20 per cent of the offspring will be left- handed. Even among identical twins who have exactly the same genes, one in six pairs will differ in their handedness.

    What then makes people left-handed if it is not simply genetic? Other factors must be at work and researchers have turned to the brain for clues. In the 1860s the French surgeon and anthropologist, Dr Paul Broca, made the remarkable finding that patients who had lost their powers of speech as a result of a stroke (a blood clot in the brain) had paralysis of the right half of their body. He noted that since the left hemisphere of the brain controls the right half of the body, and vice versa, the brain damage must have been in the brain’s left hemisphere. Psychologists now believe that among right-handed people, probably 95 per cent have their language centre in the left hemisphere, while 5 per cent have right-side language. Left-handers, however, do not show the reverse pattern but instead a majority also have their language in the left hemisphere. Some 30 per cent have right hemisphere language.

    Dr Brinkman, a brain researcher at the Australian National University in Canberra, has suggested that evolution of speech went with right-handed preference. According to Brinkman, as the brain evolved, one side became specialised for fine control of movement (necessary for producing speech) and along with this evolution came right- hand preference. According to Brinkman, most left-handers have left hemisphere dominance but also some capacity in the right hemisphere. She has observed that if a left-handed person is brain-damaged in the left hemisphere, the recovery of speech is quite often better and this is explained by the fact that left-handers have a more bilateral speech function.

    In her studies of macaque monkeys, Brinkman has noticed that primates (monkeys) seem to learn a hand preference from their mother in the first year of life but this could be one hand or the other. In humans, however, the specialisation in (unction of the two hemispheres results in anatomical differences: areas that are involved with the production of speech are usually larger on the left side than on the right. Since monkeys have not acquired the art of speech, one would not expect to see such a variation but Brinkman claims to have discovered a trend in monkeys towards the asymmetry that is evident in the human brain.

    Two American researchers, Geschwind and Galaburda, studied the brains of human embryos and discovered that the left-right asymmetry exists before birth. But as the brain develops, a number of things can affect it. Every brain is initially female in its organisation and it only becomes a male brain when the male foetus begins to secrete hormones. Geschwind and Galaburda knew that different parts of the brain mature at different rates; the right hemisphere develops first, then the left. Moreover, a girl’s brain develops somewhat faster than that of a boy. So, if something happens to the brain’s development during pregnancy, it is more likely to be affected in a male and the hemisphere more likely to be involved is the left. The brain may become less lateralised and this in turn could result in left-handedness and the development of certain superior skills that have their origins in the left hemisphere such as logic, rationality and abstraction. It should be no surprise then that among mathematicians and architects, left-handers tend to be more common and there are more left-handed males than females.

    The results of this research may be some consolation to left-handers who have for centuries lived in a world designed to suit right-handed people. However, what is alarming, according to Mr. Charles Moore, a writer and journalist, is the way the word “right” reinforces its own virtue. Subliminally he says, language tells people to think that anything on the right can be trusted while anything on the left is dangerous or even sinister. We speak of left-handed compliments and according to Moore, “it is no coincidence that left-handed children, forced to use their right hand, often develop a stammer as they are robbed of their freedom of speech”. However, as more research is undertaken on the causes of left-handedness, attitudes towards left-handed people are gradually changing for the better. Indeed when the champion tennis player Ivan Lendl was asked what the single thing was that he would choose in order to improve his game, he said he would like to become a left-hander.

    Questions 1-7

    Use the information in the text to match the people (listed A-E) with the opinions (listed 1-7) below. Write the appropriate letter (A-E) in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet. Some people match more than one opinion.

    A Dr Broca
    B Dr Brinkman
    C Geschwind and Galaburda
    D Charles Moore
    E Professor Turner

    1 Human beings started to show a preference for right-handedness when they first developed language.
    2 Society is prejudiced against left-handed people.
    3 Boys are more likely to be left-handed.
    4 After a stroke, left-handed people recover their speech more quickly than right-handed people.
    5 People who suffer strokes on the left side of the brain usually lose their power of speech.
    6 The two sides of the brain develop different functions before birth.
    7 Asymmetry is a common feature of the human body.

    Questions 8-10
    Using the information in the passage, complete the table below. Write your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.

    Questions 11 and 12
    Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 11 and 12 on your answer sheet.

    11 A study of monkeys has shown that
    A monkeys are not usually right-handed
    B monkeys display a capacity for speech
    C monkey brains are smaller than human brains
    D monkey brains are asymmetric

    12 According to the writer, left-handed people
    A will often develop a stammer
    B have undergone hardship for years
    C are untrustworthy
    D are good tennis players

    MIGRATORY BEEKEEPING

    Of the 2,000 commercial beekeepers in the United States about half migrate This pays off in two ways moving north in the summer and south in the winter lets bees work a longer blooming season, making more honey — and money — for their keepers. Second, beekeepers can carry their hives to farmers who need bees to pollinate their crops. Every spring a migratory beekeeper in California may move up to 160 million bees to flowering fields in Minnesota and every winter his family may haul the hives back to California, where farmers will rent the bees to pollinate almond and cherry trees.

    Migratory beekeeping is nothing new. The ancient Egyptians moved clay hives, probably on rafts, down the Nile to follow the bloom and nectar flow as it moved toward Cairo. In the 1880s North American beekeepers experimented with the same idea, moving bees on barges along the Mississippi and on waterways in Florida, but their lighter, wooden hives kept falling into the water. Other keepers tried the railroad and horse- drawn wagons, but that didn’t prove practical. Not until the 1920s when cars and trucks became affordable and roads improved, did migratory beekeeping begin to catch on.

    For the Californian beekeeper, the pollination season begins in February. At this time, the beehives are in particular demand by farmers who have almond groves; they need two hives an acre. For the three-week long bloom, beekeepers can hire out their hives for $32 each. It’s a bonanza for the bees too. Most people consider almond honey too bitter to eat so the bees get to keep it for themselves.

    By early March it is time to move the bees. It can take up to seven nights to pack the 4,000 or so hives that a beekeeper may own. These are not moved in the middle of the day because too many of the bees would end up homeless. But at night, the hives are stacked onto wooden pallets, back-to-back in sets of four, and lifted onto a truck. It is not necessary to wear gloves or a beekeeper’s veil because the hives are not being opened and the bees should remain relatively quiet. Just in case some are still lively, bees can be pacified with a few puffs of smoke blown into each hive’s narrow entrance.

    In their new location, the beekeeper will pay the farmer to allow his bees to feed in such places as orange groves. The honey produced here is fragrant and sweet and can be sold by the beekeepers. To encourage the bees to produce as much honey as possible during this period, the beekeepers open the hives and stack extra boxes called supers on top. These temporary hive extensions contain frames of empty comb for the bees to fill with honey. In the brood chamber below, the bees will stash honey to eat later. To prevent the queen from crawling up to the top and laying eggs, a screen can be inserted between the brood chamber and the supers. Three weeks later the honey can be gathered.

    Foul smelling chemicals are often used to irritate the bees and drive them down into the hive’s bottom boxes, leaving the honey- filled supers more or less bee free. These can then be pulled off the hive. They are heavy with honey and may weigh up to 90 pounds each. The supers are taken to a warehouse. In the extracting room, the frames are tilted out and lowered into an “uncapper” where rotating blades shave away the wax that covers each cell. The uncapped frames are put in a carousel that sits on the bottom of a large stainless steel drum. The carousel is filled to capacity with 72 frames. A switch is flipped and the frames begin to whirl at 300 revolutions per minute; centrifugal force throws the honey out of the combs. Finally the honey is poured into barrels for shipment.

    After this, approximately a quarter of the hives weakened by disease, mites, or an ageing or dead queen, will have to be replaced. To create new colonies, a healthy double hive, teeming with bees, can be separated into two boxes. One half will hold the queen and a young, already mated queen can be put in the other half, to make two hives from one. By the time the flowers bloom, the new queens will be laying eggs, filling each hive with young worker bees. The beekeeper’s family will then migrate with them to their summer location.

    Questions 13-19

    The steps below outline the movements of the migratory beekeepers as described in the passage. Compete the steps. Choose your answers from the options given below.

    Beekeeper Movements

    1. In March, beekeepers (13)………………..for migration at night when the hives are (14)……………and the bees are generally tranquil. A little (15)……………can ensure that this is the case.

    2. They transport their hives to orange groves where farmers (16)……………beekeepers for placing them on their land. Here the bees make honey.

    3. After three weeks, the supers can be taken to a warehouse where (17)……………are used to remove the wax and extract the honey from the (18)……………….

    4. After the honey collection, the old hives are rejected. Good double hives are (19)…………….and re-queened and the beekeeper transports to their summer base.

    List of words

    Smoke                Barrels                  Set-off                   Pollinate                  Combs               Full

    Chemicals          Protection             Light                      Machines                Screen                Empty

    Pay                    Charge                   Split                       Supers                     Prepare              Queens

    Questions 24-27
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 24-27 write.

    YES                              if the statement agrees with the information given
    NO                                if the statement contradicts the information given
    NOT GIVEN             if there is no information about this

    24 The Egyptians keep bees on the banks of the Nile.
    25 First attempts at migratory beekeeping in America were unsuccessful.
    26 Bees keep honey for themselves in the bottom of the hive.
    27 The honey is spun to make it liquid.

    TOURISM

    A Tourism, holidaymaking and travel are these days more significant social phenomena than most commentators have considered. On the face of it there could not be a more trivial subject for a book and indeed since social scientists have had considerable difficulty explaining weightier topics such as work or politics it might be thought that they would have great difficulties in accounting for more trivial phenomena such as holidaymaking. However there are interesting parallels with the study of deviance. This involves the investigation of bizarre and idiosyncratic social practices which happen to be defined as deviant in some societies but not necessarily in others. The assumption is that the investigation of deviance can reveal interesting and significant aspects of normal societies It could be said that a similar analysis can be applied to tourism.

    B Tourism is a leisure activity which presupposes its opposite namely regulated and organised work. It is one manifestation of how work and leisure are organised as separate and regulated spheres of social practice in modern societies Indeed acting as a tourist is one of the defining characteristics of being modern’ and the popular concept of tourism is that it is organised within particular places and occurs for regularised periods of time. Tourist relationships arise from a movement of people to and their stay in various destinations. This necessarily involves some movement that is the journey and a period of stay in a new place or places. The journey and the stay are by definition outside the normal places of residence and work and are of a short term and temporary nature and there is a clear intention to return “home within a relatively short period of time.

    C A substantial proportion of the population of modern societies engages in such tourist practices new socialised forms of provision have developed in order to cope with the mass character of the gazes of tourists as opposed to the individual character of travel. Places are chosen to be visited and be gazed upon because there is an anticipation especially through daydreaming and fantasy of intense pleasures, either on a different scale or involving different senses from those customarily encountered. Such anticipation is constructed and sustained through a variety of non-tourist practices such as films TV literature, magazines records and videos which construct and reinforce this daydreaming.

    D Tourists tend to visit features of landscape and townscape which separate them off from everyday experience. Such aspects are viewed because they are taken to be in some sense out of the ordinary. The viewing of these tourist sights often involves different forms of social patterning with a much greater sensitivity to visual elements of landscape or townscape than is normally found in everyday life. People linger over these sights in a way that they would not normally do in their home environment and the vision is objectified or captured through photographs postcards films and so on which enable the memory to be endlessly reproduced and recaptured.

    E One of the earliest dissertations on the subject of tourism is Boorstins analysis of the pseudo event (1964) where he argues that contemporary Americans cannot experience reality’ directly but thrive on “pseudo events”. Isolated from the host environment and the local people the mass tourist travels in guided groups and finds pleasure in inauthentic contrived attractions gullibly enjoying the pseudo events and disregarding the real world outside. Over time the images generated of different tourist sights come to constitute a closed self-perpetuating system of illusions which provide the tourist with the basis for selecting and evaluating potential places to visit. Such visits are made says Boorstin, within the “environmental bubble of the familiar American style hotel which insulates the tourist from the strangeness of the host environment.

    F To service the burgeoning tourist industry, an array of professionals has developed who attempt to reproduce ever-new objects for the tourist to look at. These objects or places are located in a complex and changing hierarchy. This depends upon the interplay between, on the one hand, competition between interests involved in the provision of such objects and, on the other hand changing class, gender, and generational distinctions of taste within the potential population of visitors. It has been said that to be a tourist is one of the characteristics of the “modern experience. Not to go away is like not possessing a car or a nice house. Travel is a marker of status in modern societies and is also thought to be necessary for good health. The role of the professional, therefore, is to cater for the needs and tastes of the tourists in accordance with their class and overall expectations.

    Questions 28-32
    Raiding Passage 3 has 6 paragraphs (A-F) Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below Write the appropriate numbers (i-ix) in boxes 28 32 on your answer sheet Paragraph D has been done for you as an example.
    NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them You may use any heading more than once.

    List of Headings
    I The politics of tourism
    ii The cost of tourism
    iii Justifying the study of tourism
    iv Tourism contrasted with travel
    v The essence of modern tourism
    vi Tourism versus leisure
    vii The artificiality of modern tourism
    viii The role of modern tour guides
    ix Creating an alternative to the everyday experience

    28 Paragraph A
    29 Paragraph B
    30 Paragraph C
    31 Paragraph E
    31 Paragraph F

    Questions 33-37

    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 33-37 write

    YES                              if the statement agrees with the writer
    NO                                if the statement contradicts the writer
    NOT GIVEN             if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    33 Tourism is a trivial subject.
    34 An analysis of deviance can act as a model for the analysis of tourism.
    35 Tourists usually choose to travel overseas.
    36 Tourists focus more on places they visit than those at home.
    37 Tour operators try to cheat tourists.

    Questions 38-40
    Chose one phrase (A-H) from the list of phrases to complete each key point below. Write the appropriate letters (A-H) in boxes 38-41 on your answer sheet.

    The information in the completed sentences should be an accurate summary of points made by the writer.
    NB There are more phrases A-H than sentences so you will not use them all. You may use any phrase more than once.

    38. Our concept of tourism arises from……………..
    39. The media can be used to enhance…………….
    40. People view tourist landscapes in a different way from……………..

    List of Phrases
    A local people and their environment
    B the expectations of tourists
    C the phenomena of holidaymaking
    D the distinction we make between work and leisure
    E the individual character of travel

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 471

    A Spark, A Flint; How Fire Leapt To Life

    The control of fire was the first and perhaps greatest of humanity’s steps towards a life-enhancing technology. To early man, fire was a divine gift randomly delivered in the form of lightning, forest fire or burning lava.

    Unable to make flame for themselves, the earliest people probably stored fire by keeping slow burning logs alight or by carrying charcoal in pots. How and where man learnt how to produce flame at will is unknown. It was probably a secondary invention, accidentally made during tool-making operations with wood or stone. Studies of primitive societies suggest that the earliest method of making fire was through friction. European peasants would insert a wooden drill in a round hole and rotate it briskly between their palms this process could be speeded up by wrapping a cord around the drill and pulling on each end.

    The Ancient Greeks used lenses or concave mirrors to concentrate the sun’s rays and burning glasses were also used by Mexican Aztecs and the Chinese.

    Percussion methods of fire-lighting date back to Paleolithic times, when some Stone Age tool-makers discovered that chipping flints produced sparks. The technique became more efficient after the discovery of iron, about 5000 vears ago In Arctic North America, the Eskimos produced a slow-burning spark by striking quartz against iron pyrites, a compound that contains sulphur. The Chinese lit their fires by striking porcelain with bamboo. In Europe, the combination of steel, flint and tinder remained the main method of fire-lighting until the mid 19th century.

    Fire-lighting was revolutionised by the discovery of phosphorus, isolated in 1669 by a German alchemist trying to transmute silver into gold. Impressed by the element’s combustibility, several 17th century chemists used it to manufacture fire-lighting devices, but the results were dangerously inflammable. With phosphorus costing the equivalent of several hundred pounds per ounce, the first matches were expensive.

    The quest for a practical match really began after 1781 when a group of French chemists came up with the Phosphoric Candle or Ethereal Match, a sealed glass tube containing a twist of paper tipped with phosphorus. When the tube was broken, air rushed in, causing the phosphorus to self- combust. An even more hazardous device, popular in America, was the Instantaneous Light Box — a bottle filled with sulphuric acid into which splints treated with chemicals were dipped.

    The first matches resembling those used today were made in 1827 by John Walker, an English pharmacist who borrowed the formula from a military rocket-maker called Congreve. Costing a shilling a box, Congreves were splints coated with sulphur and tipped with potassium chlorate. To light them, the user drew them quickly through folded glass paper.

    Walker never patented his invention, and three years later it was copied by a Samuel Jones, who marketed his product as Lucifers. About the same time, a French chemistry student called Charles Sauria produced the first “strike-anywhere” match by substituting white phosphorus for the potassium chlorate in the Walker formula. However, since white phosphorus is a deadly poison, from 1845 match-makers exposed to its fumes succumbed to necrosis, a disease that eats away jaw-bones. It wasn’t until 1906 that the substance was eventually banned.

    That was 62 years after a Swedish chemist called Pasch had discovered non-toxic red or amorphous phosphorus, a development exploited commercially by Pasch’s compatriot J E Lundstrom in 1885. Lundstrom’s safety matches were safe because the red phosphorus was non-toxic; it was painted on to the striking surface instead of the match tip, which contained potassium chlorate with a relatively high ignition temperature of 182 degrees centigrade.

    America lagged behind Europe in match technology and safety standards. It wasn’t until 1900 that the Diamond Match Company bought a French patent for safety matches — but the formula did not work properly in the different climatic conditions prevailing in America and it was another 11 years before scientists finally adapted the French patent for the US.

    The Americans, however, can claim several “firsts” in match technology and marketing. In 1892 the Diamond Match Company pioneered book matches. The innovation didn’t catch on until after 1896, when a brewery had the novel idea of advertising its product in match books. Today book matches are the most widely used type in the US, with 90 percent handed out free by hotels, restaurants and others.

    Other American innovations include an anti-afterglow solution to prevent the match from smoldering after it has been blown out; and the waterproof match, which lights after eight hours in water.

    Questions 1-8
    Complete the summary below. Choose your answers from the box given below and write them in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet. NB There are more words than spaces so you will not use them all you may use any of the words more than once.

    EARLY FIRE-LIGHTING METHODS
    They tried to (1)…………………….burning logs or charcoal (2)…………………… that they could create fire themselves. It is suspected that the first man-made flames were produced by (3)…………………The very first fire-lighting methods involved the creation of (4)……………………by, for example, rapidly (5)……………………. a wooden stick in a round hole. The use of (6)………………………… or persistent chipping was also widespread in Europe and among other peoples such as the Chinese and (7)…………………….. European practice of this method continued until the 1850s (8)…………………….the discovery of phosphorus some years earlier.

    Mexicansrandomrotatingdespite
    preserverealisingsunlightlacking
    heavenlypercussionchancefriction
    unawarewithoutmakeheating
    eskimossurpriseduntilsmoke

    Questions 9-15

    Look at the following notes that have been made about the matches described in Reading passage. Decide which type of match (A-H) corresponds with each description and write your answers in the boxes 9-15.

    Notes

    9. made using a les poisonous type of phosphorus

    10. identical to a previous type of match

    11. caused a deadly illness

    12. first to look like modern matches

    13. first matches used for advertising

    14. relied on an airtight glass container

    15. made with the help of an army design

    Type of matches

    A the Ethereal Match

    B the instantaneous lightbox

    C congreves

    D lucifers

    E the first strike anywhere match

    F Lundstrom’s safety match

    G book matches

    H waterproof matches

    Zoo Conservation Programmes

    One of London Zoo’s recent advertisements caused me some irritation, so patently did it distort reality. Headlined “Without zoos you might as well tell these animals to get stuffed”, it was bordered with illustrations of several endangered species and went on to extol the myth that without zoos like London Zoo these animals “will almost certainly disappear forever”. With the zoo world’s rather mediocre record on conservation, one might be forgiven for being slightly sceptical about such an advertisement.

    Zoos were originally created as places of entertainment, and their suggested involvement with conservation didn’t seriously arise until about 30 years ago, when the Zoological Society of London held the first formal international meeting on the subject. Eight years later, a series of world conferences took place, entitled “The Breeding of Endangered Species”, and from this point onwards conservation became the zoo community’s buzzword. This commitment has now been clearly defined in The World Zoo Conservation Strategy (WZGS, September 1993), which although an important and welcome document does seem to be based on an unrealistic optimism about the nature of the zoo industry.

    The WZCS estimates that there are about 10,000 zoos in the world, of which around 1,000 represent a core of quality collections capable of participating in co-ordinated conservation programmes. This is probably the document’s first failing, as I believe that 10,000 is a serious underestimate of the total number of places masquerading as zoological establishments. Of course it is difficult to get accurate data but, to put the issue into perspective, I have found that, in a year of working in Eastern Europe, I discover fresh zoos on almost a weekly basis.

    The second flaw in the reasoning of the WZCS document is the naive faith it places in its 1,000 core zoos. One would assume that the calibre of these institutions would have been carefully examined, but it appears that the criterion for inclusion on this select list might merely be that the zoo is a member of a zoo federation or association. This might be a good starting point, working on the premise that members must meet certain standards, but again the facts don’t support the theory. The greatly respected American Association of Zoological Parks and Aquariums (AAZPA) has had extremely dubious members, and in the UK the Federation of Zoological Gardens of Great Britain and Ireland has occasionally had members that have been roundly censured in the national press. These include Robin Hill Adventure Park on the Isle of Wight, which many considered the most notorious collection of animals in the country. This establishment, which for years was protected by the Isle’s local council (which viewed it as a tourist amenity), was finally closed down following a damning report by a veterinary inspector appointed under the terms of the Zoo Licensing Act 1981. As it was always a collection of dubious repute, one is obliged to reflect upon the standards that the Zoo Federation sets when granting membership. The situation is even worse in developing countries where little money is available for redevelopment and it is hard to see a way of incorporating collections into the overall scheme of the WZCS.

    Even assuming that the WZCS’s 1,000 core zoos are all of a high standard complete with scientific staff and research facilities, trained and dedicated keepers, accommodation that permits normal or natural behaviour, and a policy of co-operating fully with one another what might be the potential for conservation? Colin Tudge, author of Last Animals at the Zoo (Oxford University Press, 1992), argues that “if the world”s zoos worked together in co-operative breeding programmes, then even without further expansion they could save around 2,000 species of endangered land vertebrates’. This seems an extremely optimistic proposition from a man who must be aware of the failings and weaknesses of the zoo industry the man who, when a member of the council of London Zoo, had to persuade the zoo to devote more of its activities to conservation. Moreover, where are the facts to support such optimism?

    Today approximately 16 species might be said to have been “saved” by captive breeding programmes, although a number of these can hardly be looked upon as resounding successes. Beyond that, about a further 20 species are being seriously considered for zoo conservation programmes. Given that the international conference at London Zoo was held 30 years ago, this is pretty slow progress, and a long way off Tudge’s target of 2,000.

    Questions 16-22

    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 16-22 write

    YES                       if the statement agrees with the writer
    NO                         if the statement contradicts the writer
    NOT GIVEN      if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    16 London Zoo’s advertisements are dishonest.
    17 Zoos made an insignificant contribution to conservation up until 30 years ago.
    18 The WZCS document is not known in Eastern Europe.
    19 Zoos in the WZCS select list were carefully inspected.
    20 No one knew how the animals were being treated at Robin Hill Adventure Park.
    21 Colin Tudge was dissatisfied with the treatment of animals at London Zoo.
    22 The number of successful zoo conservation programmes is unsatisfactory.

    Questions 23-25
    Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 23-25 on your answer sheet.

    23 What were the objectives of the WZCS document?
    A to improve the calibre of zoos world-wide
    B to identify zoos suitable for conservation practice
    C to provide funds for zoos in underdeveloped countries
    D to list the endangered species of the world

    24 Why does the writer refer to Robin Hill Adventure Park?
    A to support the Isle of Wight local council
    B to criticise the 1981 Zoo Licensing Act
    C to illustrate a weakness in the WZCS document
    D to exemplify the standards in AAZPA zoos

    25 What word best describes the writer’s response to Colin Tudges’ prediction on captive breeding programmes?
    A disbelieving
    B impartial
    C prejudiced
    D accepting

    Questions 26-28
    The writer mentions a number of factors which lead him to doubt the value of the WZCS document.
    Which THREE of the following factors are mentioned?
    Write your answers (A-F) in boxes 26-28 on your answer sheet.

    List of Factors
    A the number of unregistered zoos in the world
    B the lack of money in developing countries
    C the actions of the Isle of Wight local council
    D the failure of the WZCS to examine the standards of the “core zoos”
    E the unrealistic aim of the WZCS in view of the number of species “saved” to date
    F the policies of WZCS zoo managers

    Architecture – Reaching For The Sky

    Architecture is the art and science of designing buildings and structures. A building reflects the scientific and technological achievements of the age as well as the ideas and aspirations of the designer and client. The appearance of individual buildings, however, is often controversial.

    The use of an architectural style cannot be said to start or finish on a specific date. Neither is it possible to say exactly what characterises a particular movement. But the origins of what is now generally known as modern architecture can be traced back to the social and technological changes of the 18th and 19th centuries.

    Instead of using timber, stone and traditional building techniques, architects began to explore ways of creating buildings by using the latest technology and materials such as steel, glass and concrete strengthened steel bars, known as reinforced concrete. Technological advances also helped bring about the decline of rural industries and an increase in urban populations as people moved to the towns to work in the new factories. Such rapid and uncontrolled growth helped to turn parts of cities into slums.

    By the 1920s architects throughout Europe were reacting against the conditions created by industrialisation. A new style of architecture emerged to reflect more idealistic notions for the future. It was made possible by new materials and construction techniques and was known as Modernism.

    By the 1930s many buildings emerging from this movement were designed in the International Style. This was largely characterised by the bold use of new materials and simple, geometric forms, often with white walls supported by stilt¬like pillars. These were stripped of unnecessary decoration that would detract from their primary purpose — to be used or lived in.

    Walter Gropius, Charles Jeanneret (better known as Le Corbusier) and Ludwig Mies van der Rohe were among the most influential of the many architects who contributed to the development of Modernism in the first half of the century. But the economic depression of the 1930s and the second world war (1939-45) prevented their ideas from being widely realised until the economic conditions improved and war-torn cities had to be rebuilt. By the 1950s, the International Style had developed into a universal approach to building, which standardised the appearance of new buildings in cities across the world.

    Unfortunately, this Modernist interest in geometric simplicity and function became exploited for profit. The rediscovery of quick-and-easy-to-handle reinforced concrete and an improved ability to prefabricate building sections meant that builders could meet the budgets of commissioning authorities and handle a renewed demand for development quickly and cheaply. But this led to many badly designed buildings, which discredited the original aims of Modernism.

    Influenced by Le Corbusier’s ideas on town planning, every large British city built multi-storey housing estates in the 1960s. Mass- produced, low-cost high-rises seemed to offer a solution to the problem of housing a growing inner-city population. But far from meeting human needs, the new estates often proved to be windswept deserts lacking essential social facilities and services. Many of these buildings were poorly designed and constructed and have since been demolished.

    By the 1970s, a new respect for the place of buildings within the existing townscape arose. Preserving historic buildings or keeping only their facades (or fronts) grew common.

    Architects also began to make more use of building styles and materials that were traditional to the area. The architectural style usually referred to as High Tech was also emerging. It celebrated scientific and engineering achievements by openly parading the sophisticated techniques used in construction. Such buildings are commonly made of metal and glass; examples are Stansted airport and the Lloyd’s building in London.

    Disillusionment at the failure of many of the poor imitations of Modernist architecture led to interest in various styles and ideas from the past and present. By the 1980s the coexistence of different styles of architecture in the same building became known as Post Modern. Other architects looked back to the classical tradition. The trend in architecture now favours smaller scale building design that reflects a growing public awareness of environmental issues such as energy efficiency. Like the Modernists, people today recognise that a well designed environment improves the quality of life but is not necessarily achieved by adopting one well defined style of architecture.

    Twentieth century architecture will mainly be remembered for its tall buildings. They have been made possible by the development of light steel frames and safe passenger lifts. They originated in the US over a century ago to help meet the demand for more economical use of land. As construction techniques improved, the skyscraper became a reality.

    Questions 29-35
    Complete the table below using information from Reading Passage 3. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 29-35 on your answer sheet.

    PeriodStyle of PeriodBuilding MaterialsCharacteristics
    Before 18th centuryexample: traditional(29)…………………..
    1920sintroduction of (30)………………..steel, glass and concreteexploration of latest technology
    1930s – 1950s(31)…………………….geometric forms
    1960sdecline of Modernismpre-fabricated sections(32)……………………
    1970send of Modernist eratraditional materials(33)…………………of historic buildings
    1970sbeginning of (34)………………erametal and glasssophisticated techniques paraded
    1980sPost-Modernism(35)………………………

    Questions 36-40
    Reading Passage 3 describes a number of cause and effect relationships. Match each Cause (36-40) in List A, with its Effect (A-H) in List B. Write your answers (A-H) in boxes 36 40 on your answer sheet.
    NB There are more effects in List B than you will need, so you will not use all of them. You may use any effect more than once if you wish.

    List A CausesList B Effects
    36. A rapid movement of people from rural areas to cities is triggered by technological advance
    37. Buildings become simple and functional
    38. An economic depression and the second world war hit Europe
    39. Multi-storey housing estates are built according to contemporary ideas on town planning
    40. Less land must be used for building
    A The quality of life is improved
    B Architecture reflects the age
    C A number of these have been knocked down
    D Light steel frames and lifts are developed
    E Historical buildings are preserved
    F All decoration is removed
    G Parts of cities become slums
    H Modernist ideas cannot be put into practice until the second half of the 20th century