Author: theieltsbridge

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 1

    ATTITUDES TO LANGUAGE

    It is not easy to be systematic and objective about language study. Popular linguistic debate regularly deteriorates into invective and polemic. Language belongs to everyone, so most people feel they have a right to hold an opinion about it. And when opinions differ, emotions can run high. Arguments can start as easily over minor points of usage as over major policies of linguistic education.

    Language, moreover, is a very public behaviour, so it is easy for different usages to be noted and criticised. No part of society or social behaviour is exempt: linguistic factors influence how we judge personality, intelligence, social status, educational standards, job aptitude, and many other areas of identity and social survival. As a result, it is easy to hurt, and to be hurt, when language use is unfeelingly attacked.

    In its most general sense, prescriptivism is the view that one variety of language has an inherently higher value than others, and that this ought to be imposed on the whole of the speech community. The view is propounded especially in relation to grammar and vocabulary, and frequently with reference to pronunciation. The variety which is favoured, in this account, is usually a version of the ‘standard’ written language, especially as encountered in literature, or in the formal spoken language which most closely reflects this style. Adherents to this variety are said to speak or write ‘correctly’; deviations from it are said to be ‘incorrect!

    All the main languages have been studied prescriptively, especially in the 18th century approach to the writing of grammars and dictionaries. The aims of these early grammarians were threefold: (a) they wanted to codify the principles of their languages, to show that there was a system beneath the apparent chaos of usage, (b) they wanted a means of settling disputes over usage, and (c) they wanted to point out what they felt to be common errors, in order to ‘improve’ the language. The authoritarian nature of the approach is best characterised by its reliance on ‘rules’ of grammar. Some usages are ‘prescribed,’ to be learnt and followed accurately; others are ‘proscribed,’ to be avoided. In this early period, there were no half-measures: usage was either right or wrong, and it was the task of the grammarian not simply to record alternatives, but to pronounce judgement upon them.

    These attitudes are still with us, and they motivate a widespread concern that linguistic standards should be maintained. Nevertheless, there is an alternative point of view that is concerned less with standards than with the facts of linguistic usage. This approach is summarised in the statement that it is the task of the grammarian to describe, not prescribe to record the facts of linguistic diversity, and not to attempt the impossible tasks of evaluating language variation or halting language change. In the second half of the 18th century, we already find advocates of this view, such as Joseph Priestley, whose Rudiments of English Grammar (1761) insists that ‘the custom of speaking is the original and only just standard of any language! Linguistic issues, it is argued, cannot be solved by logic and legislation. And this view has become the tenet of the modern linguistic approach to grammatical analysis.

    In our own time, the opposition between ‘descriptivists’ and ‘prescriptivists’ has often become extreme, with both sides painting unreal pictures of the other. Descriptive grammarians have been presented as people who do not care about standards, because of the way they see all forms of usage as equally valid. Prescriptive grammarians have been presented as blind adherents to a historical tradition. The opposition has even been presented in quasi-political terms – of radical liberalism vs elitist conservatism.

    Questions 1-8
    Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1?
    In boxes 1-8 in your answer sheet, write:

    YES                                if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
    NO                                  if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    NOT GIVEN               if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    1 There are understandable reasons why arguments occur about language.
    2 People feel more strongly about language education than about small differences in language usage.
    3 Our assessment of a person’s intelligence is affected by the way he or she uses language.
    4 Prescriptive grammar books cost a lot of money to buy in the 18th century.
    5 Prescriptivism still exists today.
    6 According to descriptivists it is pointless to try to stop language change.
    7 Descriptivism only appeared after the 18th century.
    8 Both descriptivists and prescriptivists have been misrepresented.

    Questions 9-12
    Complete the summary using the list of words, A-l, below.

    The language debate

    According to (9) …………. there is only one correct form of language. Linguists who take this approach to language place great importance on grammatical (10) ……………………. Conversely, the view of (11) ………….., such as Joseph Priestley, is that grammar should be based on (12) ………………….

    A descriptivists                     
    B
     language expert                   
    C
     popular speech                           
    D
     formal language
    E evaluation                         
    F
     rules                                         
    G
     modern linguists                       
    H
     prescriptivists
    I change

    Question 13
    Choose the correct letter A. B, C or D.

    What is the writer’s purpose in Reading Passage?

    A to argue in favour of a particular approach to writing dictionaries and grammar books
    B to present a historical account of differing views of language
    C to describe the differences between spoken and written language
    D to show how a certain view of language has been discredited

    TIDAL POWER

    A Operating on the same principle as wind turbines, the power in sea turbines comes from tidal currents which turn blades similar to ships’ propellers, but, unlike wind, the tides are predictable and the power input is constant. The technology raises the prospect of Britain becoming self-sufficient in renewable energy and drastically reducing its carbon dioxide emissions. If tide, wind and wave power are all developed, Britain would be able to close gas, coal and nuclear power plants and export renewable power to other parts of Europe. Unlike wind power, which Britain originally developed and then abandoned for 20 years allowing the Dutch to make it a major industry, undersea turbines could become a big export earner to island nations such as Japan and New Zealand.

    B Tidal sites have already been identified that will produce one sixth or more of the UK’s power – and at prices competitive with modern gas turbines and undercutting those of the already ailing nuclear industry. One site alone, the Pentland Firth, between Orkney and mainland Scotland, could produce 10% of the country’s electricity with banks of turbines under the sea, and another at Alderney in the Channel Islands three times the 1,200 megawatts of Britain’s largest and newest nuclear plant, Sizewell B, in Suffolk. Other sites identified include the Bristol Channel and the west coast of Scotland, particularly the channel between Campbeltown and Northern Ireland.

    C Work on designs for the new turbine blades and sites are well advanced at the University of Southampton’s sustainable energy research group. The first station is expected to be installed off Lynmouth in Devon shortly to test the technology in a venture jointly funded by the department of Trade and Industry and the European Union. AbuBakr Bahaj, in charge of the Southampton research, said: The prospects for energy from tidal currents are far better than from wind because the flows of water are predictable and constant. The technology for dealing with the hostile saline environment under the sea has been developed in the North Sea oil industry and much is already known about turbine blade design, because of wind power and ship propellers. There are a few technical difficulties, but I believe in the next five to ten years we will be installing commercial marine turbine farms.’ Southampton has been awarded £215,000 over three years to develop the turbines and is working with Marine Current Turbines, a subsidiary of IT power, on the Lynmouth project. EU research has now identified 106 potential sites for tidal power, 80% round the coasts of Britain. The best sites are between islands or around heavily indented coasts where there are strong tidal currents.

    D A marine turbine blade needs to be only one third of the size of a wind generator to produce three times as much power. The blades will be about 20 metres in diameter, so around 30 metres of water is required. Unlike wind power, there are unlikely to be environmental objections. Fish and other creatures are thought unlikely to be at risk from the relatively slow-turning blades. Each turbine will be mounted on a tower which will connect to the national power supply grid via underwater cables. The towers will stick out of the water and be lit, to warn shipping, and also be designed to be lifted out of the water for maintenance and to clean seaweed from the blades.

    E Dr Bahaj has done most work on the Alderney site, where there are powerful currents. The single undersea turbine farm would produce far more power than needed for the Channel Islands and most would be fed into the French Grid and be re-imported into Britain via the cable under the Channel.

    F One technical difficulty is cavitation, where low pressure behind a turning blade causes air bubbles. These can cause vibration and damage the blades of the turbines. Dr Bahaj said: ‘We have to test a number of blade types to avoid this happening or at least make sure it does not damage the turbines or reduce performance. Another slight concern is submerged debris floating into the blades. So far we do not know how much of a problem it might be. We will have to make the turbines robust because the sea is a hostile environment, but all the signs that we can do it are good.’

    Questions 14-17
    Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F. Which paragraph contains the following information?
    NB You may use any letter more than once.

    14 the location of the first test site
    15 a way of bringing the power produced on one site back into Britain
    16 a reference to a previous attempt by Britain to find an alternative source of energy
    17 mention of the possibility of applying technology from another industry

    Questions 18-22
    Choose FIVE Letters A-J

    Which FIVE of the following claims about tidal power are made by the writer?

    A It is a more reliable source of energy than wind power.
    B It would replace all other forms of energy in Britain.
    C Its introduction has come as a result of public pressure.
    D It would cut down on air pollution.
    E It could contribute to the closure of many existing power stations ln Britain.
    F It could be a means of increasing national income.
    G It could face a lot of resistance from other fuel industries.
    H It could be sold more cheaply than any other type of fuel.
    I It could compensate for the shortage of inland sites for energy production.
    J It is best produced in the vicinity of coastlines with particular features.

    Questions 23-26
    Label the diagram below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    An Undersea Turbine

    INFORMATION THEORY – THE BID IDEA

    A In April 2002 an event took place which demonstrated one of the many applications of information theory. The space probe, Voyager I, launched in 1977, had sent back spectacular images of Jupiter and Saturn and then soared out of the Solar System on a one-way mission to the stars. After 25 years of exposure to the freezing temperatures of deep space, the probe was beginning to show its age. Sensors and circuits were on the brink of failing and NASA experts realised that they had to do something or lose contact with their probe forever. The solution was to get a message to Voyager I to instruct it to use spares to change the failing parts. With the probe 12 billion kilometres from Earth, this was not an easy task. By means of a radio dish belonging to NASA’s Deep Space Network, the message was sent out into the depths of space. Even travelling at the speed of light, it took over 11 hours to reach its target, far beyond the orbit of Pluto. Yet, incredibly, the little probe managed to hear the faint call from its home planet, and successfully made the switchover.

    B It was the longest-distance repair job in history, and a triumph for the NASA engineers. But it also highlighted the astonishing power of the techniques developed by American communications engineer Claude Shannon, who had died just a year earlier. Born in 1916 in Petoskey, Michigan, Shannon showed an early talent for maths and for building gadgets, and made breakthroughs in the foundations of computer technology when still a student. While at Bell Laboratories, Shannon developed information theory, but shunned the resulting acclaim. In the 1940s, he single-handedly created an entire science of communication which has since inveigled its way into a host of applications, from DVDs to satellite communications to bar codes – any area, in short, where data has to be conveyed rapidly yet accurately.

    C This all seems light years away from the down-to-earth uses Shannon originally had for his work, which began when he was a 22-year-old graduate engineering student at the prestigious Massachusetts Institute of Technology in 1939. He set out with an apparently simple aim: to pin down the precise meaning of the concept of ‘information’. The most basic form of information, Shannon argued, is whether something is true or false – which can be captured in the binary unit, or ‘bit’, of the form 1 or 0. Having identified this fundamental unit, Shannon set about defining otherwise vague ideas about information and how to transmit it from place to place. In the process he discovered something surprising: it is always possible to guarantee information will get through random interference – ‘noise’ – intact.

    D Noise usually means unwanted sounds which interfere with genuine information. Information theory generalises this idea via theorems that capture the effects of noise with mathematical precision. In particular, Shannon showed that noise sets a limit on the rate at which information can pass along communication channels while remaining error-free. This rate depends on the relative strengths of the signal and noise travelling down the communication channel, and on its capacity (its ‘bandwidth’). The resulting limit, given in units of bits per second, is the absolute maximum rate of error-free communication given signal strength and noise level. The trick, Shannon showed, is to find ways of packaging up – ‘coding’ – information to cope with the ravages of noise, while staying within the information-carrying capacity – ‘bandwidth’ – of the communication system being used.

    E Over the years scientists have devised many such coding methods, and they have proved crucial in many technological feats. The Voyager spacecraft transmitted data using codes which added one extra bit for every single bit of information; the result was an error rate of just one bit in 10,000 – and stunningly clear pictures of the planets. Other codes have become part of everyday life – such as the Universal Product Code, or bar code, which uses a simple error-detecting system that ensures supermarket check-out lasers can read the price even on, say, a crumpled bag of crisps. As recently as 1993, engineers made a major breakthrough by discovering so-called turbo codes – which come very close to Shannon’s ultimate limit for the maximum rate that data can be transmitted reliably, and now play a key role in the mobile videophone revolution.

    F Shannon also laid the foundations of more efficient ways of storing information, by stripping out superfluous (‘redundant’) bits from data which contributed little real information. As mobile phone text messages like ‘I CN C U’ show, it is often possible to leave out a lot of data without losing much meaning. As with error correction, however, there’s a limit beyond which messages become too ambiguous. Shannon showed how to calculate this limit, opening the way to the design of compression methods that cram maximum information into the minimum space.

    Questions 27-32
    Reading Passage 3 has six paragraphs, A-F. Which paragraph contains the following information?

    27 an explanation of the factors affecting the transmission of information
    28 an example of how unnecessary information can be omitted
    29 a reference to Shannon`s attitude to fame
    30 details of a machine capable of interpreting incomplete information
    31 a detailed account of an incident involving information theory
    32 a reference to what Shannon initially intended to achieve in his research

    Questions 33-37
    Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer

    The Voyager l Space Probe

    The probe transmitted pictures of both (33) ……………….,and ……………. , then left the (34) ……………. The freezing temperatures were found to have a negative effect on parts of the space probe. Scientists feared that both the (35)……………….. and ………………… were about to stop working. The only hope was to tell the probe to replace them with (36)…………………….. – but distance made communication with the probe difficult. A (37)………………….. was used to transmit the message at the speed of light. The message was picked up by the probe and the switchover took place.

    Questions 38-40
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet write

    TRUE                      if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE                    if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN         if there is no information on this

    38. The concept of describing something as true or false was the starting point for Shannon in his attempts to send messages over distances.
    39. The amount of information that can be sent in a given time period is determined with reference to the signal strength and noise level.
    40. Products have now been developed which can convey more information than Shannon had anticipated as possible.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 5

    Part 1: Questions 1-3
    Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Rented Properties Customer’s Requirements
    Name:        Steven Godfrey
    No. of bedrooms:         4
    Preferred location:                        in the (1)  area of town
    Maximum monthly rent:             (2) £ 
    Length of let required:                 (3) 
    Starting:                                          September 1st

    Questions 4-8
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    AddressRoomsMonthly RentProblem
    Oakington AvenueLiving/ dining room, separate kitchen£ 550No (4)…………………..
    Mead StreetLarge living room and kitchen, bathroom and a cloakroom£ 580The (5)………………… is too large
    Hamilton RoadLiving room, kitchen, diner and a (6)…………………£ 550Too (7)……………………..
    Devon CloseLiving room, dining room, small kitchen(8) £ ………None

    (4)                   (5) 
    (6)                   (7) 
    (8) 

    Questions 9 and 10
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO facilities in the district of Devon Close are open to the public at the moment?
     A museum
     B concert hall
     C cinema
     D sports centre
     E swimming pool

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    THE NATIONAL ARTS CENTER
    Well known for: (11) 
    Complex consists of: concert rooms, theatres, cinemas, art galleries, public library,
    restaurants and a (12) 
    Historical background: 1940-area destroyed by bombs
    1960s-1970s: centre was (13)  and built in (14)  – opened to public
    Managed by: the (15) 
    Open: (16)  days per year

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    DayTimeEventVenueTicket price
    Monday and Tuesday7.30 pmThe Magic Flute(17)…………………..From £ 8
    Wednesday8.00 pm(18)……………….(Canadian Flim)Cinema 2(19) £…….
    Saturday and Sunday11 am to 10 pm(20)……………………(art exhibition)Gallery 1Free

    (17)                 (18) 
    (19)                (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Latin American Studies
    21. Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted
     A to teach English there
     B to improve his Spanish
     C to learn about Latin American life

    22. What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in?
     A construction
     B agriculture
     C tourism

    23. Why did Paul change from one project to another?
     A His first job was not well organized
     B He found doing the routine work very boring
     C The work was too physically demanding

    24. In the village community, he learnt how important it was to
     A respect family life
     B develop trust
     C use money wisely

    25. What does Paul say about his project manager?
     A He let Paul do most of the work
     B His plans were too ambitious
     C He was very supportive of Paul

    26. Paul was surprised to be given
     A a computer to use
     B so little money to live on
     C an extension to his contract

    Questions 27-30

    What does Paul decide about each of the following modules?
    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 27-30.

    Module
    27. Gender studies in Latin America 
    28. Second language acquisition 
    29. Indigenous women’s lives 
    30. Portuguese language studies 

    A He will do this.
    B He might do this.
    C He won’t do this.

    Part 4: Questions 31-34
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Trying to repeat success
    31. Compared to introducing new business processes, attempts to copy existing processes are
     A more attractive
     B more frequent
     C more straightforward

    32. Most research into the repetition of success in business has
     A been done outside the United States
     B produced consistent findings
     C related to only a few contexts

    33. What does the speaker say about consulting experts?
     A Too few managers ever do it
     B It can be useful in certain circumstances
     C Experts are sometimes unwilling to give advice

    34. An expert’s knowledge about a business system may be incomplete because
     A some details are difficult for workers to explain
     B workers choose not to mention certain details
     C details are sometimes altered by workers

    Questions 35-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY.

    Setting up systems based on an existing process
    Two mistakes:
    Manager tries to:
    • Improve on the original process
    • Create an ideal (35)  from the best parts of several processes

    Cause of problems
    • Information was inaccurate
    • Comparison between the business settings was invalid
    • Disadvantages were overlooked e.g. effect of changes on (36) 

    Solution
    • Change (37) 
    • Impose rigorous (38) 
    • Copy original very closely:
    o Physical features of the (39) 
    o The (40)  of original employees

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 4

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    WEST BAY HOTEL – DETAILS OF JOB

    • Newspaper advert for temporary staff
    • Vacancies for (1) 
    • Two shifts
    • Can choose your (2)  (must be the same each week)
    • Pay: £5.50 per hour including a (3) 
    • A (4)  is provided in the hotel
    • Total weekly pay: £231
    • Dress: a white shirt and (5)  trousers (not supplied), a
    (6)
      (supplied)
    • Starting date: (7) 
    • Call Jane (8)  (service manage) before
    (9)
      tomorrow (Tel: 832009)
    • She will require a (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-13
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Improvements to Red Hill Suburb

    11. Community groups are mainly concerned about
     A pedestrian safety
     B traffic jams
     C increased pollution

    12. It has been decided that the overhead power lines will be
     A extended
     B buried
     C repaired

    13. The expenses related to the power lines will be paid by
     A the council
     B the power company
     C local businesses

    Questions 14-20
    Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-H next to questions 14-20.

    Road Hill Improvement Plan

    14. Trees 
    15. Wider footpaths 
    16. Coloured road surface 
    17. New sign 
    18. Traffic lights 
    19. Artwork 
    20. Children’s playground 

    Part 3: Questions 21 and 22
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    https://googleads.g.doubleclick.net/pagead/ads?gdpr=0&client=ca-pub-

    In which TWO ways is Dan financing his course?
     A He is receiving money from the government
     B His family are willing to help him
     C The college is giving him a small grant
     D His local council is supporting him for a limited period
     E A former employer is providing partial funding

    Questions 23 and 24
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO reasons does Jeannie give for deciding to leave some college clubs?
     A She is not sufficiently challenged
     B The activity interferes with her studies
     C She does not have enough time
     D The activity is too demanding physically
     E She does not think she is any good at the activity

    Questions 25 and 26
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    25. What does Dan say about the seminars on the course?
     A The other students do not give him a chance to speak
     B The seminars make him feel inferior to the other students
     C The preparation for seminars takes too much time

    26. What does Jeannie say about the tutorials on the course?
     A They are an inefficient way of providing guidance
     B They are more challenging than she had expected
     C They are helping her to develop her study skills

    Questions 27-30
    Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Advice on exam preparations

    Step 1: Make sure you know the exam requirements

    Step 2: Find some past papers

    Step 3: Work out your (27)…………for revision and write them on a card

    Step 4: Make a (28)……………and keep it in view

    Step 5: Divide revision into (29)…………….for each day

    Step 6: Write one (30)…………….about each topic

    Step 7: Practice writing some exam answers

    (27)                  (28) 
    (29)                  (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-36

    Australian Aboriginal Rock Paintings

    Which painting styles have the following features?
    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 31-36.

    Features
    31. figures revealing bones 
    32. rounded figures 
    33. figures with parts missing 
    34. figures smaller than life size 
    35. sea creatures 
    36. plants 

    Painting Styles
    A Dynamic
    B Yam
    C Modern

    Questions 37-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    RAINBOW SERPENT PROJECT

    Aim of project: to identify the (37)  used as the basis for the Rainbow Serpent
    Yam Period:
    • Environmental changes led to higher (38) 
    • Traditional activities were affected especially (39) 

    Rainbow Serpent Image
    • Similar to a sea horse
    • Unusual because it appeared in inland areas
    • Symbolises (40)  in Aboriginal culture

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 3

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

    Job Inquiry
    Work at:                          a restaurant
    Type of work:                (1) 
    Number of hours per week: 12 hours
    Would need work permit
    Work in the:                  (2)  branch
    Nearest bus stop: next to (3) 
    Pay:                                 (4) £  an hour
    Extra benefits: a free dinner
    Extra pay when you work on (5) 
    Transport home when you work (6) 
    Qualities required:        (7) 
    Ability to (8) 
    Interview arranged for: Thursday (9)  at 6 pm
    Ask for:                            Samira (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    SPORTS WORLD
    • a new (11)  of an international sports goods company
    • located in the shopping centre to the (12)  of Bradcaster
    • has sports (13)  and equipment on floors 1 – 3
    • can get you any item within (14)  days
    • shop specialises in equipment for (15) 
    • has a special section which just sells (16) 

    Questions 17 and 18
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    17. A champion athlete will be in the shop
     A on Saturday morning only
     B all day Saturday
     C for the whole weekend

    18. The first person to answer 20 quiz questions correctly will win
     A gym membership
     B a video
     C a calendar

    Questions 19 and 20
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO pieces of information does the speaker give about the fitness test?
     A You need to reserve a place
     B It is free to account holders
     C You get advice on how to improve your health
     D It takes place in a special clinic
     E It is cheaper this month

    Part 3: Questions 21-30
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Course Feedback
    21. One reason why Spiros felt happy about his marketing presentation was that
     A he was not nervous
     B his style was good
     C the presentation was the best in his group

    22. What surprised Hiroko about the other students’ presentations?
     A Their presentations were not interesting
     B They found their presentations stressful
     C They didn’t look at the audience enough

    23. After she gave her presentation, Hiroko felt
     A delighted
     B dissatisfied
     C embarrassed

    24. How does Spiros feel about his performance in tutorials?
     A not very happy
     B really pleased
     C fairly confident

    25. Why can the other students participate so easily in discussions?
     A They are polite to each other
     B They agree to take turns in speaking
     C They know each other well

    26. Why is Hiroko feeling more positive about tutorials now?
     A She finds the other students’ opinions more interesting
     B She is making more of a contribution
     C The tutor includes her in the discussion

    27. To help her understand lectures, Hiroko
     A consulted reference materials
     B had extra tutorials with her lecturers
     C borrowed lecture notes from other students

    28. What does Spiros think of his reading skills?
     A He reads faster than he used to
     B It still takes him a long time to read
     C He tends to struggle with new vocabulary

    29. What is Hiroko’s subject area?
     A environmental studies
     B health education
     C engineering

    30. Hiroko thinks that in the reading classes the students should
     A learn more vocabulary
     B read more in their own subject areas
     C develop better reading strategies

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

    Mass Strandings of Whales and Dolphins
    Mass strandings: situations where groups of whales, dolphins, etc. swim onto the beach and die
    Common in areas where the (31)  can change quickly

    Several other theories:
    Parasites
    e.g. some parasites can affect marine animals’ (32)  ,which they depend on for navigation

    Toxins
    Poisons from (33)  or  are commonly consumed by whales
    e.g. Cape Cod (1988) – whales were killed by saxitoxin

    Accidental Strandings
    Animals may follow prey ashore, e.g. Thurston (1995)
    Unlikely because the majority of animals were not (34)  when they stranded

    Human Activity
    (35)  from military tests are linked to some recent strandings
    The Bahamas (2000) stranding was unusual because the whales
    • were all (36) 
    • were not in a (37) 

    Group Behaviour
    • More standings in the most (38)  species of whales
    • 1994 dolphin stranding – only the (39)  was ill

    Further Reading
    Marine Mammals Ashore (Connor) – gives information about stranding
    (40)
     

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 2

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER.

    ACCOMODATION FORM – STUDENT INFORMATION
    Type of accommodation:                               hall of residence
    Name:                                                                Anu (1) 

    Date of birth:                                                    (2) 
    Country of origin:                                            India
    Course of study:                                               (3) 
    Number of years planned in hall:                 (4) 
    Preferred catering arrangement:                  half board
    Special dietary requirements:                       no (5)  (red)
    Preferred room type:                                       a single (6) 
    Interests:                                                           the (7) 
    and badminton
    Priorities in choice of hall:           to be with other students who are (8) 
    To live outside the (9) 
    To have a (10)  area for socializing

    Part 2: Questions 11-13
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

    PARKS AND OPEN SPACES

    Name of placeOf particular interestOpen
    Halland CommonSource of River Ouse24 hours
    Hot IslandMany different (11)…………………….Between (12)……………..and…………….
    Longfield Country ParkReconstruction of a 2000 year old (13)……………….with activities for childrenDaylight hours

    (11) 
    (12)  and 

    (13) 

    Questions 14-16
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Longfield Park
    14. As part of Monday’s activity, visitors will
     A prepare food with herbs
     B meet a well-known herbalist
     C dye cloth with herbs

    15. For the activity on Wednesday,
     A only group bookings are accepted
     B visitors should book in advance
     C attendance is free

    16. For the activity on Saturday, visitors should
     A come in suitable clothing
     B make sure they are able to stay for the whole day
     C tell the rangers before the event what they wish to do

    Questions 17-20
    Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 17-20.

    (17)         bird hide 

    (18)         dog-walking area 

    (19)         flower garden 

    (20)         wooded area 

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Self-Access Centre
    21. Students want to keep the Self-Access Centre because
     A they enjoy the variety of equipment
     B they like being able to work on their own
     C it is an important part of their studies

    22. Some teachers would prefer to
     A close the Self-Access Centre
     B move the Self-Access Centre elsewhere
     C restrict access to the Self-Access Centre

    23. The students’ main concern about using the library would be
     A the size of the library
     B difficulty in getting help
     C the lack of materials

    24. The Director of Studies is concerned about
     A the cost of upgrading the centre
     B the lack of space in the centre
     C the difficulty in supervising the centre

    Questions 25-30
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Necessary improvements to the existing Self-Access Centre
    Equipment
    Replace computers to create more space

    Resources
    The level of the (25)  materials, in particular, should be more clearly shown.
    Update the (26)  collection.
    Buy some (27)  and divide them up.

    Use of the room
    Speak to the teachers and organize a (28) for supervising the centre.
    Install an (29) 
    Restrict personal use of (30) on computers.

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY.

    BUSINESS CULTURE
    Power Culture
    Characteristics of organization: small
    (31)  power source
    Few rules and procedures
    Communication by (32) 
    Advantage: can act quickly
    Disadvantage: might not act (33) 
    Suitable employee: not afraid of (34) 

    Does not need job security

    Role Culture
    Characteristic of organization: large, many (35) 
    Specialized departments
    Rules and procedures e.g. job (36)  and rules for discipline
    Advantages: economies of scale
    Successful when (37)  ability is important
    Disadvantages: slow to see when (38)  is needed
    Slow to react
    Suitable employee: values security
    Does not want (39) 

    Task Culture
    Characteristic of organization: project oriented
    In competitive market or making product with short life
    Advantages: (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 1

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    ApartmentsFacilitiesOther InformationCost
    Rose Garden ApartmentsStudio FlatEntertainment programme: Greek dancing£ 219
    Blue Bay ApartmentsLarge salt water swimming pool– Just (1)…………. .meters from beach
    – Near shops
    £ 275
    (2)…………..ApartmentsTerraceWatersports£ 490
    The GrandGreek paintings and (3)……….– Overlooking (4)……………
    – Near a supermarket and a disco
    (5) £……..

    (1)                 (2) 
    (3)                (4) 
    (5) 

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    GREEK ISLAND HOLIDAYS

    Insurance BenefitsMaximum Amount
    Cancellation(6) £……………..
    Hospital£ 600 additional benefit allows a (7)………………..to travel to resort
    (8)…………………….departureUp to £ 1000 depends on reason
    Personal belongingsUp to £ 3000 £ 500 for one (9)…………………
    Name of assistant manager: Ben (10)…………………………..

    (6)                     (7) 
    (8)                     (9) 
    (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-13
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    WINRIDGE FOREST RAILWAY PARK

    11. Simon’s idea for a theme park came from
     A his childhood hobby
     B his interest in landscape design
     C his visit to another park

    12. When they started, the family decided to open the park only when
     A the weather was expected to be good
     B the children weren’t at school
     C there were fewer farming commitments

    13. Since opening, the park has had
     A 50,000 visitors
     B 1,000,000 visitors
     C 1,500,000 visitors

    Questions 14-18
    What is currently the main area of work of each of the following people?

    Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-H next to questions 14-18.

    People
    14. Simon 
    15. Liz        
    16. Sarah   
    17. Duncan 
    18. Judith   

    Area of work
    A advertising   
    B
     animal care     
    C
     building     
    D
     educational links     
    E
     engine maintenance
    F food and drink     
    G
     sales
    H staffing

    Questions 19 and 20
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    FeatureSizeBiggest ChallengeTarget Age Group
    Railway1.2 kmMaking tunnels
    Go-kart arena(19)……………… sq mtRemoving mounds on track(20)………….yaer olds

    (19) 
    (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-30
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Study Skills Tutorial – Caroline Benning

    Dissertation topic:          the (21) 
    Strengths:                         (22) 
    Computer modeling
    Weaknesses:                    lack of background information
    Poor (23) 
    skills

    Possible strategyBenefitsProblems
    Peer group discussionIncrease (24)……………..Dissertations tend to contain the same (25)……………..
    Use the (26)………………serviceProvides structured programmeLimited (27)………………..
    Consult study skill booksAre a good source of referenceCan be too (28)………………..

    (24)                    (25) 
    (26)                    (27) 
    (28) 

    Recommendations:                  use a card index
    Read all notes (29) 
    Next tutorial date:                    (30) 
    January

    Part 4: Questions 31 and 32
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    31. The owners of the underground house
     A had no experience of living in a rural area
     B were interested in environmental issues
     C wanted a professional project manager

    32. What does the speaker say about the site of the house?
     A The land was quite cheap
     B Stone was being extracted nearby
     C It was in a completely unspoilt area

    Questions 33-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER.

    THE UNDERGROUND HOUSE
    Design
    • Built in the earth, with two floors
    • The south-facing side was constructed of two layers of (33) 
    • Photovoltaic tiles were attached
    • A layer of foam was used to improve the (34) 
    of the building
    Special features
    • To increase the light, the building has many internal mirrors and (35) 
    • In future, the house may produce more (36) 
    than it needs
    • Recycled wood was used for the (37) 
    of the house
    • The system for processing domestic (38) 
    is organic
    Environmental issues
    • The use of large quantities of (39) 
    in construction was environmentally harmful
    • But the house will have paid its ‘environmental debt’ within (40) 

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