Month: May 2024

SECTION 1 
Read the text and answer Questions 1-7

LOST DAMAGED OR DELAYED INLAND MAIL CLAIM FORM

Before completing this claim form for lost, damaged or delayed mail you should visit www.royalmail.com to find out all you need to know about our policies. Alternatively you can get the details from our ” Mail Made easy ” booklet, available at any local post office branch. When you fill in the form, make sure you complete it in full, using the checklist that we have provided to help you. If you find that you do not have the evidence required to make a claim but world like us to investigate an issue with your mail service, the easiest way to do this is by visiting our website.

LOST ITEMS
If you wish to claim compensation for items that have been damaged, you should send us original proof of posting, e.g. a Post office receipt. If claiming for the contents of a package, you also need to provide proof of value, e.g. till item reference number, receipt, bank statement etc.

DAMAGED ITEMS
When claiming compensation for lost items that have been damaged, you should send us the items themselves, if possible. However, if these are very large or unsafe to post, you may instead provide photographs as evidence of the damage. Please retain the original packaging (and damaged items, if not sent to us) as we may need to inspect them.

TIME RESTRICTIONS
We allow up to 15 working days for items to arrive, so cannot accept a claim for loss unless 15 working days or more have passed since the items was posted. Claims for lost or damaged items must be made within 12 months of the postal date. Claims for delayed item must be submitted within 3 months of the date they were posted if the claim is made by the sender, or within 1 month of receipt if the claim is made by the recipient of the item.

Questions 1-7
Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND /OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer. Write your answer in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet

Claiming compensation from the Royal Mail for lost,
damaged or delayed mail

Before filling the form
. go online to learn about their policies or get the (1) ……………………………… that contains the relevant information.
When filling in the form
. refer to the (2) ………………….. to ensure all the relevant sections are completed
(you can use their (3) …………………………. to request action if you don’t have enough proof to make a claim)
when claiming compensation for a lost item
. include proof that you have posted the item
. in the case of a package include something ( e.g. bank statement ) to prove its (4)……………………..
When claiming for the cost of a damaged item, include
. either the actual item or (5)………………………. showing the damage to the item ( you should keep the (6)……………. that was used when the item was originally sent:)
When to claim
. Lost or damaged items: within 12 months of posting the claim

Delayed items: if you are the (7)………………… , you must claim within three months of posting the package

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14

DAYS OUT FOR THE FAMILY

A. Carrickfergus castle
Considered to be Northern Ireland’s oldest castle, Carrickfergus has seen more than 800 years of military occupation since its foundations were laid, During summer, traditional feasts are served, and fairs and craft markets provide an extra attraction. The history of the castle is explained and brought to life with exhibits and guided tours.

B. Glamis Castle
Shakespeare used Glamis as the background when he wrote one of his best-known plays, Macbeth and the Queen Mother Grew up here. It is also rumoured to have a secret chamber in the castle. There are many ghost tales associated with this castle, which will capture the imagination of younger visitors.

C Tintagel Castle
High up on the cliff tops, Tintagel Castle is the legendary home of king Arthur. The visitors guide on sale at the reception is well worth of the money, as it can help you to visualise what it would have been like hundreds of years ago. you can park in the village car park and walk the half mile to the castle , or take the shuttle bus.

D Pickering Castle
Built by William the conqueror, this is a great castle for children to run around in. There are lots of special events too, including a chance to come along and see some plays which are put on during the summer months. Nearby Helmsley Castle is also worth a visit.

E Stokesay Castle
A range of workshops, including music and combat are held here during the summer, children of all ages will enjoy learning at these and there is a guided tour which has been especially designed with younger visitors in mind, some of them may find the dungeon quit scary though.

F Warwick Castle
This castle is over 1,000 years old and has towers and a moat, and is just as you might imagine a castle to be. children can even get to try on armour to see how heavy it is, At Christmas, a special market id held here – a great opportunity to look for presents and Christmas treats

Questions 8-14
Look at the description of six castles A-F. For which castle are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter A-F , in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet
NB you may use any letter more than once

8. At certain times of the year you can eat special meals here.
9. Children can get dressed up here
10. There is another castle in the same area.
11. A lot of stories are told about this place.
12. Parts of the castle may be frightening for some children.
13. Play are performed here during part of the year.
14. A guided tour is offered which is particularly suitable for children.

SECTION 2 
Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

North Sydney Council

North Sydney Council recognises the importance of balancing the demands of your work with the demands of your personal life.

The standard working Week for Full—time council employees is 35 hours For ‘Indoor Staff’ and 38 hours for ‘Outdoor Staff’, worked over 5 days. Indoor staff are able to access the benefit of flexi time. A number of these occasionally work from home where appropriate – an example of an initiative that can provide flexibility at certain stages of an employee’s career.

Staff are entitled to 3 weeks per annum sick or carer’s leave. In addition to the normal parental leave/maternity leave provisions, women who have completed 12 months of continuous service can access a total of 9 Weeks’ maternity leave that can be taken either as 9 weeks at full pay or as 18 weeks at half pay.

The annual entitlement to paid holidays is 20 days, pro-rata for part-time. After 5 years of continuous service, employees are entitled to 6.5 weeks Long Service Leave (LSL).

Our Financial Advice Program is conducted in partnership with FuturePlus Financial Services. We provide the services of advisors specialising in pensions, and all our employees are given the opportunity to meet them as part of the induction process.

The Employee Assistance Program (EAP) is a counselling service provided at no charge to all employees and their families. The service is available by phone or face to face. The EAP provides registered psychologists for employees wishing to discuss work or non-work matters confidentially. Employees can also access information, such as articles and self assessments, online via eapdirect.

Questions 15-20
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. Which employees may choose not to work regular hours?
16. How much time off each year is an employee able to take to look after a relative?
17. What kind of leave involves a choice between two alternative periods of time?
18. How long must employees have worked without a break before being entitled to additional holidays?
19. What does the Financial Advice Program advise staff about?
20. What kind of professional people can employees see if they want to talk about their job in private?

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

Registering As An Apprentice

If you are keen to acquire new skills and learn best through ‘hands-on’ experiences, then registered apprenticeship is a good option for you. These programmes always involve work experience as well as classroom instruction and produce Workers skilled in the occupation. There is a written contract to be signed by the apprentice and the employer, which acknowledges their joint commitment to the training process. This contract is approved and registered by the New York State Department of Labor.

How Do I Qualify?
First of all you must meet the employer’s minimum qualifications. This could be a high school diploma or the equivalent. However, some employers will ask for specific high school courses, prior experience, or occupationally related courses.

What Is My Training Like?
Training for each apprenticeable occupation is conducted according to a training outline that has been standardized for the occupation. This assures that apprentices across the state have the same sets of basic competencies and skills. At the successful completion of each registered apprenticeship, the Department of Labor awards the apprentice a ‘Certificate of Completion’, which is a nationally recognized credential.

The length of time it takes you to learn the skills of the occupation depends upon two things: the standard training outline and your aptitude. Each trade has a definite term of training, listed in years As a registered apprentice, you may progress according to that established training term, or you may become skilled more quickly or more slowly. It may even be that you start your apprenticeship with credit toward the goal. Your employer may choose to award you this for previous working experience in the occupation, or for prior coursework related to the occupation.

As an apprentice, you are part of the employer’s workforce. You work full-time for the employer. A registered apprentice works under the guidance of more experienced craft workers called journey workers. From them, you learn the skills of die trade. As you master each skill, you become a more productive employee.

At the same time as you are working, you are also required to attend classes (usually in the evenings). The location and times of these are set up by the local education agent in consultation with the employer. Your progress is tracked by you, your employer and your education provider.

Successful completion of all requirements results in your certificate.

Questions 21-27
Complete the sentences below
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 21—27 on your answer sheet.

21. You and your employer will need to sign a …………………………………….before training starts.
22. Employers may have different minimum requirements regarding applicants’……………………………and experience.
23. Each industry has its own standardised …………………………………………. of training.
24. You may be given credit for work experience or if you have done relevant……………………………………….
25. You will be considered as a member of the ……………………………………… during the apprenticeship.
26. While at work, apprentices are supervised by what are known as…………………………………………
27. Employers are consulted when deciding the……………………………….. and schedule for lessons.

SECTION 3 
Read the text below and answer Questions 28-34.

Crossing the Humber estuary

A For thousands of years, the Humber — an estuary formed where two major rivers, the Trent and the Ouse, meet – has been an obstacle to communications along the east coast of England, between the counties of Yorkshire to the north and Lincolnshire to the south. Before the arrival of the railways in the 19th century, water transportation was the most efficient means of moving heavy or bulk freight, and the Humber, situated at the heart of the waterway system associated with the two major rivers, was one of the chief highways of England. its traffic brought prosperity to the settlements on its banks, particularly the city of Hull on its north bank, but the river itself tended to cut them off from some of their closest neighbours, as well as obstructing the progress of travellers moving north or south.

B To cater for these local and, as time progressed, wider needs, ferries were provided across many of the streams flowing into the Humber, and in 1315, a ferry was established across the Humber itself between Hull and Lincolnshire. By 1800, this ferry had become fully integrated into the overland transport system, but the changes associated with the industrial revolution were soon to threaten its position. Increased traffic encouraged speculators to establish rival ferries between Hull and Lincolnshire, notably a service between Hull and New Holland which opened in 1826. This crossing was considerably shorter than on the existing Hull to Barton service, which closed in 1851, unable to cope with the increased competition from the rival service.

The New Holland ferry service then grew into a major link between the north and south banks of the Humber, carrying passengers, and cattle and goods bound for Hull Market. In 1968, there was briefly a ferry service from Grimsby to Hull involving hovercrafts. This did not last long as the hovercrafts could not cope with the demands of the River Humber. The ferry service between Hull and New Holland ended with the opening of the Humber Bridge in 1981.

C The bridge was the outcome of over 100 years of campaigning by local interests for the construction of a bridge or tunnel across the estuary. The first major crossing proposal was a tunnel scheme in 1872. This scheme was promoted by Hull merchants and businesses dissatisfied with the serviice provided by the New Holland ferry crossing. Over the next 100 years, a variety of proposals were put forward in an effort to bridge the Humber. In 1928, a plan was drawn up by Hull City Council to build a multi-span bridge four miles west of Hull. However, the scheme was dropped after being hit by the financial woes of the Great Depression of the late 1920s and early 1930s.

D Government approval for the construction of a suspension bridge was finally granted in 1959, although it was not until 1973 that work finally began. The reasons why a suspension bridge was chosen were twofold. Firstly, the Humber has a shitting bed, and the navigable channel along which a craft can travel is always changing; a suspension bridge with no support piers in mid-stream would not obstruct the estuary. Secondly, because of the geology and topography of the area, the cost of constructing a tunnel would have been excessive.

E Work on the construction proceeded for eight years, during which time many thousands of tonnes of steel and concrete were used and upwards of one thousand workers and staff were employed at times of peak activity. The designers had been responsible for two other major suspension bridges in Britain but, with a total span of 2,220 m, or almost a mile and a half, the Humber was going to be the longest suspension bridge in the world. Nowadays designers have computers, but back then everything was done with slide rules and calculators. The towers were concrete rather than the usual steel, since concrete was cheaper and would blend in better with the setting. The bridge was designed to stand for 120 years.

F Malcolm Stockwell, the bridgemaster, recalls that when the bridge first opened, there wasn’t a great deal of interest in it. Then children started visiting, and he remembers their astonishment at seeing the control room and all the lights. People who lived in towns on opposite banks a mile apart started crossing the river — a journey that previously might as well have been to the moon. The bridge brought them together. .

G The bridge opened up, both socially and economically, two previously remote and insular areas of England, and the improvement in communication enabled the area to realise its potential in commercial, industrial and tourist development. The bridge has saved many millions of vehicle miles and many valuable hours of drivers’ and passengers’ time – an important factor not only for the drivers and operators of commercial vehicles, but also for tourists and holidaymakers who would have had to travel around the estuary to reach destinations in the region. ln the words of Malcolm Stockwell, ‘Although it can’t beat the Golden Gate Bridge in San Francisco for setting, it far outstrips it for sheer elegance and as a piece of engineering.’

Questions 28-34
The text on pages 46-47 has seven sections, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-x, in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings
i Why the ferry crossing has always been difficult
ii Building the bridge
iii An advantage of the design for the bridge
iv The growing popularity of the bridge
v Opposition to building a bridge
vi Benefits and disadvantages the Humber has brought
vii Proposed alternatives to ferry services
viii How the bridge has contributed to the region’s growth
ix Rising demand for river transport

28 Section A
29 Section B
30 Section C
31 Section D
32 Section E
33 Section F
34 Section G

Questions 35-40
Complete the summary below
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.

Crossing the Humber

The first ferry across the Humber started operating in 1315, and by 1800, this service had been 35…………………with other forms of transport. The mid-19th century saw greater 36…………………………… in the provision of services. in 1968, an attempt to establish a service across the river using 37……………………… failed.

The Humber Bridge is a suspension bridge because the channel that ships travel along moves, and 38………………supporting a bridge would obstruct it. A bridge rather than a 39………………….was chosen on the grounds of cost. This was also one reason why 40 ……………… was used for the towers.

SECTION 1 
Read the text below and answer Questions 1-8

A Bath International Music Festival
From electronics to folk, jazz and classical, this festival is renowned for bringing world-class musicians to this historical city. Starting with a great night of free music, ‘Party in the city’ this year is going to be no exception.

B The Great Escape
Often referred to as Europe’s leading festival for new music, more than 300 bands will perform to around 10,000 people in 30-plus venues, meaning you are sure to see the next big thing in music.

C Springwatch Festival
The much loved television series Springwatch celebrates the countryside as it does every year, with sheep herding, wood carving demonstrations, insect hunts and more activities, accompanied by live music and a great farmers’ market, offering all sorts of mouth-watering produce.

D Wychwood Music Festival
Right nominated for the best family festival award every year since it began in 2005, this festival offers a combination of different music genres- many featuring artists from around the Wychwood area – and comedy, alongside a selection of outdoor cafes serving amazing world foods.

E Love Food Festival
Bringing together a selection of the finest produce, this festival aims to educate visitors about how food should be produced and where it should come from, through sampling a range of tasty treats, cooked on site

F The 3 Wishes Faery Festival
The UK’s most magical, this is a three-day festival of folk art, live music and fashion shows set in the beautiful wild surroundings of Bodmin Moor. If you don’t fancy taking a tent, some local residents usually offer to put visitors up.

G Bath International Dance Festival
Featuring demonstrations from world champion dancers and star from the TV series Strictly Come Dancing, the festival promises toe tapping action, including a world record attempt, where everyone is invited to join in.

Questions 1-8
Look at the seven advertisements for festivals in the UK, A-G, on above page
for which festival are the following statements true? Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.
NB you may use any letter more than once.
1. Visitor can help to make one particular event a success at this festival.
2. People can listen to local musicians here.
3. At this festival, people can listen to music in lots of different places
4. It is not necessary to pay for one of the events here.
5. It is possible to stay overnight at this festival.
6. Children will enjoy this festival.
7. Visitors can get advice here.
8. People can watch craftspeople at work here.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14

BIG ROCK CLIMBING CENTRE

Big Rock Climbing Center is modern, friendly professionally run centre offering over 1,200 square metres of fantastic indoor climbing. We use trained and experienced instructors to give you the opportunity to learn and develop climbing skills, keep fit and have fun. Master our 11 m-high climbing walls using a rope harness, for an unbeatable sense of achievement. Or experience the thrills of climbing without any harness in our special low-level arena, which has foam mats on the floor is cushion any fall safety.

Who is Big Rock for?
Almost anyone can enjoy Big Rock. Previous climbing experience and specialist equipment are not required. You can come on your own or with friends and family comes as a fun alternative to the gym or for a special day out with the kids. If you are visiting the friends or family but not climbing, or just fancy coming to look, please feel free to relax in our excellent cafe overlooking the climbing areas.

Mobile Climbing Wall
Available on a day hire basis at any location, the big Rock mobile Climbing Wall is the perfect way to enhance any show festival or event. The mobile wall can be used indoors or outdoors and features four unique 7.3 m-high climbing faces designed to allow four people to climb simultaneously. Quick to set up and pack up, the mobile climbing wall is staffed by qualified and experienced climbing instructors, providing the opportunity to climb the wall in a controlled and safe environment. when considering what to wear, we have found that trousers and t-shirts are ideal. We will however, ask people to remove scarves. Most flat shoes are suitable as long as they are enclosed and support the foot. The mobile wall is very adaptable and can be operated in light rain and winds up to 50 kph. There are however, particular measures that we take in such conditions.

What about hiring the mobile climbing wall for my school or college?
As climbing is different from the usual team games practiced at schools, we have found that some students who don’t usually like participating in sports are willing to have a go on the mobile climbing wall. If you are connected that some children may not want to take part because they feel nervous if they climb, then please be assured that our instructors will support then up to a level which they are comfortable with. They will still benefit greatly from the experience.

Questions 9-14
Do the following statement agree with the information given in the text
In boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet write

TRUE                                if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                              if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN                   if there is no information on this

9. When climbing at the big Rock Centre, it is compulsory to be attached by a rope.
10. People who just want to watch the climbing can enter the Centre without paying.
11. People can arrange to have a climbing session in their own garden if they wish.
12. A certain item of clothing is forbidden for participants.
13. The mobile Climbing wall can only be used in dry, calm weather.
14. It is inadvisable for children who are afraid of heights to use the mobile climbing Wall.

SECTION 2

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Marketing advice for new businesses

If you’re setting up your own business, here’s some advice on getting customers.

Know where your customers look

Your customers aren’t necessarily where you think they are. So if you‘re advertising where they’re just not looking, it’s wasted money. That’s why it pays to do a bit of research. Every time someone contacts your company, ask them where they found out about you. And act on this information so you’re advertising in the right places.

Always think like a customer
What makes your customers tick? Find out, and you’re halfway to saying the right things in your advertising. So take the time to ask them. A simple phone or email survey of your own customers, politely asking why they use you, what they really like and what they don’t, is invaluable.

Make sure customers know you’re there

If a customer can‘t see you, they can‘t buy from you. There are loads of opportunities to promote your business — print, press, direct mail, telemarketing, email and the internet — and using a mix of these increases your chances of being seen (and remembered).

Ignore your customers and they’ll go away

It sounds obvious, but companies who talk to their customers have much better retention rates than those that don’t, so it’s worth staying in touch. Capture your customers’ email addresses upfront. Follow up a transaction to check they’re happy with the service and, if possible, send them updates that are helpful, informative and relevant.

Know what works (and what doesn’t)

Do what the professionals do, and measure all your advertising. That’ll tell you what you’re doing right — and where there’s room for improvement. You never know, it might just throw up some information that could change your business for the better.

Remember word-of-mouth: the best advertising there is

A recent survey found that consumers are 50% more likely to be influenced by word-of-mouth recommendations than by TV or radio ads. So your reputation is your greatest asset If your current customers are impressed with your company, they’ll be more inclined to recommend you to others. On the flip side, if they experience bad service they probably won’t complain to you — but you can be sure they will to their friends.

Questions 15-20
Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 15—20 on your answer sheet.

15. Some………………………………………………..will help you to discover the most effective places to advertise.
16. A ……………………………………………… of your customers will show you how they feel about your company.
17. A …………………………of forms of advertising will make it more likely that potential customers will find out about you.
18. lf you can, provide customers with useful………………………………………………about your business.
19. Measuring the effects of your advertising can give you …………………………………. that will improve your business.
20. Success in finding new customers largely depends on your ………………………………………….

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

Working Time Regulations for Mobile Workers

These rules apply to drivers and crew of heavy goods vehicles or public service vehicles. The rules limit the amount of time that can be worked.

Those defined in the Regulations as being self-employed are currently not covered by the Regulations.

What are the limits?
• An average of 48 hours’ work per week.
• In any single week up to 60 hours can be worked so long as the 48-hour average is maintained.
• Night work is limited to 10 hours per night, unless there is a workforce agreement to work longer.
• Statutory annual leave and any sick leave and/or maternity/paternity leave counts as working time.

What counts as work?
In general, any activities performed in connection with the transport operation count as work, for example, driving, loading/unloading and those checks that are the responsibility of drivers, such as checking lights, brakes, etc. There are a number of periods of time that do not count as work, for example, travelling between home and your normal place of work, lunch or other breaks and periods of availability.

Periods of availability are periods of time during which the mobile worker is not required to remain at their workstation but is required to be available for work, the foreseeable duration of which is known about in advance, for example:
• Delays at a distribution centre.
• Reporting for work then being informed that no duties are to be undertaken for a specified period.
• Accompanying a vehicle being transported, for example by train.
A period of availability can be taken at the workstation. Providing the worker has a reasonable amount of freedom (e.g. they can read and relax) for a known duration. this could satisfy the requirements of a period of availability.

Situations when a period of time should not be recorded as a period of availability:
• Hold-ups due to congestion, because the driver would be stopping and starting the vehicle.
• Frequently moving up within a queue (e.g. waiting within a queue to load or unload) every other minute.

Questions 21—27
Complete the notes below
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

Working Time Regulations for Mobile Workers

These apply to people working on lorries, buses, etc.
They don‘t apply to (21)…………………….……………………………workers.
Maximum working hours: 60 hours a week, provided the (22) ……………………………..is no more than 48 hours.
Night work can be more than 10 hours with the (23) ……………………………..of the workers.
Work includes driving, loading and unloading, and carrying out various (24)…………………………………… of the vehicle.

Periods of availability include:
going on a (25)……………………………….or other form of transport with a vehicle
a period at the workstation when the driver has some (26) ………………….………………might count as a period of availability

Periods of availability exclude:
time spent stopping and starting the vehicle when (27) ………………………………causes delays being in a queue, e.g. in order to load or unload.

SECTION 3
Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

A brief history of automata

An automaton is a machine, usually made to resemble a person or animal, that operates on its own, once it has been started. Although few are constructed nowadays, they have a history stretching back well over two thousand years. Several myths show that the ancient Greeks were interested in the creation of automata. In one, Hephaestus, the god of all mechanical arts, was reputed to have made two female statues of pure gold which assisted him and accompanied him wherever he went. As well as giving automata a place in mythology, the Greeks almost certainly created some. These were probably activated by levers and powered by human action, although there are descriptions of steam and water being used as sources of power. Automata were sometimes intended as toys, or as tools for demonstrating basic scientific principles.

Other ancient cultures, too, seem to have developed automata. In Egypt, Ctesibius experimented with air pressure and pneumatic principles. One of his creations was a singing blackbird powered by water. A Chinese text of the third century BC describes a life-size, human-shaped figure that could walk rapidly, move its head up and down, sing and wink its eye.

Much later, Arab engineers of the ninth and thirteenth centuries wrote detailed treatises on how to build programmable musical fountains, mechanical servants, and elaborate clocks. A ninth-century ruler in Baghdad had a silver and gold tree with metal birds that sang. The art of creating automata developed considerably during the fifteenth century, linked with improvements in clock making: the mechanisms of automata and clocks had a great deal in common. Some truly remarkable automata were produced at this time. Muller was reputed to have made an artificial eagle which flew to greet the Emperor on his entry into Nuremberg, Germany, in 1470, then returned to perch on top of a city gate and, by stretching its wings and bowing, saluted the emperor on his arrival. Leonardo da Vinci made a lion in honour of the king of France, which advanced towards him, stopped, opened its chest with a claw and pointed to the French coat of arms.

Automata were normally very expensive toys for the very rich. They were made for royal or aristocratic patrons, to be viewed only by themselves and selected guests – who were expected to be impressed by their wealth. Automata were also created for public show, however, and many appeared on clock towers, such as me one in Bern, Switzerland, built in 1530.

During the eighteenth century, some watchmakers made automata to contribute to the progress of medicine and the natural sciences, particularly to investigate the mechanical laws governing the structure and movement of living things. Many of their creations simulated almost perfectly the complex structure of human beings and animals. Maillardet made extensive use of gearing and cogs to produce automata of horses, worked by turning a handle. Vaucanson produced a duck made of gilded copper which ate, drank and quacked like a real duck. He also made a life-size Female flute player. Air passes through the complex mechanism, causing the lips and fingers of the player to move naturally on the flute, opening and closing holes on it. This automaton had a repertoire of twelve tunes.

In another well—known piece, Merlin’s silver swan made in 1773, the swan sits in a stream consisting of glass rods where small silver fish are swimming. When the clockwork is wound, a music box plays and the glass rods rotate, giving the impression of a flowing stream. The swan turns its head from side to side. lt soon notices the fish and bends down to catch and. eat one, then raises its head to the upright position. The mechanism still works.

One of the most skilled makers of automata was the Swiss watchmaker jaquet-Droz. He produced three automata which, even today, are considered wonders of science and mechanical engineering. One of these, The Writer, simulates a boy sitting at a desk, dipping his pen into the ink and writing perfectly legibly.

Another Stunning creation of the eighteenth century was the Mechanical Theatre in the grounds of Austria’s Hellbrunn Palace, home of the Archbishop of Salzburg. Designed by the miner Rosenegger, and completed in 1752, this depicts the nobility’s idea of a perfect society, with every class in its proper place. The figures inside a palace depict eighteenth- century court life, while industrious activity is carried on in and around this building. A total of 141 mobile and 52 immobile little figures demonstrate all manner of trades of the period: building workers bring materials to the foreman, who drinks; butchers slaughter an ox; a barber shaves a man. A dancing bear performs, guards march past the palace, a farmer pushes an old woman in a wheelbarrow over the road. The theatre shows great skill in clock making and water technology, consisting of hidden waterwheels, copper wiring and cogwheels.

During the nineteenth century, mass production techniques meant that automata could be made cheaply and easily, and they became toys for children rather than an expensive adult amusement. Between 1860 and 1910, small family businesses in Paris made thousands of clockwork automata and mechanical singing birds and exported them around the world. However, the twentieth century saw traditional forms of automata fall out of favour.

Questions 28-30
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.

Automata and the ancient Greeks

The ancient Greeks had a number of 28 ……………………………………concerning automate. According to one, the god Hephaestus created two assistants made of gold. The Greeks probably also created real automata; it seems most likely that the mechanism which controlled them consisted of 29 …………………………which were worked by human operators. Some automate were designed to be 30……………………………………… with an educational purpose.

Questions 31-35
Look at the following descriptions (Questions 31-35) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct person, A-G
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet

List of Descriptions
31 created an automaton that represented a bird in water interacting with its surroundings
32 created an automaton that performed on a musical instrument
33 produced documents about how to create automata
34 created automata which required a human being to operate the mechanism
35 used air and water power

List of People
A Ctesibius
B Arab engineers
C da Vinci
D Maillardet
E Vaucanson
F Merlin
G Jaquet-Droz

Questions 36-40
Complete the sentences below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 36~40 on your answer sheet.

36 The Mechanical Theatre shows court life inside a ……………………
37 In the Mechanical Theatre, building workers, butchers and a barber represent various ………………… of the time.
38 ………….. provides the power that operates the Mechanical Theatre.
39 New ………. that developed in the nineteenth century reduced the cost of the production of automate.
40 During the nineteenth century, most automata were intended for use by………………

The History of Glass

From our earliest origins, man has been making use of glass. Historians have discovered that a type of natural glass – obsidian – formed in places such as the mouth of a volcano as a result of the intense heat of an eruption melting sand – was first used as tips for spears. Archaeologists have even found evidence of man-made glass which dates back to 4000 BC; this took the form of glazes used for coating stone beads. It was not until 1500 BC, however, that the first hollow glass container was made by covering a sand core with a layer of molten glass.

Glass blowing became the most common way to make glass containers from the first century BC. The glass made during this time was highly coloured due to the impurities of the raw material. In the first century AD, methods of creating colourless glass were developed, which was then tinted by the addition of colouring materials. The secret of glass making was taken across Europe by the Romans during this century. However, they guarded the skills and technology required to make glass very closely, and it was not until their empire collapsed in 476 AD that glass- making knowledge became widespread throughout Europe and the Middle East. From the 10th century onwards, the Venetians gained a reputation for technical skill and artistic ability in the making of glass bottles, and many of the city’s craftsmen left Italy to set up glassworks throughout Europe.

A major milestone in the history of glass occurred with the invention of lead crystal glass by the English glass manufacturer George Ravenscroft (1632 – 1683). He attempted to counter the effect of clouding that sometimes occurred in blown glass by introducing lead to the raw materials used in the process. The new glass he created was softer and easier to decorate, and had a higher refractive index, adding to its brilliance and beauty, and it proved invaluable to the optical industry. It is thanks to Ravenscroft’s invention that optical lenses, astronomical telescopes, microscopes and the like became possible.

In Britain, the modem glass industry only really started to develop after the repeal of the Excise Act in 1845. Before that time, heavy taxes had been placed on the amount of glass melted in a glasshouse, and were levied continuously from 1745 to 1845. Joseph Paxton’s Crystal Palace at London’s Great Exhibition of 1851 marked the beginning of glass as a material used in the building industry. This revolutionary new building encouraged the use of glass in public, domestic and horticultural architecture. Glass manufacturing techniques also improved with the advancement of science and the development of better technology.

From 1887 onwards, glass making developed from traditional mouth-blowing to a semi-automatic process, after factory- owner HM Ashley introduced a machine capable of producing 200 bottles per hour in Castleford, Yorkshire, England – more than three times quicker than any previous production method. Then in 1907, the first fully automated machine was developed in the USA by Michael Owens – founder of the Owens Bottle Machine Company (later the major manufacturers Owens- Illinois) – and installed in its factory. Owens’ invention could produce an impressive 2,500 bottles per hour Other developments followed rapidly, but it | was not until the First World War when Britain became cut off from essential glass suppliers, that glass became part of the scientific sector. Previous to this, glass had been seen as a craft rather than a precise science.

Today, glass making is big business. It has become a modem, hi-tech industry operating in a fiercely competitive global market where quality, design and service levels are critical to maintaining market share. Modem glass plants are capable of making millions of glass containers a day in many different colours, with green, brown and clear remaining the most popular. Few of us can imagine modem life without glass. It features in almost every aspect of our lives – in our homes, our cars and whenever we sit down to eat or drink. Glass packaging is used for many products, many beverages are sold in glass, as are numerous foodstuffs, as well as medicines and cosmetics.

Glass is an ideal material for recycling, and with growing consumer concern for green issues, glass bottles and jars are becoming ever more popular. Glass recycling is good news for the environment. It saves used glass containers being sent to landfill. As less energy is needed to melt recycled glass than to melt down raw materials, this also saves fuel and production costs. Recycling also reduces the need for raw materials to be quarried, thus saving precious resources.

Questions 1-8
Complete the notes below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage.

The History of Glass
• Early humans used a material called (1)……………………………..to make the sharp points of their (2)…………………..
• 4000 BC: (3)……………………….made of stone were covered in a coating of man made glass
• First century BC: glass was colored because of the (4)…………………….in the material
• Until 476 AD: only the (5)……………………………knew how to make glass
• From 10th century: Venetians became famous for making bottles out of glass
• 17th century: George Ravenscroft developed a process using (6)………………….to avoid the occurrence of (7)……………………………in blown glass
• Mid 19th century: British glass production developed after changes to laws concerning (8)……………………

Questions 9-13
In boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet write

TRUE                          if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                        if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

9. In 1887, HM Ashley has the fastest bottle producing machine that existed at the time.
10. Micheal Owens was hired by a large US company to design a fully automated bottle manufacturing machine for them.
11. Nowadays, most glass is produced by large international manufacturers.
12. Concern for the environment is leading to an increased demand for glass containers.
13. It is more expensive to produce recycle glass than to manufacture new glass.

Bring back the big cats

It’s time to start returning vanished native animals to Britain, says John Vesty There is a poem, written around 598 AD, which describes hunting a mystery animal called a llewyn. But what was it? Nothing seemed to fit, until 2006, when an animal bone, dating from around the same period, was found in the Kinsey Cave in northern England. Until this discovery, the lynx – a large spotted cat with tassel led ears – was presumed to have died out in Britain at least 6,000 years ago, before the inhabitants of these islands took up farming. But the 2006 find, together with three others in Yorkshire and Scotland, is compelling evidence that the lynx and the mysterious llewyn were in fact one and the same animal. If this is so, it would bring forward the tassel-eared cat’s estimated extinction date by roughly 5,000 years.

However, this is not quite the last glimpse of the animal in British culture. A 9th- century stone cross from the Isle of Eigg shows, alongside the deer, boar and aurochs pursued by a mounted hunter, a speckled cat with tasselled ears. Were it not for the animal’s backside having worn away with time, we could have been certain, as the lynx’s stubby tail is unmistakable. But even without this key feature, it’s hard to see what else the creature could have been. The lynx is now becoming the totemic animal of a movement that is transforming British environmentalism: rewilding.

Rewilding means the mass restoration of damaged ecosystems. It involves letting trees return to places that have been denuded, allowing parts of the seabed to recover from trawling and dredging, permitting rivers to flow freely again. Above all, it means bringing back missing species. One of the most striking findings of modern ecology is that ecosystems without large predators behave in completely different ways from those that retain them Some of them drive dynamic processes that resonate through the whole food chain, creating niches for hundreds of species that might otherwise struggle to survive. The killers turn out to be bringers of life.

Such findings present a big challenge to British conservation, which has often selected arbitrary assemblages of plants and animals and sought, at great effort and expense, to prevent them from changing. It has tried to preserve the living world as if it were a jar of pickles, letting nothing in and nothing out, keeping nature in a state of arrested development. But ecosystems are not merely collections of species; they are also the dynamic and ever-shifting relationships between them. And this dynamism often depends on large predators.

At sea the potential is even greater: by protecting large areas from commercial fishing, we could once more see what 18th-century literature describes: vast shoals of fish being chased by fin and sperm whales, within sight of the English shore. This policy would also greatly boost catches in the surrounding seas; the fishing industry’s insistence on scouring every inch of seabed, leaving no breeding reserves, could not be more damaging to its own interests.

Rewilding is a rare example of an environmental movement in which campaigners articulate what they are for rather than only what they are against. One of the reasons why the enthusiasm for rewilding is spreading so quickly in Britain is that it helps to create a more inspiring vision than the green movement’s usual promise of ‘Follow us and the world will be slightly less awful than it would otherwise have been.

The lynx presents no threat to human beings: there is no known instance of one preying on people. It is a specialist predator of roe deer, a species that has exploded in Britain in recent decades, holding back, by intensive browsing, attempts to re-establish forests. It will also winkle out sika deer: an exotic species that is almost impossible for human beings to control, as it hides in impenetrable plantations of young trees. The attempt to reintroduce this predator marries well with the aim of bringing forests back to parts of our bare and barren uplands. The lynx requires deep cover, and as such presents little risk to sheep and other livestock, which are supposed, as a condition of farm subsidies, to be kept out of the woods.

On a recent trip to the Cairngorm Mountains, I heard several conservationists suggest that the lynx could be reintroduced there within 20 years. If trees return to the bare hills elsewhere in Britain, the big cats could soon follow. There is nothing extraordinary about these proposals, seen from the perspective of anywhere else in Europe. The lynx has now been reintroduced to the Jura Mountains, the Alps, the Vosges in eastern France and the Harz mountains in Germany, and has re-established itself in many more places. The European population has tripled since 1970 to roughly 10,000. As with wolves, bears, beavers, boar, bison, moose and many other species, the lynx has been able to spread as farming has, left the hills and people discover that it is more lucrative to protect charismatic wildlife than to hunt it, as tourists will pay for the chance to see it. Large-scale rewilding is happening almost everywhere – except Britain.

Here, attitudes are just beginning to change. Conservationists are starting to accept that the old preservation-jar model is failing, even on its own terms. Already, projects such as Trees for Life in the Highlands provide a hint of what might be coming. An organisation is being set up that will seek to catalyse the rewilding of land and sea across Britain, its aim being to reintroduce that rarest of species to British ecosystems: hope.

Questions 14-18
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

14. What did the 2006 discovery of the animal bone reveal about the lynx?
A. its physical appearance was very distinctive
B. its extinction was linked to the spread of farming
C. it vanished from Britain several thousand years ago
D. it survived in Britain longer than was previously thought

15. What point does the writer make about large predators in the third paragraph?
A. their presence can increase biodiversity
B. they may cause damage to local ecosystems
C. their behavior can alter according to the environment
D. they should be reintroduced only to areas where they were native

16. What does the write suggest about British conservation in the fourth paragraph?
A. it has failed to achieve its aims
B. it is beginning to change direction
C. it has taken a misguided approach
D. it has focused on the most widespread species

17. Protecting large areas of the sea from commercial fishing would result in
A. practical benefits for the fishing industry
B. some short term losses to the fishing industry
C. widespread opposition from the fishing industry
D. certain changes to techniques within the fishing industry

18. According to the author, what distinguishes rewilding from other environmental campaigns?
A. its objective is more achievable
B. its supporters are more articulate
C. its positive message is more appealing
D. it is based on sounder scientific principles

Questions 19-22
Complete the summary using the list of words and phrases A-F below.

Reintroducing the lynx to Britain
There would be many advantages to reintroducing the lynx to Britain. While there is no evidence that the lynx has ever put (19)………………………….in danger, it would reduce the numbers of certain (20)………………………..whose populations have increased enormously in recent decades. It would present only a minimal threat to (21)……………………….provided these were kept away from lynx habitats. Furthermore, the reintroduction programme would also like efficiently with initiatives to return native (22)……………………….to certain areas of the country.

A. Trees
B. Endangered species
C. Hillsides
D. Wild animals
E. Humans
F. Farm animals

Questions 23-26
In boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet, write

YES                            if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO                             if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN           if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

23. Britain could become the first European country to reintroduce the lynx.
24. The large growth in the European lynx population since 1970 has exceeded conservationists’ expectations.
25. Changes in agricultural practices have extended the habitat of the lynx in Europe.
26. It has become apparent that species reintroduction has commercial advantages.

UK companies need more effective boards of directors

A After a number of serious failures of governance (that is, how they are managed at the highest level), companies in Britain, as well as elsewhere, should consider radical changes to their directors’ roles. It is clear that the role of a board director today is not an easy one. Following the 2008 financial meltdown, which resulted in a deeper and more prolonged period of economic downturn than anyone expected, the search for explanations in the many post-mortems of the crisis has meant blame has been spread far and wide. Governments, regulators, central banks and auditors have all been in the frame. The role of bank directors and management and their widely publicised failures have been extensively picked over and examined in reports, inquiries and commentaries.

B The knock-on t of this scrutiny has been to make the governance of companies in general an issue of intense public debate and has significantly increased the pressures on, and the responsibilities of, directors. At the simplest and most practical level, the time involved in fulfilling the demands of a board directorship has increased significantly, calling into question the effectiveness of the classic model of corporate governance by part-time, independent non-executive directors. Where once a board schedule may have consisted of between eight and ten meetings a year, in many companies the number of events requiring board input and decisions has dramatically risen. Furthermore, the amount of reading and preparation required for each meeting is increasing. Agendas can become overloaded and this can mean the time for constructive debate must necessarily be restricted in favour of getting through the business.

C Often, board business is devolved to committees in order to cope with the workload, which may be more efficient but can mean that the board as a whole is less involved in fully addressing some of the most important issues. It is not uncommon for the audit committee meeting to last longer than the main board meeting itself. Process may take the place of discussion and be at the expense of real collaboration, so that boxes are ticked rather than issues tackled.

D A radical solution, which may work for some very large companies whose businesses are extensive and complex, is the professional board, whose members would work up to three or four days a week, supported by their own dedicated staff and advisers. There are obvious risks to this and it would be important to establish clear guidelines for such a board to ensure that it did not step on the toes of management by becoming too engaged in the day- to-day running of the company. Problems of recruitment, remuneration and independence could also arise and this structure would not be appropriate for all companies. However, more professional and better-informed boards would have been particularly appropriate for banks where the executives had access to information that part-time non-executive directors lacked, leaving the latter unable to comprehend or anticipate the 2008 crash.

E One of the main criticisms of boards and their directors is that they do not focus sufficiently on longer-term matters of strategy, sustainability and governance, but instead concentrate too much on short-term financial metrics. Regulatory requirements and the structure of the market encourage this behaviour. The tyranny of quarterly reporting can distort board decision-making, as directors have to ‘make the numbers’ every four months to meet the insatiable appetite of the market for more data. This serves to encourage the trading methodology of a certain kind of investor who moves in and out of a stock without engaging in constructive dialogue with the company about strategy or performance, and is simply seeking a short¬ term financial gain. This effect has been made worse by the changing profile of investors due to the globalisation of capital and the increasing use of automated trading systems. Corporate culture adapts and management teams are largely incentivised to meet financial goals.

F Compensation for chief executives has become a combat zone where pitched battles between investors, management and board members are fought, often behind closed doors but increasingly frequently in the full glare of press attention. Many would argue that this is in the interest of transparency and good governance as shareholders use their muscle in the area of pay to pressure boards to remove underperforming chief executives. Their powers to vote down executive remuneration policies increased when binding votes came into force. The chair of the remuneration committee can be an exposed and lonely role, as Alison Carnwath, chair of Barclays Bank’s remuneration committee, found when she had to resign, having been roundly criticised for trying to defend the enormous bonus to be paid to the chief executive; the irony being that she was widely understood to have spoken out against it in the privacy of the committee.

G The financial crisis stimulated a debate about the role and purpose of the company and a heightened awareness of corporate ethics. Trust in the corporation has been eroded and academics such as Michael Sandel, in his thoughtful and bestselling book What Money Can’t Buy, are questioning the morality of capitalism and the market economy. Boards of companies in all sectors will need to widen their perspective to encompass these issues and this may involve a realignment of corporate goals. We live in challenging times.

Questions 27-33
Reading passage 3 has seven paragraphs A-G. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of heading below.

List of headings
i Disputes over financial arrangements regarding senior managers
ii The impact on companies of being subjected to close examination
iii The possible need to fundamental change in every area of business
iv Many external bodies being held responsible for problems
v The falling number of board members with broad enough experience
vi A risk that not all directors take part in solving major problems
vii Boards not looking far enough ahead
viii A proposal to change the way the board operates

27. Paragraph A
28. Paragraph B
29. Paragraph C
30. Paragraph D
31. Paragraph E
32. Paragraph F
33. Paragraph G

Questions 34-37
In boxes 34-37 on your answer sheet write

YES                             if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO                               if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN            if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

34. Close scrutiny of the behavior of boards has increased since the economic downturn.
35. Banks have been mismanaged to a greater extent than other businesses.
36. Board meetings normally continue for as long as necessary to debate matters in full.
37. Using a committee structure would ensure that board members are fully informed about significant issues.

Questions 38-40
Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage.

38. Before 2008, non-executive directors were at a disadvantage because of their lack of………………….
39. Boards tend to place too much emphasis on…………………………..considerations that are only of short term relevance.
40. On certain matters, such as pay the board may have to accept the views of…………………..

Flying tortoises

A Forests of spiny cacti cover much of the uneven lava plains that separate the interior of the Galapagos island of Isabela from the Pacific Ocean. With its five distinct volcanoes, the island resembles a lunar landscape. Only the thick vegetation at the skirt of the often cloud-covered peak of Sierra Negra offers respite from the barren terrain below. This inhospitable environment is home to the giant Galapagos tortoise. Some time after the Galapagos’s birth, around five million years ago, the islands were colonised by one or more tortoises from mainland South America. As these ancestral tortoises settled on the individual islands, the different populations adapted to their unique environments, giving rise to at least 14 different subspecies. Island life agreed with them. In the absence of significant predators, they grew to become the largest and longest-living tortoises on the planet, weighing more than 400 kilograms, occasionally exceeding 1,8 metres in length and living for more than a century.

B Before human arrival, the archipelago’s tortoises numbered in the hundreds of thousands. From the 17th century onwards, pirates took a few on board for food, but the arrival of whaling ships in the 1790s saw this exploitation grow exponentially. Relatively immobile and capable of surviving for months without food or water, the tortoises were taken on board these ships to act as food supplies during long ocean passages. Sometimes, their bodies were processed into high- grade oil. In total, an estimated 200,000 animals were taken from the archipelago before the 20th century. This historical exploitation was then exacerbated when settlers came to the islands. They hunted the tortoises and destroyed their habitat to clear land for agriculture. They also introduced alien species – ranging from cattle, pigs, goats, rats and dogs to plants and ants – that either prey on the eggs and young tortoises or damage or destroy their habitat.

C Today, only 11 of the original subspecies survive and of these, several are highly endangered. In 1989, work began on a tortoise-breeding centre just outside the town of Puerto Villamil on Isabela, dedicated to protecting the island’s tortoise populations. The centre’s captive-breeding programme proved to be extremely successful, and it eventually had to deal with an overpopulation problem.

D The problem was also a pressing one. Captive-bred tortoises can’t be reintroduced into the wild until they’re at least five years old and weigh at least 4,5 kilograms, at which point their size and weight – and their hardened shells – are sufficient to protect them from predators. But if people wait too long after that point, the tortoises eventually become too large to transport.

E For years, repatriation efforts were carried out in small numbers, with the tortoises carried on the backs of men over weeks of long, treacherous hikes along narrow trails. But in November 2010, the environmentalist and Galapagos National Park liaison officer Godfrey Merlin, a visiting private motor yacht captain and a helicopter pilot gathered around a table in a small cafe in Puerto Ayora on the island of Santa Cruz to work out more ambitious reintroduction. The aim was to use a helicopter to move 300 of the breeding centre’s tortoises to various locations close to Sierra Negra.

F This unprecedented effort was made possible by the owners of the 67-metre yacht White Cloud, who provided the Galapagos National Park with free use of their helicopter and its experienced pilot, as well as the logistical support of the yacht, its captain and crew. Originally an air ambulance, the yacht’s helicopter has a rear double door and a large internal space that’s well suited for cargo, so a custom crate was designed to hold up to 33 tortoises with a total weight of about 150 kilograms. This weight, together with that of the fuel, pilot and four crew, approached the helicopter’s maximum payload, and there were times when it was clearly right on the edge of the helicopter’s capabilities. During a period of three days, a group of volunteers from the breeding centre worked around the clock to prepare the young tortoises for transport. Meanwhile, park wardens, dropped off ahead of time in remote locations, cleared landing sites within the thick brush, cacti and lava rocks.

G Upon their release, the juvenile tortoises quickly spread out over their ancestral territory, investigating their new surroundings and feeding on the vegetation. Eventually, one tiny tortoise came across a fully grown giant who had been lumbering around the island for around a hundred years. The two stood side by side, a powerful symbol of the regeneration of an ancient species.

Questions 1-7
Reading passage 1 has seven paragraphs A-G. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

List of headings
i The importance of getting the timing right
ii Young meets old
iii Developments to the disadvantage of tortoise populations
iv Planning a bigger idea
v Tortoises populate the islands
vi Carrying out a carefully prepared operation
vii Looking for a home for the islands’ tortoises
viii The start of the conservation project

1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E
6. Paragraph F
7. Paragraph G

Questions 8-13
Complete the notes below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

The decline of the Galapagos tortoise
• Originally from mainland South America
• Numbers on Galapagos islands increased due to lack of predators
• 17th century: small numbers taken onto ships used by (8)………………………..
• 1790s: very large numbers taken onto whaling ships kept for (9)………………………and also used to produce (10)………………………….
• Hunted by (11)………………………..on the islands
• Habitat destruction: for the establishment of agriculture and by various (12)…………………………not native to the islands which also fed on baby tortoises and tortoises’ (13)……………………….

The Intersection of Health Sciences and Geography

A While many diseases that affect humans have been eradicated due to improvements in vaccinations and the availability of healthcare, there are still areas around the world where certain health issues are more prevalent. In a world that is far more globalised than ever before, people come into contact with one another through travel and living closer and closer to each other. As a result, super-viruses and other infections resistant to antibiotics are becoming more and more common.

B Geography can often play a very large role in the health concerns of certain populations. For instance, depending on where you live, you will not have the same health concerns as someone who lives in a different geographical region. Perhaps one of the most obvious examples of this idea is malaria-prone areas, which are usually tropical regions that foster a warm and damp environment in which the mosquitos that can give people this disease can grew. Malaria is much less of a problem in high-altitude deserts, for instance.

C In some countries, geographical factors influence the health and well-being of the population in very obvious ways. In many large cities, the wind is not strong enough to clear the air of the massive amounts of smog and pollution that cause asthma, lung problems, eyesight issues and more in the people who live there. Part of the problem is, of course, the massive number of cars being driven, in addition to factories that run on coal power. The rapid industrialisation of some countries in recent years has also led to the cutting down of forests to allow for the expansion of big cities, which makes it even harder to fight the pollution with the fresh air that is produced by plants.

D It is in situations like these that the field of health geography comes into its own. It is an increasingly important area of study in a world where diseases like polio are re-emerging, respiratory diseases continue to spread, and malaria-prone areas are still fighting to find a better cure. Health geography is the combination of, on the one hand, knowledge regarding geography and methods used to analyse and interpret geographical information, and on the other, the study of health, diseases and healthcare practices around the world. The aim of this hybrid science is to create solutions for common geography-based health problems. While people will always be prone to illness, the study of how geography affects our health could lead to the eradication of certain illnesses, and the prevention of others in the future. By understanding why and how we get sick, we can change the way we treat illness and disease specific to certain geographical locations.

E The geography of disease and ill health analyses the frequency with which certain diseases appear in different parts of the world, and overlays the data with the geography of the region, to see if there could be a correlation between the two. Health geographers also study factors that could make certain individuals or a population more likely to be taken ill with a specific health concern or disease, as compared with the population of another area. Health geographers in this field are usually trained as healthcare workers, and have an understanding of basic epidemiology as it relates to the spread of diseases among the population.

F Researchers study the interactions between humans and their environment that could lead to illness (such as asthma in places with high levels of pollution) and work to create a clear way of categorising illnesses, diseases and epidemics into local and global scales. Health geographers can map the spread of illnesses and attempt to identify the reasons behind an increase or decrease in illnesses, as they work to find a way to halt the further spread or re-emergence of diseases in vulnerable populations.

G The second subcategory of health geography is the geography of healthcare provision. This group studies the availability (of lack thereof) of healthcare resources to individuals and populations around the world. In both developed and developing nations there is often a very large discrepancy between the options available to people in different social classes, income brackets, and levels of education. Individuals working in the area of the geography of healthcare provision attempt to assess the levels of healthcare in the area (for instance, it may be very difficult for people to get medical attention because there is a mountain between their village and the nearest hospital). These researchers are on the frontline of making recommendations regarding policy to international organisations, local government bodies and others.

H The field of health geography is often overlooked, but it constitutes a huge area of need in the fields of geography and healthcare. If we can understand how geography affects our health no matter where in the world we are located, we can better treat disease, prevent illness, and keep people safe and well.

Questions 14-19
Reading passage 2 has eight sections A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information? NB You may use any letter more than once.

14. an acceptance that not all diseases can be totally eliminated
15. examples of physical conditions caused by human behavior
16. a reference to classifying diseases on the basis of how far they extend gepgraphically
17. reasons why the level of access to healthcare can vary within a country
18. a description of healthy geography as a mixture of different academic fields
19. a description of the type of area where a particular illness is rare

Questions 20-26
Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

20. Certain diseases have disappeared thanks to better…………………………….and healthcare.
21. Because there is more contact between people………………………….are losing their usefulness.
22. Disease causing……………………….are most likely to be found in hot, damp regions.
23. One cause of pollution is………………………….that burn a particular fuel.
24. The growth of cities often has an impact on nearby.
25. …………………………………is one disease that is growing after having been eradicated.
26. A physical barrier such as a……………………………can prevent people from reaching a hospital.

Music and the emotions

Why does music make us feel? On the one hand, music is a purely abstract art form, devoid of language or explicit ideas. And yet, even though music says little, it still manages to touch us deeply. When listening to our favourite songs, our body betrays all the symptoms of emotional arousal. The pupils in our eyes dilate, our pulse and blood pressure rise, the electrical conductance of our skin is lowered, and the cerebellum, a brain region associated with bodily movement, becomes strangely active. Blood is even re-directed to the muscles in our legs. In other words, sound stirs us at our biological roots.

A recent paper in Neuroscience by a research team in Montreal, Canada, marks an important step in repealing the precise underpinnings of ‘the potent pleasurable stimulus’ that is music. Although the study involves plenty of fancy technology, including functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and ligand-based positron emission tomography (PET) scanning, the experiment itself was rather straightforward. After screening 217 individuals who responded to advertisements requesting people who experience ‘chills’ to instrumental music, the scientists narrowed down the subject pool to ten. They then asked the subjects to bring in their playlist of favourite songs – virtually every genre was represented, from techno to tango – and played them the music while their brain activity was monitored. Because the scientists were combining methodologies (PET and fMRI), they were able to obtain an impressively exact and detailed portrait of music in the brain. The first thing they discovered is that music triggers the production of dopamine – a chemical with a key role in setting people’s moods – by the neurons (nerve cells) in both the dorsal and ventral regions of the brain. As these two regions have long been linked with the experience of pleasure, this finding isn’t particularly surprising.

What is rather more significant is the finding that the dopamine neurons in the caudate – a region of the brain involved in learning stimulus-response associations, and in anticipating food and other ‘reward’ stimuli – were at their most active around 15 seconds before the participants’ favourite moments in the music. The researchers call this the ‘anticipatory phase’ and argue that the purpose of this activity is to help us predict the arrival of our favourite part. The question, of course, is what all these dopamine neurons are up to. Why are they so active in the period preceding the acoustic climax? After all, we typically associate surges of dopamine with pleasure, with the processing of actual rewards. And yet, this cluster of cells is most active when the ‘chills’ have yet to arrive, when the melodic pattern is still unresolved.

One way to answer the question is to look at the music and not the neurons. While music can often seem (at least to the outsider) like a labyrinth of intricate patterns, it turns out that the most important part of every song or symphony is when the patterns break down, when the sound becomes unpredictable. If the music is too obvious, it is annoyingly boring, like an alarm clock. Numerous studies, after all, have demonstrated that dopamine neurons quickly adapt to predictable rewards. If we know what’s going to happen next, then we don’t get excited. This is why composers often introduce a key note in the beginning of a song, spend most of the rest of the piece in the studious avoidance of the pattern, and then finally repeat it only at the end. The longer we are denied the pattern we expect, the greater the emotional release when the pattern returns, safe and sound.

To demonstrate this psychological principle, the musicologist Leonard Meyer, in his classic book Emotion and Meaning in Music (1956), analysed the 5th movement of Beethoven’s String Quartet in C-sharp minor, Op. 131. Meyer wanted to show how music is defined by its flirtation with – but not submission to – our expectations of order. Meyer dissected 50 measures (bars) of the masterpiece, showing how Beethoven begins with the clear statement of a rhythmic and harmonic pattern and then, in an ingenious tonal dance, carefully holds off repeating it. What Beethoven does instead is suggest variations of the pattern. Me wants to preserve an element of uncertainty in his music, making our brains beg for the one chord he refuses to give us. Beethoven saves that chord for the end.

According to Meyer, it is the suspenseful tension of music, arising out of our unfulfilled expectations, that is the source of the music’s feeling. While earlier theories of music focused on the way a sound can refer to the real world of images and experiences – its ‘connotative’ meaning – Meyer argued that the emotions we find in music come from the unfolding events of the music itself. This ‘embodied meaning’ arises from the patterns the symphony invokes and then ignores. It is this uncertainty that triggers the surge of dopamine in the caudate, as we struggle to figure out what will happen next. We can predict some of the notes, but we can’t predict them all, and that is what keeps us listening, waiting expectantly for our reward, for the pattern to be completed.

Questions 27-31
Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

The Montreal Study
Participants who were recruited for the study through advertisements had their brain activity monitored while listening to their favourite music. It was noted that the music stimulated the brain’s neurons to release a substance called (27)……………………….in two of the parts of the brain which are associated with feeling (28)………………………….. Researchers also observed that the neurons in the area of the brain called the (29)……………………..were particularly active just before the participants’ favourite moments in the music – the period known as the (30)……………………………….Activity in this part of the brain is associated with the expectation of reward stimuli such as (31)………………………….

Questions 32-36
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

32. What point does the writer emphasise in the first paragraph?
A. how dramatically our reactions to music can vary
B. how intense our physical responses to music can be
C. how little we know about the way that music affects us
D. how much music can tell us about how our brains operate

33. What view of the Montreal study does the writer express in the second paragraph?
A. its aims were innovative
B. the approach was too simplistic
C. it produces some remarkably precise data
D. the technology used was unnecessarily complex

34. What does the writer find interesting about the results of the Montreal study?
A. the timing of participants’ neural responses to the music
B. the impact of the music on participants’ emotional state
C. the section of participants’ brains which was activated by the music
D. the type of music which has the strongest effect on the participants’ brains

35. Why does the writer refer to Meyer’s work on music and emotion?
A. to propose an original theory about the subject
B. to offer support for the findings of the Montreal study
C. to recommend the need for further research into the subject
D. to present a view which opposes that of the Montreal researchers

36. According to Leonard Meyer, what causes the listener’s emotional response to music?
A. the way the music evokes poignant memories in the listener
B. the association of certain musical chords with certain feelings
C. the listener’s sympathy with the composer’s intentions
D. the internal structure of the musical composition

Questions 37-40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-F below.

37. The Montreal researchers discovered that
38. Many studies have demonstrated that
39. Meyer’s analysis of Beethoven’s music shows that
40. Earlier theories of music suggested that

A. Our response to music depends on our initial emotional state.
B. neuron activity decreases if outcomes become predictable.
C. emotive music can bring to mind actual pictures and events.
D. experiences in our past can influence our emotional reaction to music.
E. emotive music delays giving listeners what they expect to hear.
F. neuron activity increases prior to key points in a musical piece.

The Risks Agriculture Faces In Developing Countries

A Two things distinguish food production from all other productive activities: first, every single person needs food each day and has a right to it; and second, it is hugely dependent on nature. These two unique aspects, one political, the other natural, make food production highly vulnerable and different from any other business. At the same time, cultural values are highly entrenched in food and agricultural systems worldwide.

B Farmers everywhere face major risks; including extreme weather, long-term climate change, and price volatility in input and product markets. However, smallholder farmers in developing countries must in addition deal with adverse environments, both natural, in terms of soil quality, rainfall, etc. and human, in terms of infrastructure, financial systems, markets, knowledge and technology. Counter-intuitively, hunger is prevalent among many smallholder farmers in the developing world.

C Participants in the online debate argued that our biggest challenge is to address the underlying causes of the agricultural system’s inability to ensure sufficient food for all, and they identified as drivers of this problem our dependency on fossil fuels and unsupportive government policies.

D On the question of mitigating the risks farmers face, most essayists called for greater state intervention. In his essay, Kanayo F. Nwanze, President of the International Fund for Agricultural Development, argued that governments can significantly reduce risks for farmers by providing basic services like roads to get produce more efficiently to markets, or water and food storage facilities to reduce losses. Sophia Murphy, senior advisor to the Institute for Agriculture and Trade Policy, suggested that the procurement and holding of stocks by governments can also help mitigate wild swings in food prices by alleviating uncertainties about market supply.

E Shenggen Fan, Director General of the International Food Policy Research Institute, held up social safety nets and public welfare programmes in Ethiopia, Brazil and Mexico as valuable ways to address poverty among farming families and reduce their vulnerability to agriculture shocks. However, some commentators responded that cash transfers to poor families do not necessarily translate into increased food security, as these programmes do not always strengthen food production or raise incomes. Regarding state subsidies for agriculture, Rokeya Kabir, Executive Director of Bangladesh Nari Progati Sangha, commented in her essay that these ‘have not compensated for the stranglehold exercised by private traders. In fact, studies show that sixty percent of beneficiaries of subsidies are not poor, but rich landowners and non-farmer traders.

F Nwanze, Murphy and Fan argued that private risk management tools, like private insurance, commodity futures markets, and rural finance can help small-scale producers mitigate risk and allow for investment in improvements. Kabir warned that financial support schemes often encourage the adoption of high-input agricultural practices, which in the medium term may raise production costs beyond the value of their harvests. Murphy noted that when futures markets become excessively financialised they can contribute to short-term price volatility, which increases farmers’ food insecurity. Many participants and commentators emphasised that greater transparency in markets is needed to mitigate the impact of volatility, and make evident whether adequate stocks and supplies are available. Others contended that agribusiness companies should be held responsible for paying for negative side effects.

G Many essayists mentioned climate change and its consequences for small-scale agriculture. Fan explained that in addition to reducing crop yields, climate change increases the magnitude and the frequency of extreme weather events, which increase smallholder vulnerability. The growing unpredictability of weather patterns increases farmers’ difficulty in managing weather-related risks. According to this author, one solution would be to develop crop varieties that are more resilient to new climate trends and extreme weather patterns. Accordingly, Pat Mooney, co-founder and executive director of the ETC Group, suggested that ‘if we are to survive climate change, we must adopt policies that let peasants diversify the plant and animal species and varieties/breeds that make up our menus.

H Some participating authors and commentators argued in favour of community- based and autonomous risk management strategies through collective action groups, co-operatives or producers’ groups. Such groups enhance market opportunities for small-scale producers, reduce marketing costs and synchronise buying and selling with seasonal price conditions. According to Murphy, ‘collective action offers an important way for farmers to strengthen their political and economic bargaining power, and to reduce their business risks. One commentator, Giel Ton, warned that collective action does not come as a free good. It takes time, effort and money to organise, build trust and to experiment. Others, like Marcel Vernooij and Marcel Beukeboom, suggested that in order to ‘apply what we already know’, all stakeholders, including business, government, scientists and civil society, must work together, starting at the beginning of the value chain.

I Some participants explained that market price volatility is often worsened by the presence of intermediary purchasers who, taking advantage of farmers’ vulnerability, dictate prices. One commentator suggested farmers can gain greater control over prices and minimise price volatility by selling directly to consumers. Similarly, Sonali Bisht, founder and advisor to the Institute of Himalayan Environmental Research and Education (INHERE), India, wrote that copipunity-supported agriculture, where consumers invest in local farmers by subscription and guarantee producers a fair price, is a risk-sharing model worth more attention. Direct food distribution systems not only encourage small-scale agriculture but also give consumers more control over the food they consume, she wrote.

Questions 1-3
Reading passage 1 has nine paragraphs A-I.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

1. a reference to characteristics that only apply to food production
2. a reference to challenges faced only by farmers in certain parts of the world
3. a reference to difficulties in bringing about co-operation between farmers

Questions 4-9
Look at the following statements (questions 4-9) and list of people below. Match each statement with the correct person A-G. NB You may use any letter more than once.

4. Financial assistance from the government does not always go to the farmers who most need it.
5. Farmers can benefit from collaborating as a group.
6. Financial assistance from the government can improve the standard of living of farmers.
7. Farmers may be helped if there is financial input by the same individuals who buy from them.
8. Governments can help to reduce variation in prices.
9. Improvements to infrastructure can have a major impact on risk for farmers.

List of people
A Kanayo F. Nwanze
B Sophia Murphy
C Shenggen Fan
D Rokeya Kabir
E Pat Mooney
F Giel Ton
G Sonali Bisht

Questions 10 and 11
Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO problems are mentioned which affect farmers with small farms in developing countries?
A. lack of demand for locally produced food
B. lack of irrigation programmes
C. being unable to get insurance
D. the effects of changing weather patterns
E. having to sell their goods to intermediary buyers

Questions 12 and 13
Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO actions are recommended for improving conditions for farmers?
A. reducing the size of food stocks
B. attempting to ensure that prices rise at certain times of the year
C. organizing co-operation between a wide range of interested parties
D. encouraging consumers to take a financial stake in farming
E. making customers aware of the reasons for changing food prices

The Lost City

A When the US explorer and academic Hiram Bingham arrived in South America in 1911, he was ready for what was to be the greatest achievement of his life: the exploration of the remote hinterland to the west of Cusco, the old capital of the Inca empire in the Andes mountains of Peru. His goal was to locate the remains of a city called Vitcos, the last capital of the Inca civilisation. Cusco lies on a high plateau at an elevation of more than 3,000 metres, and Bingham’s plan was to descend from this plateau along the valley of the Urubamba river, which takes a circuitous route down to the Amazon and passes through an area of dramatic canyons and mountain ranges.

B When Bingham and his team set off down the Urubamba in late July, they had an advantage over travellers who had preceded them: a track had recently been blasted down the valley canyon to enable rubber to be brought up by mules from the jungle. Almost all previous travellers had left the river at Ollantaytambo and taken a high pass across the mountains to rejoin the river lower down, thereby cutting a substantial corner, but also therefore never passing through the area around Machu Picchu.

C On 24 July they were a few days into their descent of the valley. The day began slowly, with Bingham trying to arrange sufficient mules for the next stage of the trek. His companions showed no interest in accompanying him up the nearby hill to see some ruins that a local farmer, Melchor Arteaga, had told them about the night before. The morning was dull and damp, and Bingham also seems to have been less than keen on the prospect of climbing the hill. In his book Lost City of the Incas, he relates that he made the ascent without having the least expectation that he would find anything at the top.

D Bingham writes about the approach in vivid style in his book. First, as he climbs up the hill, he describes the ever-present possibility of deadly snakes, ‘capable of making considerable springs when in pursuit of their prey’; not that he sees any. Then there’s a sense of mounting discovery as he comes across great sweeps of terraces, then a mausoleum, followed by monumental staircases and, finally, the grand ceremonial buildings of Machu Picchu. ‘It seemed like an unbelievable dream the sight held me spellbound ’, he wrote.

E We should remember, however, that Lost City of the Incas is a work of hindsight, not written until 1948, many years after his journey. His journal entries of the time reveal a much more gradual appreciation of his achievement. He spent the afternoon at the ruins noting down the dimensions of some of the buildings, then descended and rejoined his companions, to whom he seems to have said little about his discovery. At this stage, Bingham didn’t realise the extent or the importance of the site, nor did he realise what use he could make of the discovery.

F However, soon after returning it occurred to him that he could make a name for himself from this discovery. When he came to write the National Geographic magazine article that broke the story to the world in April 1913, he knew he had to produce a big idea. He wondered whether it could have been the birthplace of the very first Inca, Manco the Great, and whether it could also have been what chroniclers described as ‘the last city of the Incas’. This term refers to Vilcabamba the settlement where the Incas had fled from Spanish invaders in the 1530s. Bingham made desperate attempts to prove this belief for nearly 40 years. Sadly, his vision of the site as both the beginning and end of the Inca civilisation, while a magnificent one, is inaccurate. We now know, that Vilcabamba actually lies 65 kilometres away in the depths of the jungle.

G One question that has perplexed visitors, historians and archaeologists alike ever since Bingham, is why the site seems to have been abandoned before the Spanish Conquest. There are no references to it by any of the Spanish chroniclers – and if they had known of its existence so close to Cusco they would certainly have come in search of gold. An idea which has gained wide acceptance over the past few years is that Machu Picchu was a moya, a country estate built by an Inca emperor to escape the cold winters of Cusco, where the elite could enjoy monumental architecture and spectacular views. Furthermore, the particular architecture of Machu Picchu suggests that it was constructed at the time of the greatest of all the Incas, the emperor Pachacuti (1438-71). By custom, Pachacuti’s descendants built other similar estates for their own use, and so Machu Picchu would have been abandoned after his death, some 50 years before the Spanish Conquest.

Questions 14-20
Reading passage 2 has seven paragraphs A-G. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

List of headings
i Different accounts of the same journey
ii Bingham gains support
iii A common belief
iv The aim of the trip
v A dramatic description
vi A new route
vii Bingham publishes his theory
viii Bingham’s lack of enthusiasm

14. Paragraph A
15. Paragraph B
16. Paragraph C
17. Paragraph D
18. Paragraph E
19. Paragraph F
20. Paragraph G

Questions 21-24
Do the following statements agree with the information given in reading passage 2?

TRUE                        if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN          if there is no information on this

21. Bingham went to South America in search of an Inca city.
22. Bingham chose a particular route down the Urubamba valley because it was the most common route used by travelers.
23. Bingham understood the significance of Machu Picchu as soon as he saw it.
24. Bingham returned to Machu Picchu in order to find evidence to support his theory.

Questions 25 and 26
Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage

25. The track that took Bingham down the Urubamba valley had been created for the transportation of……………..
26. Bingham found out about the ruins of Machu Picchu from a…………………………….in the Urubamba valley.

The Benefits Of Being Bilingual

A According to the latest figures, the majority of the world’s population is now bilingual or multilingual, having grown up speaking two or more languages. In the past, such children were considered to be at a disadvantage compared with their monolingual peers. Over the past few decades, however, technological advances have allowed researchers to look more deeply at how bilingualism interacts with and changes the cognitive and neurological systems, thereby identifying several clear benefits of being bilingual.

B Research shows that when a bilingual person uses one language, the other is active at the same time. When we hear a word, we don’t hear the entire word all at once: the sounds arrive in sequential order. Long before the word is finished, the brain’s language system begins to guess what that word might be. If you hear ‘can’, you will likely activate words like ‘candy’ and ‘candle’ as well, at least during the earlier stages of word recognition. For bilingual people, this activation is not limited to a single language; auditory input activates corresponding words regardless of the language to which they belong. Some of the most compelling evidence for this phenomenon, called ‘language co-activation’, comes from studying eye movements. A Russian-English bilingual asked to ‘pick up a marker’ from a set of objects would look more at a stamp than someone who doesn’t know Russian, because the Russian word for ‘stamp’, marka, sounds like the English word he or she heard, ‘marker’. In cases like this, language co-activation occurs because what the listener hears could map onto words in either language.

C Having to deal with this persistent linguistic competition can result in difficulties, however. For instance, knowing more than one language can cause speakers to name pictures more slowly, and can increase ‘tip-of-the-tongue states’, when you can almost, but not quite, bring a word to mind. As a result, the constant juggling of two languages creates a need to control how much a person accesses a language at any given time. For this reason, bilingual people often perform better on tasks that require conflict management. In the classic Stroop Task, people see a word and are asked to name the colour of the word’s font. When the colour and the word match (i., the word ‘red’ printed in red), people correctly name the colour more quickly than when the colour and the word don’t match (i., the word ‘red’ printed in blue). This occurs because the word itself (‘red’) and its font colour (blue) conflict. Bilingual people often excel at tasks such as this, which tap into the ability to ignore competing perceptual information and focus on the relevant aspects of the input. Bilinguals are also better at switching between two tasks; for example, when bilinguals have to switch from categorizing objects by colour (red or green) to categorizing them by shape (circle or triangle), they do so more quickly than monolingual people, reflecting better cognitive control when having to make rapid changes of strategy.

D It also seems that the neurological roots of the bilingual advantage extend to brain areas more traditionally associated with sensory processing. When monolingual and bilingual adolescents listen to simple speech sounds without any intervening background noise, they show highly similar brain stem responses. When researchers play the same sound to both groups in the presence of background noise, however, the bilingual listeners’ neural response is considerably larger, reflecting better encoding of the sound’s fundamental frequency, a feature of sound closely related to pitch perception.

E Such improvements in cognitive and sensory processing may help a bilingual person to process information in the environment, and help explain why bilingual adults acquire a third language better than monolingual adults master a second language. This advantage may be rooted in the skill of focussing on information about the new language while reducing interference from the languages they already know.

F Research also indicates that bilingual experience may help to keep the cognitive mechanisms sharp by recruiting alternate brain networks to compensate for those that become damaged during aging. Older bilinguals enjoy improved memory relative to monolingual people, which can lead to real-world health benefits. In a study of over 200 patients with Alzheimer’s disease, a degenerative brain disease, bilingual patients reported showing initial symptoms of the disease an average of five years later than monolingual patients. In a follow-up study, researchers compared the brains of bilingual and monolingual patients matched on the severity of Alzheimer’s symptoms. Surprisingly, the bilinguals’ brains had more physical signs of disease than their monolingual counterparts, even though their outward behaviour and abilities were the same. If the brain is an engine, bilingualism may help it to go farther on the same amount of fuel.

G Furthermore, the benefits associated with bilingual experience seem to start very early. In one study, researchers taught seven-month-old babies growing up in monolingual or bilingual homes that when they heard a tinkling sound, a puppet appeared on one side of a screen. Halfway through the study, the puppet began appearing on the opposite side of the screen. In order to get a reward, the infants had to adjust the rule they’d learned; only the bilingual babies were able to successfully learn the new rule. This suggests that for very young children, as well as for older people, navigating a multilingual environment imparts advantages that transfer far beyond language.

Questions 27-31

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

Test	Findings
Observing the (27)………………..of Russina-English bilingual people when asked to select certain objects	bilingual people engage both languages simultaneously a mechanism known as (28)…………………
A test called the (29)……………….focusing on naming colors	bilingual people are more able to handle tasks involving a skill called (30)………………….
A test involving switching between tasks	when changing strategies bilingual people have started (31)…………..

Questions 32-36
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in reading passage 3>

YES                         if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
NO                           if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN        if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

32. Attitudes towards bilingualism have changed in recent years.
33. Bilingual people are better than monolingual people at guessing correctly what words are before they are finished.
34. Bilingual people consistently name images faster than monolingual people.
35. Bilingual people’s brains process single sounds more efficiently than monolingual people in all situations.
36. Fewer bilingual people than monolingual people suffer from brain disease in old age.

Questions 37-40
Reading passage 3 has seven paragraphs A-G. Which paragraph contains the following information?

37. an example of how bilingual and monolingual people’s brains respond differently to a certain type of non-verbal auditory input
38. a demonstration of how a bilingual upbringing has benefits even before we learn to speak
39. a description of the process by which people identify words that they hear
40. reference to some negative consequences of being bilingual

Cork

Cork – the thick bark of the cork oak tree (Quercus suber) – is a remarkable material. It is tough, elastic, buoyant, and fire-resistant, and suitable for a wide range of purposes. It has also been used for millennia: the ancient Egyptians sealed then sarcophagi (stone coffins) with cork, while the ancient Greeks and Romans used it for anything from beehives to sandals.

And the cork oak itself is an extraordinary tree. Its bark grows up to 20 cm in thickness, insulating the tree like a coat wrapped around the trunk and branches and keeping the inside at a constant 20°C all year round. Developed most probably as a defence against forest fires, the bark of the cork oak has a particular cellular structure – with about 40 million cells per cubic centimetre – that technology has never succeeded in replicating. The cells are filled with air, which is why cork is so buoyant. It also has an elasticity that means you can squash it and watch it spring back to its original size and shape when you release the pressure.

Cork oaks grow in a number of Mediterranean countries, including Portugal, Spain, Italy, Greece and Morocco. They flourish in warm, sunny climates where there is a minimum of 400 millimetres of rain per year, and no more than 800 millimetres. Like grape vines, the trees thrive in poor soil, putting down deep root in search of moisture and nutrients. Southern Portugal’s Alentejo region meets all of these requirements, which explains why, by the early 20th century, this region had become the world’s largest producer of cork, and why today it accounts for roughly half of all cork production around the world.

Most cork forests are family-owned. Many of these family businesses, and indeed many of the trees themselves, are around 200 years old. Cork production is, above all, an exercise in patience. From the planting of a cork sapling to the first harvest takes 25 years, and a gap of approximately a decade must separate harvests from an individual tree. And for top- quality cork, it’s necessary to wait a further 15 or 20 years. You even have to wait for the right kind of summer’s day to harvest cork. If the bark is stripped on a day when it’s too cold – or when the air is damp – the tree will be damaged.

Cork harvesting is a very specialised profession. No mechanical means of stripping cork bark has been invented, so the job is done by teams of highly skilled workers. First, they make vertical cuts down the bark using small sharp axes, then lever it away in pieces as large as they can manage. The most skilful cork- strippers prise away a semi-circular husk that runs the length of the trunk from just above ground level to the first branches. It is then dried on the ground for about four months, before being taken to factories, where it is boiled to kill any insects that might remain in the cork. Over 60% of cork then goes on to be made into traditional bottle stoppers, with most of the remainder being used in the construction trade, Corkboard and cork tiles are ideal for thermal and acoustic insulation, while granules of cork are used in the manufacture of concrete.

Recent years have seen the end of the virtual monopoly of cork as the material for bottle stoppers, due to concerns about the effect it may have on the contents of the bottle. This is caused by a chemical compound called 2,4,6-trichloroanisole (TCA), which forms through the interaction of plant phenols, chlorine and mould. The tiniest concentrations – as little as three or four parts to a trillion – can spoil the taste of the product contained in the bottle.

The result has been a gradual yet steady move first towards plastic stoppers and, more recently, to aluminium screw caps. These substitutes are cheaper to manufacture and, in the case of screw caps, more convenient for the user.

The classic cork stopper does have several advantages, however. Firstly, its traditional image is more in keeping with that of the type of high quality goods with which it has long been associated. Secondly – and very importantly – cork is a sustainable product that can be recycled without difficulty. Moreover, cork forests are a resource which support local biodiversity, and prevent desertification in the regions where they are planted. So, given the current concerns about environmental issues, the future of this ancient material once again looks promising.

Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage? In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                              if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                            if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN                 if there is no information on this

1. The cork oak has the thickest bark of any living tree.
2. Scientists have developed a synthetic cork with the same cellular structure as natural cork.
3. Individual cork oak trees must be left for 25 years between the first and second harvest.
4. Cork bark should be stripped in dry atmospheric conditions.
5. The only way to remove the bark from cork oak trees is by hand.

Questions 6-13
Complete the notes below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Comparison of aluminium screw caps and cork bottle stoppers
Advantages of aluminium screw caps
• do not affect the (6)…………………………………of the bottle contents
• are (7)………………………….. to produce
• are (8)……………………………….. to use
Advantages of cork bottle stoppers
• suit the (9)……………………………. of quality products
• made from a (10)………………………. material
• easily (11)……………………………..
• cork forests aid (12)……………………….
• cork forests stop (13)…………………………….happening

Collecting As A Hobby

Collecting must one of the varied of human activities and its one that many of us psychologists find fascinating. Many forms of collecting have been dignified with a technical name: an archtophilist collects teddy bears, a philatelist collects postage stamps, and a deltiologist collects postcards. Amassing hundreds or even thousands of postcards, chocolate wrappers or whatever, takes time, energy and money that could surely to much more productive use. And yet there are millions of collectors around the world. Why do they do it?

There are the people who collect because they want to make money – this could be called an instrumental reason for collecting; that is, collecting as a means to an end. They’ll look for, say, antiques that they can buy cheaply and expect to be able to sell at a profit. But there may well be a psychological element, too – buying cheap and selling dear can give the collector a sense of triumph. And as selling online is so easy, more and more people are joining in.

Many collectors collect to develop their social life, attending meetings of a group of collectors and exchanging information on items. This is a variant on joining a bridge club or a gym, and similarly brings them into contact with like-minded people.

Another motive for collecting is the desire to find something special, or a particular example of the collected item, such as a rare early recording by a particular singer. Some may spend their whole lives in a hunt for this. Psychologically, this can give a purpose to a life that otherwise feels aimless. There is a danger, though, that if the individual is ever lucky enough to find what they’re looking for, rather than celebrating their success, they may feel empty, now that the goal that drove them on has gone.

If you think about collecting postage stamps another potential reason for it – Or, perhaps, a result of collecting is its educational value. Stamp collecting opens a window to other countries, and to the plants, animals, or famous people shown on their stamps. Similarly, in the 19th century, many collectors amassed fossils, animals and plants from around the globe, and their collections provided a vast amount of information about the natural world. Without those collections, our understanding would be greatly inferior to what it is.

In the past – and nowadays, too, though to a lesser extent – a popular form of collecting, particularly among boys and men, was trainspotting. This might involve trying to see every locomotive of a particular type, using published data that identifies each one, and ticking off each engine as it is seen. Trainspotters exchange information, these days often by mobile phone, so they can work out where to go to, to see a particular engine. As a by-product, many practitioners of the hobby become very knowledgeable about railway operations, or the technical specifications of different engine types.

Similarly, people who collect dolls may go beyond simply enlarging their collection, and develop an interest in the way that dolls are made, or the materials that are used. These have changed over the centuries from the wood that was standard in 16th century Europe, through the wax and porcelain of later centuries, to the plastics of today’s dolls. Or collectors might be inspired to study how dolls reflect notions of what children like, or ought to like.

Not all collectors are interested in learning from their hobby, though, so what we might call a psychological reason for collecting is the need for a sense of control, perhaps as a way of dealing with insecurity. Stamp collectors, for instance, arrange their stamps in albums, usually very neatly, organising their collection according to certain commonplace principles-perhaps by country in alphabetical order, or grouping stamps by what they depict -people, birds, maps, and so on.

One reason, conscious or not, for what someone chooses to collect is to show the collector’s individualism. Someone who decides to collect something as unexpected as dog collars, for instance, may be conveying their belief that they must be interesting themselves. And believe it or not, there is at least one dog collar museum in existence, and it grew out of a personal collection.

Of course, all hobbies give pleasure, but the common factor in collecting is usually passion: pleasure is putting it far too mildly. More than most other hobbies, collecting can be totally engrossing, and can give a strong sense of personal fulfilment. To non-collectors it may appear an eccentric, if harmless, way of spending time, but potentially, collecting has a lot going for it.

Questions 14-21
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY from the passage.

14. The writer mentions collecting………………….as an example of collecting in order to make money.
15. Collectors may get a feeling of ……………………………..from buying and selling items.
16. Collectors’ clubs provide opportunities to share…………………………
17. Collectors’ clubs offer……………………………with people who have similar interests.
18. Collecting sometimes involves a life-long………………………….for a special item.
19. Searching for something particular may prevent people from feeling their life is completely…………………..
20. Stamp collection may be………………………because it provides facts about different countries.
21. ……………………………….tends to be mostly a male hobby.

Questions 22-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage. In boxes 22-26 write

TRUE                         if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                       if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN            if there is no information on this

22. The number of people buying dolls has grown over the centuries.
23. Sixteenth century European dolls were normally made of wax and porcelain.
24. Arranging a stamp collection by the size of the stamps is less common than other methods.
25. Someone who collects unusual objects may want others to think he or she is also unusual.
26. Collecting gives a feeling that other hobbies are unlikely to inspire.

What’s the purpose of gaining knowledge?

A ‘I would found an institution where any person can find instruction in any subject’ That was the founders motto for Cornell University, and it seems an apt characterization of the different university, also in the USA, where I currently teach philosophy. A student can prepare for a career in resort management, engineering, interior design, accounting, music, law enforcement, you name it. But what would the founders of these two institutions have thought of a course called Arson for Profit’? I kid you not: we have it on the books. Any undergraduates who have met the academic requirements can sign up for the course in our program in ‘fire science’.

B Naturally, the course is intended for prospective arson investigators, who can learn all the tricks of the trade for detecting whether a fire was deliberately set, discovering who did it, and establishing a chain of evidence for effective prosecution in a court of law. But wouldn’t this also be the perfect course for prospective arsonists to sign up for? My point is not to criticize academic programs in fire science: they are highly welcome as part of the increasing professionalization of this and many other occupations. However, it’s not unknown for a firefighter to torch a building. This example suggests how dishonest and illegal behavior, with the help of higher education, can creep into every aspect of public and business life.

C I realized this anew when I was invited to speak before a class in marketing, which is another of our degree programs. The regular instructor is a colleague who appreciates the kind of ethical perspective I can bring as a philosopher. There are endless ways I could have approached this assignment, but I took my cue from the title of the course: ‘Principles of Marketing’. It made me think to ask the students, ‘Is marketing principled?’ After all, a subject matter can have principles in the sense of being codified, having rules, as with football or chess, without being principled in the sense of being ethical. Many of the students immediately assumed that the answer to my question about marketing principles was obvious: no. Just look at the ways in which everything under the sun has been marketed; obviously it need not be done in a principled (=ethical) fashion.

D Is that obvious? I made the suggestion, which may sound downright crazy in light of the evidence, that perhaps marketing is by definition principled. My inspiration for this judgement is the philosopher Immanuel Kant, who argued that any body of knowledge consists of an end (or purpose) and a means.

E Let us apply both the terms ‘means’ and ‘end’ to marketing. The students have signed up for a course in order to learn how to market effectively. But to what end? There seem to be two main attitudes toward that question. One is that the answer is obvious: the purpose of marketing is to sell things and to make money. The other attitude is that the purpose of marketing is irrelevant: Each person comes to the program and course with his or her own plans, and these need not even concern the acquisition of marketing expertise as such. My proposal, which I believe would also be Kant’s, is that neither of these attitudes captures the significance of the end to the means for marketing. A field of knowledge or a professional endeavor is defined by both the means and the end;hence both deserve scrutiny. Students need to study both how to achieve X, and also what X is.

F It is at this point that ‘Arson for Profit’ becomes supremely relevant. That course is presumably all about means: how to detect and prosecute criminal activity. It is therefore assumed that the end is good in an ethical sense. When I ask fire science students to articulate the end, or purpose, of their field, they eventually generalize to something like, ‘The safety and welfare of society,’ which seems right. As we have seen, someone could use the very same knowledge of means to achieve a much less noble end, such as personal profit via destructive, dangerous, reckless activity. But we would not call that firefighting. We have a separate word for it: arson. Similarly, if you employed the ‘principles of marketing’ in an unprincipled way, you would not be doing marketing. We have another term for it: fraud. Kant gives the example of a doctor and a poisoner, who use the identical knowledge to achieve their divergent ends. We would say that one is practicing medicine, the other, murder.

Questions 27-32
Reading passage 3 has six sections A-F. Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

List of headings
i Courses that require a high level of commitment
ii A course title with two meanings
iii The equal importance of two key issues
iv Applying a theory in an unexpected context
v The financial benefits of studying
vi A surprising course title
vii Different names for different outcomes
viii The possibility of attracting the wrong kind of student

27. Section A
28. Section B
29. Section C
30. Section D
31. Section E
32. Section F

Questions 33-36
Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

The ‘Arson for Profit’ course
This is a university course intended for students who are undergraduates and who are studying (33)…………………….. The expectation is that they will become (34)………………………speacialising in arson. The course will help them to detect cases of arson and find (35)…………………………. of criminal intent, leading to successful (36)…………………………. in the courts.

Questions 37-40
Do the following statements agree with the views of the reading passage?

YES                            if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO                              if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN           if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

37. It is difficult to attract students onto courses that do no focus on a career.
38. The ‘Arson for Profit’ course would be useful for people intending to set fire to buildings.
39. Fire science are too academic to help people to be good at the job of firefighting.
40. The writer’s fire science students provided a detailed definition of the purpose of their studies.

Section 1
Read the text below and answer questions 1-8.

The Guardian Newspaper’s Travel

The photo competition is back, giving you another chance to win an incredible trip to Swedish Lapland.

Do you have a camera and love travelling? If so, our annual photography competition run by the Travel section of The Guardian is for you. It’s an opportunity for you to capture the essence of the journeys you make, whether far afield or close to home, and for us to showcase your work online. The winner of each month’s competition will also see their shot mounted and displayed in the end-of-year exhibition for the public at The Guardian’s offices in London. Once the exhibition is finished, each monthly winner will receive a framed copy of their shot to place with pride on their own wall.

There will be a different theme for each month. Members of The Guardian travel writing team, and photographer Michael Ryan of Fotovue.com will judge the monthly entries and the overall winner.

To enter you must be living in the UK from the time you submit your entry into the competition to the time you are selected as a winner. The competition is open to all photographers (both amateur and professional).

The overall winner (chosen from the 12 monthly winners) will go on an amazing four- night trip to Swedish Lapland. The host for this specialist holiday is Fredrik Broman, who has been a nature photographer for 21 years. Fredrik will assist the winner and other participants in photographing a wide variety of winter subjects. Each day has a specific focus. The trip includes winter light photography workshops, an image editing workshop, a night photography course, and an action photography workshop.

Included in the prize: return flights from the UK, four nights’ accommodation with full board, cold weather clothing for the duration of the trip – thermal overalls, winter boots, gloves, hats and woollen socks – fully qualified wilderness guides, and instructors.

The overall winner will be required to write a report of the trip, and take accompanying photographs, which will be printed in the Travel section of The Guardian at a later date. The Guardian reserves the right, however, to modify your report and photos as necessary. Your name will of course appear with the article and photos.

Questions 1-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? In boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                     if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN         if there is no information on this

1. This is the first year that The Guardian has run a travel photography competition.
2. Any photograph for the competition must have been taken on an overseas trip.
3. The end-of-year exhibition in London is free for the public to attend.
4. The judging panel is made up of a group of journalists and a professional photographer.
5. The trip to Swedish Lapland will only be offered to one winner.
6. Every activity on the trip is focused on improving photography techniques.
7. Anyone going on the trip may take some of the cold weather clothing home at the end of the trip.8. Articles written about the trip may be changed before being published.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

Running Headphones

Listening to music on headphones makes running and even working out at the gym much more enjoyable. Here are some alternatives to choose from.

A Plantronics Backbeat Fit
These headphones are really tough so you don’t need to worry about just throwing them into your bag before or after a workout. As well as providing reasonably clear sound they will also last a remarkable eight hours on a single charge.

B Sennheiser CX685 Sports
These headphones are impressively practical. Designed to fit firmly in your ear, however energetic you are, they’re tight without being uncomfortable, and have a handy remote and a mic for phone calls. They will also resist some water being spilt on them.

C Nokia WH-510 Coloud Pop
These stylish headphones have fantastic bass, giving you a bit of extra oomph when you run. They also have a tangle-free cable which avoids any time-consuming messing about before you set off on your run.

D Sony NWZ-W273S
It’s hard to imagine using any other headphones once you’ve tried these. As well as being wireless and waterproof at a depth of 2m, they even have a built-in MP3 player that can hold up to 1,000 songs. A charge provides up to an hour of playback.

E Betron B750S
If you’re on a tight budget, it can always feel risky buying a bottom of the market pair of headphones, but with these you needn’t worry. Not only do they provide fair sound quality, they also come with a pouch to keep them in.

F Happy Plugs
The sound quality on these is decent, although you’re probably not going to be hugely impressed. They also come with a handy remote built into the cable to skip and pause songs with while you work out.

G Powerbeats 2
If money is not an issue, then these are definitely worth considering. They make everything sound so crisp and they’re so light and comfortable that it’s easy to forget that you’re even wearing them.

Questions 9-14
Look at the seven reviews of headphones, A-G. For which headphones are the following statements true? Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.

9. These headphones would suit someone who doesn’t mind spending a lot to get good quality.
10. The battery on these headphones has a surprisingly long life.
11. It is possible to keep in contact with other people while using these headphones.
12. Although these headphones are cheaper than most, music sounds quite good through them.
13. These headphones are very strong and do not require gentle handling.
14. These headphones allow users to move around their playlist of music easily while they are exercising.

Section 2
Read the text below and answer questions 15-21.

A Case Study Of A Risk Assessment For General Office Cleaning

A commercial cleaning service took on a new contract to clean an office complex. Before sending cleaning staff to the offices, the manager of the cleaning service carried out a risk assessment using guidance provided by the Health and Safety Executive (HSE).

To identify the hazards, the cleaning service manager visited the office complex and walked through the areas where cleaning staff would be working, noting things that might pose potential risks. Following this, he consulted the health and safety representatives of the cleaning service about these risks, taking into account the needs of any particular staff members, such as whether they were pregnant or aged under 18.

In order to gather further information, he then had a meeting with the client company during which a number of issues were discussed. These included the client company’s own standard of housekeeping, such as the immediate clearing up of spills and keeping walkways clear, as well as the action to be taken if a fire broke out. He also established what facilities and equipment would be available to the cleaners, including the amount of storage space available, as well as the availability of sinks and taps, etc. and agreed on a method of reporting near-miss accidents and risks discovered by cleaners (e.g. damaged floor tiles).

Following the meeting, the manager created a risk assessment document. He wrote down who could be harmed by each risk or hazard identified and in what way, and he then described what controls, if any, were in existence to manage these hazards. The manager then compared these to the good practice guidance set out on the HSE’s website and identified any areas where improvement was needed.

The manager discussed the findings with the cleaning staff, making sure they understood the risks of the job and how these risks would be monitored. One cleaner, whose first language was not English, had difficulty understanding this, so the manager arranged for translation to be done by a bilingual cleaner from another team. Finally, to ensure that all the cleaning staff had access to a copy of the risk assessment, the manager pinned a copy in the cupboard where cleaning equipment was kept.

Questions 15-21
Complete the flow-chart below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Stages followed by manager in carrying out risk assessment
He visited the offices to be cleaned and noted potential risks
He talked to health and safety (15)……………………about the risks
At a meeting, he talked to the client company about – the policy of the company regarding (16)………………..(e.g. clear walkways) – procedures to be followed in case of a (17)………………….. – facilities available to cleaners (e.g. space available for (18)……………………) – a way of (19)……………….risks and hazards
He created a risk assessment document identifying existing controls of risks and hazards
He compared there to information that the HSE provided on its (20)…………………..
He displayed a copy of the risk assessment inside a (21)………………….available to all cleaning staff

Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27.

Preparing For A Virtual Job Interview

Businesses are always looking for new ways to increase efficiency and profits. For example, organisations often reduce costs by conducting virtual job interviews. The video or Skype interview benefits both interviewer and interviewee, especially when an applicant would otherwise need to travel far. Despite the convenience though, it poses unique challenges.

How a virtual interview is the same
The typical interview process usually entails multiple steps. First, there is screening, lasting about thirty minutes. Its purpose is to ensure candidates have the basic requirements. In the second interview, they’re assessed for their technical skills and on whether they would fit the organisation. Virtual interviews follow the same steps so you’ll need to focus on the same core topics. Identify what the critical topics are based on the job description and prepare to talk about them. If you can, gather inside information so you can impress interviewers with your knowledge.

How a virtual interview is different
Normally, you travel somewhere for an interview. One advantage of that is that you aren’t responsible for the place, whereas in a virtual interview you must ensure you have an appropriate location and appropriate equipment. Modern technology is great when it works, but a pain when it doesn’t. So, it’s wise to check you can operate your webcam, especially if you don’t use it often. Test the headset too and find out how intelligible your voice sounds. It’s also wise to establish what software the interviewer is going to work with and give it a trial run.

Probably the biggest problem in a virtual interview is what the camera can see. You want the interviewer to see you as a professional. Having a messy or cluttered room behind you won’t help you achieve this image – a clear white background is usually a safe bet.

The most important part of your preparation is to run through everything first as best you can. Have a friend conduct a rehearsal with you before the big day. This will help you know how to behave in front of the camera. All things considered, though, virtual interviews should be treated like any other type of interview. Being at home requires as much preparation as a traditional interview. If you follow the steps mentioned above, you have every chance of getting the job you want. Good luck!

Questions 22-27
Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

22. Some companies prefer to interview job applicants digitally because of lower………………..

23. As with the standard recruitment process, virtual recruitment opens with…………..

24. Applicants should read any details about the advertised post carefully and pick out important…………………. which they can discuss if necessary.

25. It is a good idea for applicants to check if they can be clearly understood when they use a……………..

26. Applicants may not be familiar with the…………………….that the person conducting the interview will use, so they should try it out.

27. It is very useful to go through a…………………..of the interview, with someone playing the part of the interviewer.

Section 3
Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

Tuning Up Your Leadership Skills

A Ever since management expert Peter Drucker compared the job of Chief Executive Officer to that of an orchestra conductor, the business world has been exploring comparisons and inspirations from the world of music. Now Warwick Business School Professors Deniz Ucbasaran and Andy Lockett are hitting all the right notes with their study of famous jazz musicians, Leading Entrepreneurial Teams: Insights From Jazz, providing some essential insights for entrepreneurial team leaders.

Ucbasaran and Lockett (together with Durham Business School Professor Michael Humphries) chose jazz for a number of reasons. For a start, jazz bands are synonymous with creativity, improvisation and innovation, all essential ingredients for entrepreneurship. Jazz groups and their members often operate in uncertain and dynamic environments, characterised by rapid change. Yet through collective endeavour many jazz bands find their own structure and harmony and become profitable enterprises – both creatively and commercially.

B The authors decided to focus on three of the best known names in jazz – Duke Ellington, Miles Davis and Art Blakey. American composer Duke Ellington was a pioneering jazz orchestra leader from the 1920s through to the 1970s. Trumpet player Miles Davis was instrumental in the development of a number of new jazz styles, including bebop and jazz fusion. Jazz drummer Arthur ‘Art’ Blakey became famous as the leader of his band the Jazz Messengers. The research focused on the way that these jazz greats created and ran their musical enterprises. In particular, Ucbasaran and Lockett focused on three specific areas of leadership activity: team formation, team coordination and team turnover.

There were strong similarities in the processes the band leaders used to assemble their diverse teams of talent. In particular, they looked for musicians with a different sound or way of playing, one that was unique to that band member and would improve the overall sound of the band. That feature was as much bound up with the personality of the individual musician as it was to do with their technical proficiency.

C But disparate teams, many different personalities, and high levels of creativity are a recipe for group conflict. And, sure enough, there was plenty of dysfunctional conflict and disruptive clashes of egos and personalities evident in the jazz ensembles. Traditional team leadership theory suggests that to get the best team performance the leader should foster conflict that is productive in its effects, while minimising destructive conflict. But this is difficult when the sources of productive and destructive conflict are the same; that is, differences in personality and thinking. So how do leaders deal with destructive conflict? It didn’t seem to bother the likes of Ellington, Davis and Blakey. Their attitude was ‘the music comes first’. The moments of musical genius when everything came together excused minor problems such as if individuals occasionally turned up late for practice, or stepped out of a performance for a quick snack.

D Teams must coordinate their behaviour and action to achieve an outcome. The team leader can assume a number of different roles when helping the team achieve its objectives. Some leaders are very directive, detailing what tasks they want team members to perform, and how they want them to go about those tasks. But that was not the approach Ellington, Davis and Blakey adopted. Instead, these leaders acted more as facilitators, empowering the musicians to collectively coordinate their behaviour and action to produce the desired outcome. As Ucbasaran and Lockett note, Miles Davis discouraged band members from rehearsing in case it led to musical cliches from over-practice. Similarly, he often asked his musicians to play a piece in an unusual key, so they did not rely on learned fingering patterns. The performers were not left entirely to their own devices though. All three leaders created a general framework within which team members could work, providing guidance but also the freedom to explore, express and make mistakes.

E The third aspect of leadership behaviour that Ucbasaran and her colleagues looked at was managing team turnover – people joining and leaving the team. In the jazz ensembles studied, musicians joined and left on a regular basis. Yet the high turnover of team members, despite the resulting loss of knowledge and skills, was seen in a positive light. That was partly because of the advantages of getting a fresh shot of knowledge, ideas and creativity when new members joined.

A common reason for the jazz musicians leaving was that they felt sufficiently qualified to go and run another band. The three band leaders were understanding about this, particularly as it was a process they had also been through. In some cases, in particular with Art Blakey, they actively encouraged and coached team members to become leaders. As the jazz icons Ellington, Davis and Blakey would no doubt agree, there is no magic score that if followed note by note will make you a great leader of creative talent. However, take an entrepreneur, a few cues from the aforementioned jazz trio, mix in a little improvisation, and you are more likely to hear the sweet sound of success. As Louis Armstrong once sang: ‘Now that’s jazz’.

Questions 28-33
The text has five sections, A-E. Which section contains the following? Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet. NB You may choose any letter more than once.

28. a summary of the different aspects of leadership that are covered in the study
29. a description of how band leaders sometimes passed on their leadership skills to others
30. a summary of the backgrounds of the band leaders chosen for the study
31. examples of ways in which one band leader encouraged his musicians to be more creative
32. an overview of the main similarities between the work of business people and jazz musicians
33. a description of two contrasting ways of leading a team

Questions 34-36
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text? In boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                     if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                   if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN        if there is no information on this

34. The study by Ucbasaran and Lockett was the first to compare the worlds of music and business.
35. One reason why jazz musicians were chosen for the research is because the setting in which they work is unpredictable.
36. The researchers decided to cover only certain aspects of leadership.

Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

37. When assembling their teams, the band leaders all prioritised players
A who had special technical skill.
B who were used to working independently.
C who had an individual style of their own.
D who would get on well with other band members.

38. What obstacle might jazz leaders face in reducing destructive conflict among team members?
A They may also reduce productive conflict in the process.
B Their team members tend to have especially strong personalities.
C They are unaware of the theory concerning different types of conflict.
D Their team members may be unwilling to cooperate in reducing this.

39. What approach to group coordination was shared by Ellington, Davis and Blakey?
A They allowed musicians to be creative within certain agreed limits.
B They increased opportunities for success and reduced chances of failure.
C They provided a structure within which musicians could express themselves.
D They coordinated the work of their teams so each member contributed equally.

40. Ucbasaran and her colleagues found that the high turnover of members in jazz bands
A was eventually reduced by the policies of the band leaders.
B was welcomed by band leaders for the benefits it brought.
C was due to a shortage of effective band leaders.
D was a feature of the growing popularity of jazz.

SECTION 1
Read the text below and answer Questions 1-7.

New York Late-Starters String Orchestra

NYLSO, the New York Late-Starters String Orchestra, is something special. It was founded in early 2007, and grew out of a concept developed by The East London Late Starters Orchestra (ELLSO), an award-winning group in England. NYLSO is an amateur orchestra for adult players of violin, viola, cello, and double bass. If you played a string instrument when you were younger and would like to start again, or if you are learning as an adult and would like the chance to play in a group of similar people, then NYLSO is for you! Our goal is to create a fun, supportive, non-competitive environment for adults 18 to 80+ who wish to participate in collective music¬making.

Participants should have basic music reading skills and a willingness to commit to the group, but are not required to audition. It is recommended that you have studied your instrument for at least one year. If you have ever been paid to play your instrument, recently graduated with a degree in performance, or have been playing continuously since elementary school, you may decide we are not the appropriate group for you.

How We Work:
We know that New Yorkers are busy people. It is fine if you miss an entire rehearsal period when an emergency arises. Ultimately, though, too many absences disrupt the function of the group and make it difficult to perform the pieces. Sessions are in six-week rehearsal cycles, with two-hour rehearsals held once a week. We work with the goal of producing one to three very informal ‘friends-and-family’ concerts per year.

Our professional tutor/facilitator serves as coach and conductor during rehearsals. Substitute conductors also join in to teach different sections, providing groups of players with valuable experience in working with different approaches and styles. Everyone is encouraged to play to their fullest potential, whatever that may be, but please recognize that while we do have a conductor, her role is not to provide one-on-one instruction during rehearsals.

NYLSO is a self-supporting collective; we do not receive any other funding. The cost is $80 for each six-week cycle. Payments are applied to the costs of rehearsal space, conductor’s fees, and photocopying music.

Materials You Will Need At Rehearsals:
You will need an instrument, a portable music stand, and any other relevant accessories. You should bring a folder to keep your music together and a soft-lead pencil with an eraser for writing in changes. Sheet music is provided.

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE                         if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                       if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN            if there is no information on this

1. The idea behind NYLSO was based on another orchestra.
2. An ability to read music is essential.
3. The NYLSO might be unsuitable for very advanced level musicians.
4. NYLSO concerts are free to members’ families and friends.
5. Rehearsals always involve the full orchestra playing together.6. The conductor provides her services free to NYLSO.
7. The NYLSO gives advice on what instrument to purchase.

The 7 best running watches

Kate Hilpern advises people on the best watches to use when they go running.

A Soleus FIT 1.0
Soleus claims this has everything you need and nothing you don’t. Water- resistant to 30m and with a built-in rechargeable battery, it’s accurate at measuring speed, pace, distance and calories burnt.

B Nike+ SportWatch GPS
You’ll be hard pushed to find a running watch that finds a GPS signal quicker than this. It will keep you updated on current location, distance covered, number of laps and calories burnt.

C Garmin Forerunner
This watch, which is small enough to wear at the office, is touchscreen and is packed with impressive features, although the battery life is limited.

D Timex Run Trainer 2.0
The hi-res screen makes this a great watch for athletes at any level. The easy-to-use, upgraded menu system makes monitoring pace, speed and distance child’s play. Alerts remind you when it’s time to hydrate or top up the nutrition.

E Garmin Forerunner 10
This is a well-priced, entry-level watch that’s light as well as waterproof and available in a range of colours. Don’t expect added extras, but do expect good basic functionality.

F Nike Fuelband
Described by the Huffington Post as ‘the sports watch you never knew you needed,’ this soft-touch and lightweight watch has been lovingly designed to appear more like a piece of futuristic jewellery than a running watch. But it’s hi-tech too and synchronises with your phone to show the results.

G Suunto Ambit2 S HR
This is better suited to off-roaders rather than urban runners and although it’s quite big, it has a functional design and is compatible with the thousands of Suunto apps available.

For which running watch are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet NB You may use any letter more than once.

8. This would be a suitable and not too expensive first watch for a runner.
9. Care has been taken to make this watch very attractive to look at.
10. This watch can be programmed to let the runner know when it is time to get some refreshment.
11. This watch will need recharging at frequent intervals.
12. Both experienced and inexperienced runners will find this watch useful.
13. Runners will find all the features on this watch are useful.
14. People who do most of their running in cities may find this watch is not appropriate for them.

SECTION 2
Read the text below and answer Questions 15-22.

Employees’ health and safety responsibilities

As an employee you have rights and you have responsibilities for your own wellbeing and that of your colleagues. This article explains what these responsibilities are, and how you can meet them.

Your rights
Your rights as an employee to work in a safe and healthy environment are set down in law and generally can’t be changed or removed by your employer. The most important of these rights are:
• as far as possible, to have any hazards to your health and safety properly controlled
• to be given any personal protective and safety equipment without being charged for it
• to stop work and leave your work area, without being disciplined, if you have reasonable concerns about your safety
• to tell your employer about any health and safety concerns you have
• not to be disciplined if you contact the Health and Safety Executive, or your local authority, if your employer won’t listen to you
• to have breaks during the time you are at work
• to have time off from work during the working week
• to have annual paid holiday.

Your responsibilities
Your most important responsibilities as an employee are:
• to take reasonable care of your own health and safety
• to remove jewellery and avoid loose clothing when operating machinery
• if you have long hair, or wear a headscarf, make sure it’s tucked out of the way as it could get caught in machinery
• to take reasonable care not to expose fellow employees and members of the public to risk by what you do or don’t do in the course of your work
• to co-operate with your employer, making sure you complete the training that is provided and that you understand and follow the company’s health and safety policies
• not to interfere with or misuse anything that’s been provided for your health, safety or welfare
• to report any injuries you suffer as a result of doing your job – your employer may then need to change the way you work.
If you drive or operate machinery, you have a responsibility to tell your employer if you take medication that makes you feel sleepy. If you do, they should temporarily move you to another job if they have one for you to do.

Questions 15-22
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 15-22 on your answer sheet.

Health and Safety at Work
Employees’ rights
• are established by (15)……………. and include the following:
employers should manage any potential dangers to their staff’s health and safety
– any (16)…………….. needed for employees to work safely should be free
– employees may inform management of any (17)……………… they have relating to health and safety
employees are entitled to some (18)……………… while they are working
Employees’ responsibilities
to take off jewellery and dress appropriately for their particular work
– to avoid putting colleagues and others at (19)……………………
– to do any (20)……………….. that the employer offers
to inform the employer of any (21)………………. received while working
– to make sure the employer knows of any (22)…………………… you are taking that might affect performance

Read the text below and answer Questions 23-27.

Our company notices

A Advance warning
Refurbishment of offices in the Perkins Building will start on Monday 22 May, and is expected to be completed by the end of June. Staff based in that building will be individually notified of where they’ll work for that time. On the previous Friday, facilities staff will move everything that needs to go to your new office. Before then, please make a list of what should be moved, and another list of what can be stored.

B Information about financial systems
The review of the company’s financial systems is now complete, and modifications will shortly be introduced. Jane Phillips from Finance will explain the changes and how they affect you, and answer any queries about them, between 12 and 1 pm on 15 March in Room 5.

C Purchasing Manager
As you probably know, Sadia Ahmed is leaving the company on 31 March, after ten years as Purchasing Manager. Her replacement, Jeff Bridges, will join us on the previous Monday. Jeff will be in Room 70 between 12 and 2 pm on 3 April: feel free to drop in and say hello to him during your lunch break.

D We’re doing well!
We’ve received a large and urgent order from one of our major customers. As a result, we’ll need to run the production line for an additional three hours each evening throughout the week beginning 13 March. Any production workers willing to do this shift in addition to their normal work should speak to the Production Manager asap.

E Quality control
Because of recent concerns about product quality, we’re setting up a team to consider ways of raising quality and making recommendations for changes. As staff from any department might have useful ideas, anyone is welcome to join the team – ring Rodrigo Perez on 1012. It will involve fortnightly meetings and some research, over a six-month period.

F New opportunity
Dev Patel will cease to be part-time content editor of the company intranet at the end of April, as his new role in Marketing leaves him no time for it. We’re looking for two people to take over. If you’re interested, and can work an extra three or four hours a week (for extra pay, of course!), contact Maggie Campbell on 2146.

G And finally…
We hope to re-start the company tennis championship, which hasn’t taken place for the last three years. If this is something for you, talk to Bill Sinclair on extension 2371. You don’t need to be a star player!

For which company notice are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 23-27 on your answer sheet

23. Staff are needed to work on internal communications.
24. People are needed to help improve an internal system.
25. Staff are asked if they want to take part in an internal competition.
26. Volunteers are asked to work overtime for a limited period.
27. Staff will be told where to work temporarily.

SECTION 3
Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

Vanilla – the most wonderful flavor in the world

Vanilla is the most popular and widely used flavor in the world. And, yet, the vanilla orchid is only grown in a few countries. Below you’ll discover why these countries are ideal and how the vanilla from each region differs.

Mexico
Vanilla (‘Vanilla planifolia Andrews) originated in Mexico and for centuries was the exclusive secret of the native Totonac Indians, who were later conquered by the Aztecs. The Aztecs in turn were conquered by the Spanish forces led by Cortez in 1520. He brought vanilla pods home to Spain, thus introducing the flavorful pods to the rest of the world.

However, Mexico remained the sole grower of vanilla for another 300 years. The particular relationship between the vanilla orchid and an indigenous bee called the Melipone was crucial. It was responsible for pollinating the flowers, resulting in fruit production.

Vanilla pods should be picked when the tip begins to turn yellow. The curing process gives the pods their characteristic brown color as well as their flavor and aroma. In Mexico, farmers cure the pods by wrapping them in blankets and straw mats and then placing them in ovens for 24 to 48 hours. After that, the pods are spread outdoors to absorb heat during the day and then placed in wooden boxes overnight. Once properly cured, they are stored to further develop the flavor. The entire curing process takes three to six months, making it a very labor-intensive process. Vanilla from Mexico has a flavor that combines creamy tones with a deep, spicy character, making it a delicious complement to chocolate, cinnamon and other warm spices. It also works wonderfully in tomato sauces.

Madagascar
Around 1793, a vanilla plant was smuggled from Mexico to the Island of Reunion, east of Africa. For almost 50 years, the production of vanilla struggled. The vines grew successfully with beautiful blossoms but vanilla pods were infrequent. Without the Melipone bee, the flowers weren’t being fertilized beyond occasional pollination by other insects. It wasn’t until 1836 that Charles Morren, a Belgian botanist, discovered the pollination link between bee and plant. And then in 1841, Edmond Albius of Reunion developed an efficient method for fertilizing the flower by hand. Now, growers could choose the best flowers to pollinate, resulting in a healthier and higher quality vanilla pod.

Eventually, the plants arrived on the nearby island of Madagascar, where hand pollination proved its worth. Assisted by the climate and rich soil, hand pollination by the country’s skilled farmers has enabled Madagascar to become the world’s top vanilla producer in quantity and, many would argue, quality

The curing process is similar to that in Mexico with one difference. The farmers initiate the process by immersing the green vanilla pods in hot water for some time. They then store them in sweat boxes before beginning the routine of spreading them outdoors during the day and packing them away at night. The different curing method used contributes to the overall flavor of the vanilla.

The sweet, creamy and mellow flavor is the one most people identify with vanilla. This flavor and the pod’s ability to hold that flavor in both hot and cold applications make it an exceptional ‘all-purpose’ vanilla which is many people’s first choice for a wide range of sweet recipes – from cooking and baking to ice creams and buttercreams.

Tahiti
Like the other countries, Tahiti’s tropical climate makes it ideal for growing vanilla. However, Tahiti differs in the species of vanilla that is most common: Vanilla tahitensis Moore. This is the hybrid of two vanilla species introduced in the 1800s. These two species were skilfully crossed in the next few decades, to create the plump Tahitian vanilla pods we know today.

The curing process also differs from other countries’. Mature pods are first stacked in a cool place until they are completely brown (five to ten days) and then rinsed briefly in clear water, a unique characteristic of the method used in Tahiti. For the next month, growers expose the pods to the gentle morning sunlight. In the afternoon, they bind the pods in cloths and store them in crates until the next morning, to promote transpiration. Little by little, the vanilla pods lose weight and shrink. Throughout this phase, the workers carefully smooth and even out the pods with their fingers. Then after a month, the final step is to leave the pods in a shaded and well-ventilated spot for 40 days to lower their moisture content.

This species of orchid combined with Tahiti’s advantageous climate and soil results in a vanilla that has fruity and sweet tones. Tahitian vanilla is especially vulnerable to heat and is therefore best used in refrigerated and frozen desserts, fruit pies and smoothies.

Indonesia
Indonesia is the second largest producer of vanilla. However, Indonesian production methods focus on quantity over quality. Unlike other regions, where vanilla beans are picked only when ripe, Indonesian growers harvest all the beans at one time, a labor-saving adjustment.

The curing process also features production shortcuts such as the use of propane heaters to speed up drying. The use of such heat, which chemically alters the beans, essentially ‘bums off flavor components while adding a smoky tone, resulting in a less complex taste and a sharper flavor. Indonesian vanilla works well when blended with vanillas from other regions and, because it’s more economical, it makes the end product more affordable.

Look at the following statements (Questions 28-31) and the list of countries below. Match each statement with the correct country, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet.

28 The vanilla that is grown here was created from more than one type of vanilla plant.
29 This vanilla is often mixed with other types of vanilla.
30 Some people claim that this country produces the finest vanilla.
31 This vanilla goes well with both sweet and savoury ingredients.

List of Countries
A Mexico
B Madagascar
C Tahiti
D Indonesia

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 32-34 on your answer sheet.

32 What prevented countries, apart from Mexico, from growing vanilla in the 17th and 18th centuries?
A the Aztecs’ refusal to let the pods be exported
B the lack of the most suitable pollinating insect
C the widespread ignorance of the existence of the plant
D the poor condition of the vanilla pods that Cortez collected

33 What does the writer suggest was the main reason for the success of vanilla cultivation on Madagascar?
A the adoption of a particular agricultural technique
B the type of vanilla orchid that was selected
C the unique quality of the soil on the islan
D the rapidly increasing number of growers

34 The writer believes that Madagascan vanilla is so popular because
A it works well in a variety of main courses and puddings.
B its pod is less likely than others to break up when it is cooked.
C its taste is widely considered to be the standard taste of vanilla.
D it is the one that is used in a number of commercial frozen desserts.

Questions 35-40
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.

How vanilla pods are cured in Tahiti
Tahitian farmers start by leaving the pods to turn 35………………………all over. They then wash them quickly before the main stage of the curing process begins. They place the pods in the 36………………………during the early part of the day. Cloths are then wrapped round them and they are left in boxes overnight. This procedure encourages 37…………………Gradually, the 38…………………of the individual pods starts to decrease. While this is happening, the farmers continue to work on the pods. They use their 39…………………to flatten them out. For the last stage in the curing process, the pods are kept in a cool place which is open to the air, so that the amount of 40…………………………within them is reduced.

SECTION 1 
Read the text below and answer Questions 1-7.

Online roommate finder: Toronto

I have one room available in a large apartment located just off Queen and Bathurst in Toronto. The room is fully furnished with a double bed, desk, shelf and wardrobe.

About us: I’m Sasha! I’m Canadian, and I’ve been living in this apartment since I was a teenager. I’m 23 and work in a restaurant. These past two years, my best friend has been living here but as she’s now moving to Europe there is a room available as of October 1. The third room is occupied by Simon, who is from Australia. He works part-time in a music shop downtown and is a great drummer. We both like keeping the place neat and tidy – I actually enjoy cleaning in my spare time and sometimes we do it together as a roommate team (we make it fun!). I love watching movies, exploring, getting out of the city and into the outdoors, and listening to music.

The apartment itself is very large and comes equipped with unlimited wi-fi, a fully stocked kitchen, cable television, and Netflix. The bedroom is a long way from the living room, so it shouldn’t disturb you if people come round and besides, we are certainly very respectful. Oh! We also have two cats who are well-behaved but they might be a problem if you have allergies. If you have a pet, that’s no problem – these cats get along with other animals.
We love having people coming from other countries as it’s really fun having the opportunity to show them around the neighborhood (it’s a great neighborhood – lots of character and plenty to do). That said, we’re certainly interested in living with Canadians too! We’re very easy-going and open-minded and just hope that our new roommate will be the same.

Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page 37?
In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE                           if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                         if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN              if there is no information on this

1. The room available has two beds.
2. The Australian in Sasha’s apartment is a musician.
3. Sasha does all the cleaning in the apartment.
4. Sasha likes being in the open air.
5. The room available would be suitable for someone who likes to be quiet.
6. Sasha thinks her apartment is in the best part of Toronto.
7. Sasha has never had a roommate from Canada.

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.

Smartphone fitness apps

A Pacer
Although they were previously split into ‘pro’ and ‘free’ versions, Pacer’s developer now generously includes all the features in one free app. That means you can spend no money, yet use your smartphone’s GPS capabilities to track your jogging routes, and examine details of your pace and calories burned.

B Beat2
There are a wealth of running apps available, but Beat2 is a good one. This free app monitors your pace – or if you have a wrist or chest-based heart rate monitor, your beats per minute – and offers up its specially curated playlists to give you the perfect music for the pace you’re running at, adding a whole new dimension to your run. The best bit is when you explode into a sprint and the music pounds in your ears. Or if you fancy something different, the app also has In-App Purchases, including tales of past sporting heroes you can listen to while you run.

C Impel
If you’re serious about the sport you do, then you should be serious about Impel. As smartphone fitness tools go it’s one of the best, allowing you to track your performance, set goals and see daily progress updates. If you’re ever not sure where to run or cycle you can find user-created routes on the app, or share your own. All of that comes free of charge, while a premium version adds even more tools.

D Fast Track
There are plenty of GPS running apps for smartphones, but Fast Track is an excellent freebie. Although you naturally get more features if you pay for the ‘pro’ version, the free release gets you GPS tracking, a nicely designed map view, your training history, music, and cheering. Yes, you read the last of those right – you can have friends cheer you on as you huff and puff during a run. If you can afford the ‘pro’ version, you can add possible routes, voice coaches, smartwatch connectivity and more; but as a starting point, the free app gets you moving.

Questions 8-14
Look at the four reviews of smartphone fitness apps, A-D, on page 39. For which app are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

8. This app can be used for more than one sport.
9. You have to pay if you want this app to suggest where you can go.
10. This app has well-presented visuals.
11. You do not have to pay for any of the features on this app.
12. You can pay to download true stories on this app.
13. You can get ideas about where to go from other people on this app.
14. This app gives you details of the energy you have used.

SECTION 2
Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Why you should delegate tasks to team members

Delegation helps you get more done, helps your team members progress through learning new things and spreads the load in the team.

When you give someone a project task to do, make sure that they have all the information they require to actually get on and do it. That includes specifying the date it is due, writing a clear definition of the task, providing any resources they need to get it done or names of people you expect them to talk to. It also means informing them of any expectations you have, such as delivering it as a spreadsheet rather than a Word document.

If you have concerns that someone doesn’t have the skills to do a good job (or they tell you this outright), make sure that you offer some help. It might take longer this time but next time they will be able to do it without you, so it will save you time in the long run.

Once you have given the task to someone, let them get on with it. Tell them how you expect to be kept informed, like through a report once a week. Then let them get on with it, unless you feel things are not progressing as you would like.

As a project manager, you have to retain some of the main project responsibilities for yourself. You shouldn’t expect someone else on the project team to do your job. Equally, don’t delegate tasks such as dull administrative ones, just because you don’t want to do them. But remember that project management is a leadership position so you don’t want your role to be seen as too basic.

One way to free up your time to spend on the more strategic and leadership parts of project management is to delegate things that are regular, like noting whether weekly targets have been met. Could someone in your team take this on for you? This can be a useful way of upskilling your team members to complement any ongoing training and allowing them to gain confidence too.

So in summary, be clear, supportive, and don’t micromanage. Don’t become the problem on your project that prevents progress just because you’re afraid to leave people alone to get on with their jobs.

Questions 15-20
Complete the sentences below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. Ensure team members are aware of any…………………………………there are regarding how the work should be presented.
16. Make sure support is made available if any………………………………exist as to the team member’s ability to do the work.
17. Ask the team member to detail how the work is developing, for example by providing a regular…………………………………
18. Don’t delegate administrative tasks simply because they are…………………………………….
19. Managers can ask a team member to check on the achievement of …………………………………………… at fixed intervals.
20. If you………………………………………………….you risk delaying the whole project.

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

Choosing the right format for your CV

A good CV should be clear, simple and easy to understand. Here are four of the most popular CV formats and advice on when to use them:

Chronological
This is the traditional CV format and is extremely popular because it allows employers to see all the posts you have held in order. It provides flexibility because it works in almost all circumstances, the exception being if you have blocks of unemployment that are difficult to account for. This type of format is particularly useful when you have a solid and complete working history spanning five years or more.

Functional
The functional CV is designed to describe your key skills rather than the jobs you have done. The functional CV format is typically used by people who have extensive gaps in their employment history, or have often changed jobs. It also suits those who want to go in a different direction work-wise and change industry. You might choose it if you want to highlight skills learned early in your career, points that might get missed if a chronological format is used. It is also appropriate if you have done little or no actual work, for example, if you are one of the current years graduates.

Because this format is often used to cover a patchy employment history, some interviewers may view such CVs with suspicion, so be very careful should you choose it.

Achievement
An alternative to the functional CV is to use an achievement-based resume highlighting key achievements in place of skills. This can help show your suitability for a role if you lack direct experience of it.

Non-traditional
With the explosion of digital and creative industries over recent years, CV formats have become more and more imaginative. You can present information through graphics, which can be more visually engaging and turn out to be an unusual but winning option. This will definitely make you stand out from the crowd. It also demonstrates design skills and creativity in a way that a potential employer can see and feel. However, a highly creative CV format is only really appropriate for creative and artistic sectors, such as those involving promoting products, though it would also work for the media too.

Questions 21-27
Complete the notes below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

CV formats
There are several different formats including:
Chronological
– very common
– gives (21)…………………………… in most cases
– perhaps inappropriate if there are periods where (22)…………………………. is not easy to explain

Functional
– appropriate for people who intend to follow a new (23)………………………………… in their career
– suits recent graduates
– can create (24)……………………………………..in recruiters, so is best used with caution

Achievement
– focuses mainly on what the person has achieved
– may be advisable if the person has no (25)…………………………………in the area

Non-traditional
– enables use of attractive (26)………………………………………..to present data –
– suits applications for jobs in marketing or (27)…………………………..

SECTION 3
Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

DINOSAURS AND THE SECRETS THEY STILL HOLD

I was recently part of a team of palaeontologists that discovered a new dinosaur. Living in what is now China, the species would have resembled a strange bird. It was about the size of a sheep and covered in feathers, with a sharp beak that it probably used to crack open shellfish. It was given the formal scientific name Tongtianlong, but we called it ‘Mud Dragon’ because its skeleton was discovered in rock that had hardened from ancient mud. It seems that the creature got trapped in the mud and died. Then its fossil remains were found a few months ago when workmen were excavating a site in order to build a school.

It is every dinosaur-obsessed child’s dearest wish to discover and name a completely new species. In fact what my colleagues and I did wasn’t that unusual. New dinosaurs are appearing everywhere these days – about 50 each year. And this pace shows no signs of slowing, as different areas continue to open up to fossil hunters and a fresh generation of scientists comes of age. Because of this plentiful supply of new fossils, we now know more about dinosaurs than we do about many modern animals. But there are still many unsolved mysteries.

Dinosaurs didn’t start out as huge monsters like Tyrannosaurus Rex. Instead they evolved from a group of angular, cat-sized reptiles called dinosauromorphs. These creatures remained small and rare for millions of years until they developed into dinosaurs. The boundary between dinosauromorphs and dinosaurs is becoming less and less distinct with each new discovery that’s made, but what’s becoming clear is that it took millions of years for these first dinosaurs to spread around the world, grow to huge sizes and become truly dominant.

Some discoveries in the 1970s, like the agile and strangely bird-like Deinonychus, proved that dinosaurs were far more dynamic and intelligent than previously thought. Some palaeontologists even proposed that they were warm-blooded creatures like modern birds with a constant high body temperature that they controlled internally, rather than from warming themselves by lying in the sun. A few decades later opinions are still mixed. The problem is that dinosaurs can’t be observed. Palaeontologists must rely on studying fossils. Some results are convincing: we know from studying their bones that dinosaurs had rapid growth rates, just like modern, warm-blooded animals. Other palaeontologists, however, use the same fossils to suggest that dinosaurs were somewhere between cold-blooded reptiles and warm-blooded birds. More studies are needed to provide more clarity.

The discovery of Deinonychus with its long arms, skinny legs, arched neck and big claws on its feet, helped to strengthen the theory that birds evolved from dinosaurs. In the late 1990s, the discovery of thousands of feather- covered dinosaurs closed the argument. But the fossils raised another question: why did feathers first develop in dinosaurs? They probably originated as simple, hair-like strands — a necessary means of keeping warm. Many dinosaurs retained this basic fluffy coat, but in one group the strands modified. They grew bigger, started to branch out and changed into feathers like those on modern birds. They lined the arms, and sometimes the legs, forming wings. These feathers were probably for display: to attract mates or scare off rivals. They appeared in species such as the ostrich-like Ornithomimosaur. Such creatures were too large to fly. Flight may actually have come about by accident when smaller winged dinosaurs began jumping between trees or leaping in the air, and suddenly found that their wings had aerodynamic properties. This is one of the most stimulating new notions about dinosaurs and a fascinating area for further investigation.

There’s something else that these feathers can tell us. They allow us to determine what colour dinosaurs were. If you look at modern bird feathers under a microscope, you can see tiny blobs called melanosomes. These structures contain melanin, one of the main colour-producing pigments in animals. Some are round, others are egg-shaped, etc. And that’s important, because different shapes contain different colour pigments. So if you can identify the shape, you can identify the colour. A few years ago, some palaeontologists realised that you could find melanosomes in particularly well-preserved fossil feathers. They discovered that different dinosaurs had different melanosomes, which meant they had a variety of colours. Dinosaurs, therefore, probably came in a rainbow of colours – yet another thing that links them to modern birds.

The most enduring mystery of all, which has been argued about ever since the first dinosaur fossils were found, is ‘Why aren’t dinosaurs around today?’ Of course, we now know that birds evolved from dinosaurs, so some dinosaurs do continue in a sense. But there’s nothing like a Tyrannosaurus Rex today. They dominated the planet for over 150 million years, but suddenly disappeared from the fossil record 66 million years ago. That’s when a 10 km-wide asteroid came out of space and struck what is now Mexico, impacting with huge force and unleashing earthquakes, tidal waves, wildfires and hurricane-force winds. Although palaeontologists still like to argue about what part the asteroid played in the dinosaurs’ extinction, there really isn’t much of a mystery left. The asteroid did it and did it quickly. There are few signs that dinosaurs were struggling before the impact. None survived except a few birds and some small furry mammals. They found themselves in an empty world, and as the planet started to recover, they evolved into new creatures, including the first apes, and so the long journey began to the beginning of humankind.

Questions 28-32
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

The discovery of Tongtianlong

This species of dinosaur has only recently been found in an area of China. Scientists believe that it was bird-like in appearance and probably no bigger than a 28…………………………………………….It is thought to have eaten 29……………………………………….and it used its 30…………………………………………..to get through their hard exterior. The fossil of Tongtianlong was found surrounded by 31……………………………………….under the ground where the foundations of a new 32…………………………………..were being dug.

Questions 33-37
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet

33. What does the writer suggest about finding new dinosaurs?
A Many scientists dream of being able to do so one day.
B It is probable that most have now been discovered.
C People are running out of places to look for them.
D It is becoming relatively common to dig one up.

34. In the fourth paragraph, what does the writer suggest about palaeontologists?
A They should study the fossilised bones of dinosaurs more closely.
B Their theories are based on evidence that can be interpreted in different ways.
C It is impossible to have any confidence in the proposals they have made.
D It is worrying that they still cannot agree about dinosaurs’ body temperature.

35. When describing the theory of how dinosaurs began to fly, the writer is
A amused that their flight probably came about by chance.
B surprised by the reason for the initial development of feathers.
C excited by the different possibilities it holds for future research.
D confused that feathers were also present on some creatures’ legs.

36. One significance of melanosomes is that they

A provide further evidence of where birds evolved from.
B are only found in certain parts of the world.
C can be clearly seen in most fossilised feathers.
D are only found in certain birds and dinosaurs.

37. Which of the following best summarises the writer’s point in the final paragraph?
A Scientists are right to continue questioning the effects of the asteroid strike.
B Large flightless dinosaurs may have existed after the asteroid hit.
C The dinosaurs were already declining before the asteroid hit.
D The effects of the asteroid strike killed most dinosaurs.

Questions 38-40
Look at the following statements (Questions 38-40) and the list of prehistoric animals below.
Match each statement with the correct animal, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

38. It may have used its feathers to frighten off members of the same species.
39. This species resembles a large flightless bird that exists today.
40. Finding this species made scientists revise their opinion of the brain power of dinosaurs.

List of Prehistoric Animals
A Tongtianlong
B Tyrannosaurus Rex
C Deinonychus
D Ornithomimosaur

SECTION 1 
Read the text below and answer Questions 1-7.

The Best Suitcases

A Briggs and Riley Weekender
A weekend suitcase that’s sophisticated and unusually spacious for its type. The strong nylon outer fabric is water and abrasion resistant, so it should handle any knocks without showing signs of damage.

B Mulberry Scotchgrain
Trimmed in brown leather, with gold details, this bag from the renowned fashion house is a truly indulgent buy. If you’re investing this much in a suitcase then you’d better be planning an amazing holiday to go with it.

C Rimova Salsa
A design you can trust, this case is built from super light polycarbonate and is incredibly solid. The built-in combination lock offers state-of-the-art security so you can travel with peace of mind.

D Tripp Holiday
Simple and affordable, the Tripp range offers a great selection of tough cases. They also come in a huge range of cheerful colours that should go with anything you choose to put on, and you’ll definitely be able to spot it on the luggage carousel at the airport.

E Eastpak Tranverz Holdall
For those who want something in between an annual holiday suitcase and a weekend bag, this is a fantastic compromise. With two wheels and a telescopic handle, the bag is guaranteed for 30 years. Did we mention it also comes in colourful leopard print?

F Herschel Parcel
From the brand behind some of today’s most popular rucksacks, this suitcase really is a delight. Custom printed, with Herschel’s signature leather toggles this well-crafted case is as cool, stylish and up to date as they come.

G The Diplomat
Travel in style with this beautiful suitcase that goes back to the days when trains ran on steam and air travel was leisurely. The leather case, part of the Steamline Luggage range, features roller wheels and a metal frame to hold it in shape.

Questions 1-7
Look at the seven reviews of suitcases, A-G, on page 16.
For which suitcase are the following statements true?
Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once.
1. This suitcase is for those who wish to purchase expensive luggage.
2. This suitcase is the right one for people who like to follow the latest fashion.
3. It is easy to choose one of these suitcases to match most clothing.
4. The manufacturer is confident that this suitcase will last a long time.
5. Items in this suitcase will not be affected if it gets wet.
6. This suitcase is of a useful, medium size.
7. Those who want to be reminded of an earlier age of travel will like this suitcase.

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.

The Oxford School Of Drama

One-Year Acting Course
This is an intensive course which is designed for those who have completed their academic studies and have some theatre or film experience already. In order to be accepted you should be a high achiever, knowledgeable about the industry and determined to succeed.

Term One: Technical classes in acting, voice, movement, applied movement and characterisation, music, singing, film, radio and professional development. The term finishes with an internal production given for tutors and students.

Term Two: All technical classes continue from term one. There is an internal performance of a one-act play, the recording of an audio showreel at a professional studio and the Showcase Drama in front of an invited audience including casting directors and agents.

Term Three: Technical classes continue with additional focus on audition technique, workshops and masterclasses. This term includes a public performance of a play outdoors in the grounds of Blenheim Palace, and the chance to act a short film recorded on location by a professional crew.

How to Apply
Entry to The Oxford School of Drama is by audition only and there are no academic requirements for any of our courses.

Once we have received your application form and audition fee, we will email you with a date for your audition and further details about what to expect when you are here.

For your initial audition, you will need to prepare two contrasting speeches from plays, lasting no longer than two minutes. There will also be some group work for which you will need to wear loose, comfortable clothing.

If you are applying from overseas, you will be able to submit your first audition by means of DVD, YouTube or link to a secure website. You will be invited to submit this once we have received your application form and audition fee. If you are successful in your first audition, you will be invited to attend future auditions here at the school. The school will provide a free bus from central Oxford for those attending auditions.

Questions 8-14

TRUE                        if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN           if there is no information on this

8. Students can begin the one-year course without any previous involvement in acting.
9. Students will act in a performance in front of their classmates at the end of the first term.
10. Family members may attend a performance during the second term.
11. Students are required to make a film on their own in the last term of the course.
12. In their first audition, candidates perform speeches they have worked on in advance.
13. The Oxford School of Drama will send candidates details of local accommodation.
14. Overseas candidates can do all their auditions via a digital link.

SECTION 2
Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

Border Crossing For Commercial Vehicles

This Border Crossing Guide is designed for drivers and motor carriers operating commercial vehicles at Michigan’s international border crossings. This information will help you cross the border from the US into Canada, and from Canada into the US.

Your first point of contact at the border consists of Primary Inspection. The best way to clear customs at Primary Inspection is to make sure Customs gets information about your shipment before you set off, using the Pre-Arrival Processing System (PAPS). When using this you need to provide information about your shipment, and you also need to send proof of a current annual inspection for your vehicle, tractor and trailer.

Before you arrive at the border, make sure you have all your paperwork up to date and ready to present at Primary Inspection. You’ll need a photo ID in addition to your birth certificate or passport. Drivers must also turn on interior cab lights and open all interior drapes or blinds to sleeper areas for easy inspection.

If all of your paperwork is in order and was processed ahead of time, you will be released at the primary lane and this may be your only stop. If you are not a Canadian or US citizen, a visa is obligatory and you will also be required to complete an I-94 card. 1-94 cards are available only at border crossings into the United States. Drivers who clear customs at Primary Inspection will be instructed to report to Immigration to fill out the I-94 card and receive verbal clearance from a US official to proceed into the United States. The charge for the I-94 card is $6.

If your paperwork is not in order, you will be directed to Secondary Inspection. When you get there, look for the signs for Truck Inspection and follow these.

Questions 15-20
Complete the flow-chart below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

Procedure for border crossing
Before setting off – to speed up the border crossing use PAPS – for this send your (15)………………..details and current vehicle inspection documents
Before arriving at the border – check that documents such as (16)……………..and birth certificate/ passport are ready for inspection – make sure the (17)……………….are on inside the vehicle – check that the (18)……………..in the vehicle can be easily seen
At the border (Primary inspection) – this may be the only stop if paperwork is in order – Non US/ Canadian citizens must have a visa and go to the (19)……………..area to complete an I-94 card (there is a small (20)………………..for this) and to receive verbal clearance
At the border (Secondary inspection) – if there is a problem with paperwork you will be sent to Truck Inspection

Appendix: Dealing With Absence In The Workplace

This appendix considers how to handle problems of absence and gives guidance about authorised and unauthorised absence of employees from work.

The organisation should be aware of the rights of employees and in particular the requirements of the Equality Act 2010 when making any decisions about absences of employees who are disabled. In these cases the employer should consider what reasonable adjustments could be made in the workplace to help the employee. This might be something as simple as supplying an appropriate chair for the use of the employee. In cases where an employee suffers from an allergy caused by something in the workplace, the employer should consider remedial action or a transfer to alternative work.

If the absence is because of temporary difficulties relating to dependants, the employee may be entitled to have time off under the provisions of the Employment Rights Act 1996. In cases where the employee has difficulty managing both work and home responsibilities, employees have the right to request flexible ways of working, such as job-sharing, and employers must have a good business reason for rejecting any such application.

Employers should investigate unexpected absences promptly and the employee should be asked for an explanation at a return-to-work interview. In order to show both the employee concerned and other employees that absence is regarded as a serious matter and may result in dismissal, it is very important that persistent absence is dealt with firmly and consistently. Records showing lateness and the duration of and explanations for all spells of absence should be kept to help monitor levels of absence or lateness.

If the employer wishes to contact the employee’s doctor for more information about a medical condition, he or she must notify the employee in writing that they intend to make such an application and they must secure the employee’s consent in writing. Consideration should be given to introducing measures to help employees, regardless of status or seniority, who may be suffering from stress. The aim should be to identify employees affected and encourage them to seek help and treatment.

Questions 21-27
Complete the notes below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

Absence in the workplace

Employees’ rights
• help with issues related to disabilities, e.g. provision of a suitable (21)…………..
• provision of arrangements to deal with any work-related (22)……………………
• time off work to deal with short-term problems of (23)………………….
• possibility of arrangements that are (24)………………… to help with domestic responsibilities

Recommendations to employers
• make it clear that absence is a possible reason for (25)………………….
• ask employees for consent before contacting their (26)………………..
• identify employees affected by (27)………………… and provide support

Section 3
The text on pages 25 and 26 has nine paragraphs, A-l. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-xi, in boxes 28-36 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings
i Various sources of supplies
ii The effects of going outside
iii Oymyakon past and present
iv A contrast in the landscape
v Animals that can survive the cold
vi How Oymyakon is affected by its location
vii Keeping out the cold
viii Not the only challenging time of the year
ix Better than its reputation
x Very few facilities in buildings
xi More snow than anywhere else in the world

28 Paragraph A
29 Paragraph B
30 Paragraph C
31 Paragraph D
32 Paragraph E
33 Paragraph F
34 Paragraph G
35 Paragraph H
36 Paragraph I

A Visit To Oymyakon, The World’s Coldest Town

A You don’t need a sat nav to drive to Oymyakon. From Yakutsk you cross the Lena River and simply follow the M56 almost all of the way before taking a left at Tomtor for the final few kilometres. The journey takes two days of hard driving; two days of glistening landscapes, frozen rivers and untouched snow; two days of endless forest and breathtaking beauty; two days to penetrate the heart of Siberia and reach the coldest inhabited place on Earth. The beauty surprised me. Siberia isn’t known for its pleasant appearance. It’s always billed as a place of hardship. But for hour after hour, the wintry wonderland was bathed in a crisp, clean sunshine, presenting a continuous panorama of conifer trees wreathed in silence and snow.

B As we left the flat plain, the road began to twist and turn, leading us into untouched hills and on towards the Verkhoyansk Mountains. Beneath their snow-clad peaks, the slopes became steeper and the valleys deeper. Down in a valley, we stopped to look at a hot spring beside the road. It was immediately obvious against the snow – a spot shrouded in heavy mist. Trees emerged from the strange haze as ghostly silhouettes.

C Despite the magical ambience of the Siberian wilderness, its reputation for hardship hit me every time I climbed out of the vehicle. Within less than a minute, the skin all over my face began to feel as if it were burning. If I wasn’t wearing my two sets of gloves, I rapidly lost the feeling in my fingertips. I learned very quickly not to draw too deep a breath because the shock of the cold air in my lungs invariably set me off on an extended bout of coughing. Siberia in winter is a world barely fit for human habitation. This is a place of such searing cold that it bites through multiple layers of clothing as if they aren’t there.

D Oymyakon is a quiet little town – the world’s coldest – of about 550 inhabitants, with its own power station, a school, two shops and a small hospital. It probably originated as a seasonal settlement where reindeer herders spent the summer on the banks of the Indigirka River.

E The temperature when I arrived was -45°C – not particularly cold, I was informed. A number of factors combine to explain Oymyakon’s record low temperatures. It is far from the ocean, with its moderating effect on air temperature.

In addition, the town sits in a valley, below the general level of the Oymyakon Plateau, which, in turn, is enclosed on all sides by mountains up to 2,000 metres in height. As the cold air sinks, it accumulates in the valley, with little wind to disturb it. Oymyakon’s average temperature in January is -50°C. Lower temperatures have been recorded in Antarctica, but there are no permanent inhabitants there.

F Day-to-day life in Oymyakon presents certain challenges during the long winters. There are hardly any modern household conveniences. Water is hacked out of the nearby river as great chunks of ice and dragged home on a sledge. The giant ice cubes are stacked outdoors and carried into the house one at a time to melt when needed. The lack of running water also means no showers or baths, or indeed flushing toilets. Since 2008, the town’s school has enjoyed the luxury of indoor toilets, however. It’s one of the small number of civic buildings in the centre of town that are linked to the power station.

G The power station provides winter heating in the form of hot water, but many houses lie outside its range and rely on their own wood-burning stove. Fuel is plentiful enough in the surrounding forest, but someone still has to venture out to cut the wood. Everybody in Oymyakon owns good boots, a hat made of animal fur and fur-lined mittens. The boots are usually made from reindeer hide, which is light but keeps your feet very warm – the individual hairs are hollow, like a thin tube with air inside. Since air is a poor conductor of heat, the skin makes excellent winter footwear, and felt soles give added insulation. Hats come in a variety of furs, including fox, raccoon, sable and mink.

H Oymyakon’s two shops keep a decent stock of basic foods in tins and packets, but locals also have do-it yourself options, including hunting, trapping, ice-fishing, reindeer-breeding and horse-breeding. Indeed, being self-sufficient runs in the blood in Siberia. The Oymyakon diet relies heavily on meat for its protein, a primary source of energy in the prolonged winter. Unsurprisingly, given the weather, everyone eats heartily in Oymyakon. Atypical meal I was offered consisted of a thick horse soup and huge piles of horse meatballs, all washed down with cloudberry cordial.

I Spring is the best season here, I’m told. The snow melts, the river flows once more and the forest is full of wild flowers. But it’s short. In the summer Oymyakon can be uncomfortably hot. Much of the forest becomes boggy, so mosquitoes are a constant presence. Oymyakon’s climate certainly wouldn’t suit me, but residents I spoke to said they wouldn’t live anywhere else.

Questions 37-40
Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

Why Oymyakon gets so cold

Oymyakon is a long way from any 37………. which would prevent the temperature from falling so low. The town is located in a 38……….. within a plateau surrounded by 39…………………Because there is not much 40 ………..cold air collects in the town.