Month: April 2024

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 25

    Part 1: Questions 1-7
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Go-travel booking form

    Name: (1) 
    Source of enquiry: saw ad in (2)  magazine
    Holiday reference: (3) 
    Number of people: (4) 
    Preferred departure dates: (5) 
    Number of nights: (6) 
    Type of insurance: (7) 

    Questions 8-10
    Choose THREE letters A-H.

    Which THREE options does the woman want to book?

    A arts demonstration
    B dance show
    C museums trip
    D bus tour at night
    E picnic lunches
    F river trip
    G room with balcony
    H trip to mountains

    (8)   
    (9)   
    (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-17
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Run-well charity
    Background to Run-Well charity
    • Set up in (11) 
    • Aim: raise money for the (12) 

    Race details
    • Teams to supply own (13) 
    • Teams should (14)  together
    • Important to bring enough (15) 
    • Race will finish in the (16) 
    • Prizes given by the (17) 

    Questions 18-20
    Choose THREE letters A-H.

    Which THREE ways of raising money for the charity are recommended?

    A badges
    B bread and cake stall
    C swimming event
    D concert
    E door to door collecting
    F picnic
    G postcards
    H quiz
    I second hand sale

    (18) 
    (19) 
    (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 21-26.

    What do the students decide about each topic for Joe’s presentation?
    A Joe will definitely include this topic
    B Joe might include this topic
    C Joe will not include this topic

    21. cultural aspects of naming people 
    22. similarities across languages in naming practices 
    23. meanings of first names 
    24. place names describing geographic features 
    25 influence of immigration on place names 
    26. origins of names of countries 

    Questions 27-30
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Researchers showed a group of students many common nouns, brand names and (27)  Students found it easier to identify brand names when they were shown in (28)  Researchers think that (29)  is important in making brand names special within the brain. Brand names create a number of (30)  within the brain.

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Gas balloons
    Uses:
    • Instead of (31)  in the US civil war
    • To make (32) 
    • To (33)  for research
    • As part of studies of (34) 

    Hot air balloons
    Create less (35)  than gas balloons

    Airships
    Early examples had no (36)  for crew

    To be efficient needed a (37) 

    Development of large airships stopped because of:
    • Success of (38) 
    • Series of (39) 

    Recent interest in use for carrying (40)

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 24

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Short stay accommodation

    Family name: Mackinlay

    First name: (1) 
    Country of origin: (2) 
    Date of arrival: (3) 
    Number of tenants: (4) 
    Length of stay: 2 weeks
    Purpose of visit: (5) 
    Type of accommodation: (6) 
    Number of bedrooms: 1 or 2
    Car parking: off street and (7) 
    General area: near the beach
    Other requirements: near (8) 
    Name of town: (9) 
    Client’s email: smac13@hotmail.com
    Price range: up to (10) $  a week

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. Refreshments will be served
     A at the front counter
     B in the lobby
     C at the back of the hall

    12. Nick Noble advertise
     A on the radio
     B on a billboard
     C in the newspaper

    13. The original number of founding members was about
     A 12
     B 20
     C 200

    14. The club provides activities primarily for reasonably fit
     A males up to 75
     B females with young children
     C males and females of any age

    Questions 15-20
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    ActivityDaysDurationContact person
    (15)…………..Tuesday and SaturdayAbout 3-5 hoursCoordinator
    (16)……………….Thursday and SundayUp to 3 hours(17)………………
    WanderersSunday(18)…………………Leader
    (19)…………..weekendsSaturday and SundayAll weekend(20)……………….

    (15)               (16) 
    (17)               (18) 
    (19)              (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Globalization and educational change
    • New Code (21) 
    • Aims-analysis of educational problems arising from globalization
    • Chance to research and (22)  progress of educational change
    • Investigate influence of culture and (23)  on education
    • Argue advantages and disadvantages of reorganization of public education in own country with regard to globalization
    • Consider the (24)  of globalization on diversity of national curricula across richer and poorer countries
    • Assignment 1 – power point presentation (ungraded) + (25)  (30%)
    • Assignment 2 – take part in (26)  (20%) + essay (50%)

    Questions 27-30
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    AuthorTitleDate
    (27)……………….Comparative education2007
    ElliotEducational issues of the new millennium(28)………………..
    (29)…………………Education and globalization2009
    YorkGlobalization and (30)……………………….2010

    (27)                 (28) 
    (29)                 (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-37
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Everyday the human body is fighting off (31)  by destructive pathogens. A person in good health has natural protection in the form of an immune system which works best against familiar microorganisms which may have been encountered during a previous (32)  or passed on by the mother before or after birth.

    Vaccination is a way to cause (33)  immunisation by introducing a small amout of pathogen into the body – just enough for the body’s (34)  to react by making antibodies. Passive immunization can be used as a way of treating someone who is already sick. Proteins from animal (35)  are introduced into the patient to give him the necessary antibodies to fight the disease.

    Dr. Edward Jenner observed that people who had suffered and recovered from a serious disease called smallpox did not get it again. He also noted that victims of milder disease, cowpox which they caught from (36)  were immune to smallpox. He carried out a successful (37)  by deliberately giving a child cowpox in order to make him immune to smallpox.

    Questions 38-40
    Complete the diagram below. Choose your answers from the box below and write the letters A-F next to questions 38-40.

    (38) 
    (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 23

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Tauber Insurance Company

    Insurance type:     vehicle

    Policy#: (1) 
    Make and model: Masda Marvel
    Engine size: (2) 
    Name: Lisa Marie Haethcote
    Date of birth: (3)  1955
    Password: (4) 
    Change valuation? Yes
    Reduce value to: (5) $ 

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Notes to be added to policy:
    Add new driver:
    • Name: Samuel Michaels
    • Age: 28
    • Relationship to main driver: (6) 
    Reason:
    • (7) 
    Client/ new driver to provide:
    • Verified (8)  of driver’s licence
    • Clean driving (9) 
    Start date:
    • (10)  cover for 2 weeks from today
    • Full cover when paperwork approved

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    11. You can become more confident by using 

    12. More confidence results in better 

    13. A good strategy to build confidence is to get rid of negative memories of mistakes and failures and instead concentrate on 

    14. Frequent  of positive imagery is necessary for success.

    15. Mental positivity is not enough-you also have to act in a confident manner-so  is important too.

    16. Setting and achieving goals results in brain activity that brings about an experience of 

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (17)                (18)  
    (19)               (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Julia and Bob’s science project is due
     A next week
     B next month
     C next year

    22. All the materials they use must be
     A recycled
     B inexpensive
     C available in the lab

    23. A Cartesian diver was called a devil by some people because
     A they saw it was black
     B they believed in the supernatural
     C they wanted the inventor to be famous

    Questions 24 and 25
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Julia and Bob find some of the items they need
     A in Bob’s pencil case and the recycling bin
     B in the cafeteria and the Resource Centre
     C in the shop and Julia’s locker
     D in Bob’s bag and his pocket
     E in Tara’s packet and on the floor

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Assembly
    Step 1: fold (26)  in half
    Step 2: use (27)  to secure the ends
    Step 3: attach (28)  to diver
    Step 4: fill bottle with water and replace (29) 
    Step 5: demonstrate by squeezing and releasing bottle. Compression causes diver to sink because diver becomes (30)

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    31. When did Mt. Pinatubo erupt for the first time? 

    32. When was the earthquake measuring 7.8 recorded? 

    33. When did the experts begin to study Mt. Pinatubo? 

    34. What fell on the local villages on 2nd April? 

    35. What does a ‘level 5’ alert mean? 

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Several large earthquakes were triggered by the eruption of Pinatubo on 15th June 1991 because of the (36)  of the summit. The caldera thus created considerably reduced the height of the mountain. At the same time (37)  was passing by and the rain associated with it mixed with the cinders in the air to form a substance called tephra which fell on the (38)  of homes causing them to collapse, crushing hundreds of people.

    During the eruption large amounts of Sulphur dioxide gas were emitted, which combined with (39)  to make sulphuric acid which was responsible for a great deal of ozone depletion above Antarctica. The overall effect of the cloud from this great eruption was the lowering of (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 22

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Library application form
    Surname: Price

    First name: Angela Mary
    Address: apartment 3, 86 (1)  street, Pimlico
    Post code: (2) 
    Telephone: 8763 5142 (home)
    (3)  (work)
    Driver’s licence number: (4) 
    Date of birth: Day: 24 Month: (5)  Year: 1981

    Questions 6-8
    Circle THREE letters A-F.

    What type of books does Angela like?
     A sport
     B travel
     C classics
     D history
     E cooking
     F nature

    Questions 9 and 10
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    9. How much does it cost to join the library? 
    10. When will Angela’s card be ready? 

    Part 2: Questions 11 and 12
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. What is one of the new advantages in the dining facilities?
     A more students
     B more variety
     C more service

    12. What was one problem with the dining options last year?
     A students did not have enough to eat
     B students has to pay too much money
     C students had to eat whatever was served

    Questions 13 and 14
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    13.  and pasta are an example of   food
    14. American food consists of  

    Questions 15-18
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    15. Why does the school say the food will be better?
     A they hired real chefs
     B The food is more expensive
     C they will make more kinds

    16. When will the dining facilities open and close?
     A 6 am and 12 pm
     B 6 am and 12 am
     C 12 pm and 6 pm
     D 12 pm and 6 am

    17. What can students do if they are hungry in the afternoon?
     A go out and buy food on the street
     B wait till dinner time
     C go to the student store for snacks

    18. What must you do to eat in the dining facilities if you are not a student?
     A purchase a dining facility card
     B purchase meals at the door
     C purchase meals from other students

    Questions 19 and 20
    Select TWO answers.

    Which of the following are rules of the dining facilities?
     A do not waste food
     B you may bring friends in to eat
     C bring your own plates and trays
     D clean your own plates and trays
     E don’t litter

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Forms of dog trainingExamples
    Obedience training– Sit
    – (21)………………….
    Spoken commands– (22)………………………..
    Guard training– Patrolling
    – (23)……………….
    Attack training– Knocking someone down
    – (24)…………………..
    Search training– (25)…………………….

    (21)                  (22) 
    (23)                 (24) 
    (25) 

    Questions 26-30
    Write the appropriate letter A-C next to questions 26-30

    According to the speaker for which dogs are the following kinds of training most useful?
    A small dogs
    B intelligent dogs
    C large dogs

    26. physical training 
    27. search training 
    28. attack training 
    29. barking 
    30. biting 

    Part 4: Questions 31-36
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    FacilityLocationHoursItems provided
    Dining hall1st floor(31)……………….Food
    Gym and recreational hall(32)……………10 am to 10 pmTreadmills, weight set (33)……………
    Kitchen(34)………………….(35)………………..(36)……………..microwave oven, store

    (31) 
    (32) 
    (33) 
    (34) 
    (35) 
    (36) 

    Questions 37-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    37. List three activities that Saturday Morning Outings have included in the past 

    38. There are  spaces available for the volleyball team.

    39. The first rule of the building:  must be kept to a minimum after 11 pm. The second rule of the building: All visitors must sign in at the front of the building.

    40. The third rule of the building:  are not permitted in the building.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 21

    Part 1: Questions 1-6
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. The Family Welcome event in the art gallery begins at
     A 10 am
     B 10.30 am
     C 2 pm

    2. The film that is now shown in the Family Welcome event is about
     A sculpture
     B painting
     C ceramics

    3. When do most of the free concerts take place?
     A in the morning
     B at lunchtime
     C in the evening

    4. Where will the 4 pm concert of Latin American music take place?
     A in a museum
     B in a theatre
     C in a library

    5. The boat race begins at
     A summer pool
     B Charlesworth bridge
     C Oxford marina

    6. One of the boat race teams
     A won a regional competition earlier this year
     B has represented the region in a national competition
     C has won several regional competitions

    Questions 7-10
    Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Paxton Nature Reserve
    7. Paxton is a good for seeing rare  all year around.
    8. This is a particularly good time for seeing certain unusual 
    9. Visitors will be able to learn about  and then collect some.
    10. Part of the  has been made suitable for swimming.

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Changes in Barford over the last 50 years

    11. In Shona’s opinion why do fewer people use buses in Barford these days?
     A the buses are old and uncomfortable
     B fares have gone up too much
     C there are not so many bus routes

    12. What change in the road network is known to have benefitted the town most?
     A the construction of a bypass
     B the development of cycle paths
     C the banning of cars from certain streets

    13. What is the problem affecting shopping in the town centre?
     A lack of parking spaces
     B lack of major retailers
     C lack of restaurants and cafes

    14. What does Shona say about medical facilities in Barford?
     A there is no hospital
     B new medical practices are planned
     C the number of dentists is too low

    15. The largest number of people are employed in
     A manufacturing
     B services
     C education

    Questions 16-20
    What is planned for each of the following facilities?

    Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to questions 16-20

    Plans
    A it will move to a new location
    B it will have its opening hours extended
    C it will be refurbished
    D it will be used for a different purpose
    E it will have its opening hours reduced
    F it will have new management
    G it will be expanded

    Facilities
    16. railway station car park 
    17. cinema 
    18. indoor market 
    19. library 
    20. nature reserve 

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Subject of drawingChange to be made
    A (21)……………..surrounded by treesAdd Malcolm and a (22)…………………noticing him
    People who are (23)……………….outside the forestAdd Malcolm sitting on a tree trunk and (24)…………..
    Ice shakes on (25)………………covered with iceAdd a (26)……………..for each person

    (21)                  (22) 
    (23)                 (24) 
    (25)                 (26) 

    Questions 27-30
    Who is going to write each of the following parts of the report?

    Write the correct letter A-D next to questions 27-30.

    A Helen only
    B Jeremy only
    C both Helen and Jeremy
    D neither Helen nor Jeremy

    Parts of the report
    27. how they planned the project 

    28. how they had ideas for their stories 

    29. an interpretation of their stories 

    30. comments on the illustrations 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Ethnography in Business
    Ethnography: research which explores human cultures
    It can be used in business:
    • To investigate customer needs and (31) 
    • To help companies develop new designs

    Examples of ethnographic research in business

    Kitchen equipment
    • Researchers found that cooks could not easily see the (32)  in measuring cups

    Cell phone
    • In Uganda, customers paid to use the cell phones of entrepreneurs.
    • These customers wanted to check the (33)  used.

    Computer companies
    • There was a need to develop (34)  to improve communication between system administrators and colleagues.

    Hospitals
    • Nurses needed to access information about (35)  in different parts of the hospital

    Airlines
    • Respondents recorded information about their (36)  while travelling.

    Principles of ethnographic research in business
    • The researched does not start off with a hypothesis
    • Participants may be selected by criteria such as age, (37)  or product used
    • The participants must feel (38)  about taking part in the research.
    • There is usually direct (39)  of the participants
    • The interview is guided by the participant
    • A lot of time is needed for the (40)  of the data.
    • Researchers look for a meaningful pattern in the data.

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 30

    SPOKEN CORPUS COMES TO LIFE

    A The compiling of dictionaries has been historically the provenance of studious professorial types – usually bespectacled – who love to pore over weighty tomes and make pronouncements on the finer nuances of meaning. They were probably good at crosswords and definitely knew a lot of words, but the image was always rather dry and dusty. The latest technology, and simple technology at that, is revolutionising the content of dictionaries and the way they are put together.

    B For the first time, dictionary publishers are incorporating real, spoken English into their data. It gives lexicographers (people who write dictionaries) access to a more vibrant, up-to-date vernacular language which has never really been studied before. In one project, 150 volunteers each agreed to discreetly tie a Walkman recorder to their waist and leave it running for anything up to two weeks. Every conversation they had was recorded. When the data was collected, the length of tapes was 35 times the depth of the Atlantic Ocean. Teams of audio typists transcribed the tapes to produce a computerised database of ten million words.

    C This has been the basis – along with an existing written corpus – for the Language Activator dictionary, described by lexicographer Professor Randolph Quirk as “the book the world has been waiting for”. It shows advanced foreign learners of English how the language is really used. In the dictionary, key words such as “eat” are followed by related phrases such as “wolf down” or “be a picky eater”, allowing the student to choose the appropriate phrase.

    D “This kind of research would be impossible without computers,” said Delia Summers, a director of dictionaries. “It has transformed the way lexicographers work. If you look at the word “like”, you may intuitively think that the first and most frequent meaning is the verb, as in “I like swimming”. It is not. It is the preposition, as in: “she walked like a duck”. Just because a word or phrase is used doesn’t mean it ends up in a dictionary. The sifting out process is as vital as ever. But the database does allow lexicographers to search for a word and find out how frequently it is used – something that could only be guessed at intuitively before.

    E Researchers have found that written English works in a very different way to spoken English. The phrase “say what you like” literally means “feel free to say anything you want”, but in reality it is used, evidence shows, by someone to prevent the other person voicing disagreement. The phrase “it’s a question of crops up on the database over and over again. It has nothing to do with enquiry, but it’s one of the most frequent English phrases which has never been in a language learner’s dictionary before: it is now.

    F The Spoken Corpus computer shows how inventive and humorous people are when they are using language by twisting familiar phrases for effect. It also reveals the power of the pauses and noises we use to play for time, convey emotion, doubt and irony.

    G For the moment, those benefiting most from the Spoken Corpus are foreign learners. “Computers allow lexicographers to search quickly through more examples of real English,” said Professor Geoffrey Leech of Lancaster University. “They allow dictionaries to be more accurate and give a feel for how language is being used.” The Spoken Corpus is part of the larger British National Corpus, an initiative carried out by several groups involved in the production of language learning materials: publishers, universities and the British Library.

    Questions 1-6
    Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs (A-G). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xi) in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet. Paragraph C has been done for you as an example.
    NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. You may use any heading more than once.

    List of Headings
    i. Grammar is corrected
    ii. New method of research
    iii. Technology learns from dictionaries
    iv. Non-verbal content
    v. The first study of spoken language
    vi. Traditional lexicographical methods
    vii Written English tells the truth
    viii New phrases enter dictionary
    ix A cooperative research project
    x Accurate word frequency counts
    xi Alternative expressions provided

    1 Paragraph A
    2 Paragraph B
    3 Paragraph D
    4 Paragraph E
    5 Paragraph F
    6 Paragraph G

    Questions 7-11
    The diagram below illustrates the information provided in paragraphs B-F of Reading Passage 1 Complete the labels on the diagram with an appropriate word or words. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each space.

    Question 12
    Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write it in box 12 on your answer sheet

    12 Why was this article written?
    A To give an example of a current dictionary
    B To announce a new approach to dictionary writing
    C To show how dictionaries have progressed over the years
    D To compare the content of different dictionaries

    Moles happy as homes go underground

    A The first anybody knew about Dutchman Frank Siegmund and his family was when workmen tramping through a field found a narrow steel chimney protruding through the grass. Closer inspection revealed a chink of sky-light window among the thistles, and when amazed investigators moved down the side of the hill they came across a pine door complete with leaded diamond glass and a brass knocker set into an underground building. The Siegmunds had managed to live undetected for six years outside the border town of Breda, in Holland. They are the latest in a clutch of individualistic homemakers who have burrowed underground in search of tranquility.

    B Most, falling foul of strict building regulations, have been forced to dismantle their individualistic homes and return to more conventional lifestyles. But subterranean suburbia, Dutch-style, is about to become respectable and chic. Seven luxury homes cosseted away inside a high earth-covered noise embankment next to the main Tilburg city road recently went on the market for $296,500 each. The foundations had yet to be dug, but customers queued up to buy the unusual part-submerged houses, whose back wall consists of a grassy mound and whose front is a long glass gallery.

    C The Dutch are not the only would-be moles. Growing numbers of Europeans are burrowing below ground to create houses, offices, discos and shopping malls. It is already proving a way of life in extreme climates; in winter months in Montreal, Canada, for instance, citizens can escape the cold in an underground complex complete with shops and even health clinics. In Tokyo builders are planning a massive underground city to be begun in the next decade, and underground shopping malls are already common in Japan, where 90 percent of the population is squeezed into 20 percent of the land space.

    D Building big commercial buildings underground can be a way to avoid disfiguring or threatening a beautiful or environmentally sensitive landscape. Indeed many of the buildings which consume most land -such as cinemas, supermarkets, theatres, warehouses or libraries -have no need to be on the surface since they do not need windows.

    E There are big advantages, too, when it comes to private homes. A development of 194 houses which would take up 14 hectares of land above ground would occupy 2.7 hectares below it, while the number of roads would be halved. Under several metres of earth, noise is minimal and insulation is excellent. “We get 40 to 50 enquiries a week”, says Peter Carpenter, secretary of the British Earth Sheltering Association, which builds similar homes in Britain. “People see this as a way of building for the future.” An underground dweller himself, Carpenter has never paid a heating bill, thanks to solar panels and natural insulation.

    F In Europe the obstacle has been conservative local authorities and developers who prefer to ensure quick sales with conventional mass produced housing. But the Dutch development was greeted with undisguised relief by South Limburg planners because of Holland’s chronic shortage of land. It was the Tilburg architect Jo Hurkmans who hit on the idea of making use of noise embankments on main roads. His twofloored, four-bedroomed, two-bathroomed detached homes are now taking shape. “They are not so much below the earth as in it,” he says. “All the light will come through the glass front, which runs from the second floor ceiling to the ground. Areas which do not need much natural lighting are at the back. The living accommodation is to the front so nobody notices that the back is dark.”

    G In the US, where energy-efficient homes became popular after the oil crisis of 1973, 10,000 underground houses have been built. A terrace of five homes, Britain’s first subterranean development, is under way in Nottinghamshire. Italy’s outstanding example of subterranean architecture is the Olivetti residential centre in Ivrea. Commissioned by Roberto Olivetti in 1969, it comprises 82 one-bedroomed apartments and 12 maisonettes and forms a house/ hotel for Olivetti employees. It is built into a hill and little can be seen from outside except a glass facade. Patnzia Vallecchi, a resident since 1992, says it is little different from living in a conventional apartment.

    H Not everyone adapts so well, and in Japan scientists at the Shimizu Corporation have developed “space creation” systems which mix light, sounds, breezes and scents to stimulate people who spend long periods below ground. Underground offices in Japan are being equipped with “virtual” windows and mirrors, while underground departments in the University of Minnesota have periscopes to reflect views and light.

    I But Frank Siegmund and his family love their hobbit lifestyle. Their home evolved when he dug a cool room for his bakery business in a hill he had created. During a heatwave they took to sleeping there. “We felt at peace and so close to nature,” he says. “Gradually I began adding to the rooms. It sounds strange but we are so close to the earth we draw strength from its vibrations. Our children love it; not every child can boast of being watched through their playroom windows by rabbits.

    Questions 13-20
    Reading Passage 2 has nine paragraphs (A-I). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xii) in boxes 13 20 on your answer sheet. Paragraph A has been done for you as an example. NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.

    List of Headings
    i. A designer describes his houses
    ii. Most people prefer conventional housing
    iii. Simulating a natural environment
    iv. How an underground family home developed
    v. Demands on space and energy are reduced
    vi. The plans for future homes
    vii. Worldwide examples of underground living accommodation
    viii. Some buildings do not require natural light
    ix. Developing underground services around the world
    x. Underground living improves health
    xi. Homes sold before completion
    xii. An underground home is discovered

    13 Paragraph B
    14 Paragraph C
    15 Paragraph D
    16 Paragraph E
    17 Paragraph F
    18 Paragraph G
    19 Paragraph H
    20 Paragraph I

    Questions 21-26
    Complete the sentences below after reading the passage. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.

    21 Many developers prefer mass-produced houses because they …
    22 The Dutch development was welcomed by …
    23 Hurkmans’ houses are built into …
    24 The Ivrea centre was developed for …
    25 Japanese scientists are helping people … underground life.
    26 Frank Siegmund’s first underground room was used for …

    A Workaholic Economy

    FOR THE first century or so of the industrial revolution, increased productivity led to decreases in working hours. Employees who had been putting in 12-hour days, six days a week, found their time on the job shrinking to 10 hours daily, then, finally, to eight hours, five days a week. Only a generation ago social planners worried about what people would do with all this new-found free time. In the US, at least, it seems they need not have bothered.

    Although the output per hour of work has more than doubled since 1945, leisure seems reserved largely for the unemployed and underemployed. Those who work full-time spend as much time on the job as they did at the end of World War II. In fact, working hours have increased noticeably since 1970 — perhaps because real wages have stagnated since that year. Bookstores now abound with manuals describing how to manage time and cope with stress.

    There are several reasons for lost leisure. Since 1979, companies have responded to improvements in the business climate by having employees work overtime rather than by hiring extra personnel, says economist Juliet B. Schor of Harvard University. Indeed, the current economic recovery has gained a certain amount of notoriety for its “jobless” nature: increased production has been almost entirely decoupled from employment. Some firms are even downsizing as their profits climb. “All things being equal, we’d be better off spreading around the work,’ observes labour economist Ronald G. Ehrenberg of Cornell University.

    Yet a host of factors pushes employers to hire fewer workers for more hours and, at the same time, compels workers to spend more time on the job. Most of those incentives involve what Ehrenberg calls the structure of compensation: quirks in the way salaries and benefits are organised that make it more profitable to ask 40 employees to labour an extra hour each than to hire one more worker to do the same 40-hour job.

    Professional and managerial employees supply the most obvious lesson along these lines. Once people are on salary, their cost to a firm is the same whether they spend 35 hours a week in the office or 70. Diminishing returns may eventually set in as overworked employees lose efficiency or leave for more arable pastures. But in the short run, the employer’s incentive is clear.

    Even hourly employees receive benefits – such as pension contributions and medical insurance – that are not tied to the number of hours they work. Therefore, it is more profitable for employers to work their existing employees harder.

    For all that employees complain about long hours, they, too, have reasons not to trade money for leisure. “People who work reduced hours pay a huge penalty in career terms,” Schor maintains. It’s taken as a negative signal about their commitment to the firm.’ [Lotte] Bailyn [of Massachusetts Institute of Technology] adds that many corporate managers find it difficult to measure the contribution of their underlings to a firm’s well-being, so they use the number of hours worked as a proxy for output. “Employees know this,” she says, and they adjust their behavior accordingly.

    “Although the image of the good worker is the one whose life belongs to the company,” Bailyn says, “it doesn’t fit the facts.’ She cites both quantitative and qualitative studies that show increased productivity for part-time workers: they make better use of the time they have, and they are less likely to succumb to fatigue in stressful jobs. Companies that employ more workers for less time also gain from the resulting redundancy, she asserts. “The extra people can cover the contingencies that you know are going to happen, such as when crises take people away from the workplace.’ Positive experiences with reduced hours have begun to change the more-is-better culture at some companies, Schor reports.

    Larger firms, in particular, appear to be more willing to experiment with flexible working arrangements…

    It may take even more than changes in the financial and cultural structures of employment for workers successfully to trade increased productivity and money for leisure time, Schor contends. She says the U.S. market for goods has become skewed by the assumption of full-time, two-career households. Automobile makers no longer manufacture cheap models, and developers do not build the tiny bungalows that served the first postwar generation of home buyers. Not even the humblest household object is made without a microprocessor. As Schor notes, the situation is a curious inversion of the “appropriate technology” vision that designers have had for developing countries: U.S. goods are appropriate only for high incomes and long hours.

    Questions 27-32
    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 27-32 write

    YES                         if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
    NO                           if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
    NOT GIVEN        if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    27 Today, employees are facing a reduction in working hours.
    28 Social planners have been consulted about US employment figures.
    29 Salaries have not risen significantly since the 1970s.
    30 The economic recovery created more jobs.
    31 Bailyn’s research shows that part-time employees work more efficiently.
    32 Increased leisure time would benefit two-career households.

    Questions 33 and 34
    Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 33 and 34 on your answer sheet.

    33 Bailyn argues that it is better for a company to employ more workers because
    A it is easy to make excess staff redundant.
    B crises occur if you are under-staffed.
    C people are available to substitute for absent staff.
    D they can project a positive image at work.

    34 Schor thinks it will be difficult for workers in the US to reduce their working hours because
    A they would not be able to afford cars or homes.
    B employers are offering high incomes for long hours.
    C the future is dependent on technological advances.
    D they do not wish to return to the humble post-war era.

    Questions 35-38
    The writer mentions a number of factors that have resulted, in employees working longer hours. Which FOUR of the following factors are mentioned? Write your answers (A-H) in boxes 35-38 on your answer sheet.

    List of Factors
    A Books are available to help employees cope with stress.
    B Extra work is offered to existing employees.
    C Increased production has led to joblessness.
    D Benefits and hours spent on the job are not linked.
    E Overworked employees require longer to do their work.
    F Longer hours indicate greater commitment to the firm.
    G Managers estimate staff productivity in terms of hours worked.
    H Employees value a career more than a family.

    Questions 39 and 40
    Complete the sentences below with words from the reading passage. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD.

    39. Returns from overburdened employees decreases with time because they lose……..
    40. Employees give more work to their existing employees because for them it is……….

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 29

    ABSENTEEISM IN NURSING: A LONGITUDINAL STUDY

    Absence from work is a costly and disruptive problem for any organisation. The cost of absenteeism in Australia has been put at 1.8 million hours per day or $1400 million annually. The study reported here was conducted in the Prince William Hospital in Brisbane, Australia, where, prior to this time, few active steps had been taken to measure, understand or manage the occurrence of absenteeism.

    Nursing Absenteeism
    A prevalent attitude amongst many nurses in the group selected for study was that there was no reward or recognition for not utilising the paid sick leave entitlement allowed them in their employment conditions. Therefore, they believed they may as well take the days off — sick or otherwise. Similar attitudes have been noted by James (1989), who noted that sick leave is seen by many workers as a right, like annual holiday leave.

    Miller and Norton (1986), in their survey of 865 nursing personnel, found that 73 per cent felt they should be rewarded for not taking sick leave, because some employees always used their sick leave. Further, 67 per cent of nurses felt that administration was not sympathetic to the problems shift work causes to employees’ personal and social lives. Only 53 per cent of the respondents felt that every effort was made to schedule staff fairly.

    In another longitudinal study of nurses working in two Canadian hospitals, Hackett, Bycio and Guion (1989) examined the reasons why nurses took absence from work. The most frequent reason stated for absence was minor illness to self. Other causes, in decreasing order of frequency, were illness in family, family social function, work to do at home and bereavement.

    Method
    In an attempt to reduce the level of absenteeism amongst the 250 Registered and Enrolled Nurses in the present study, the Prince William management introduced three different, yet potentially complementary, strategies over 18 months.

    Strategy 1: Non-financial (material) incentives
    Within the established wage and salary system it was not possible to use hospital funds to support this strategy. However, it was possible to secure incentives from local businesses, including free passes to entertainment parks, theatres, restaurants, etc. At the end of each roster period, the ward with the lowest absence rate would win the prize.

    Strategy 2: Flexible fair roistering
    Where possible staff were given the opportunity to determine their working schedule within the limits of clinical needs.

    Strategy 3: Individual absenteeism and counselling
    Each month, managers would analyse the pattern of absence of staff with excessive sick leave (greater than ten days per year for full time employees). Characteristic patterns of potential ‘voluntary absenteeism’ such as absence before and after days off, excessive weekend and night duty absence and multiple single days off were communicated to all ward nurses and then, as necessary, followed up by action.

    Results
    Absence rates for the six months prior to the incentive scheme ranged from 3.69 percent to 4.32 percent. In the following six months they ranged between 2.87 percent and 3.96 percent. This represents a 20 percent improvement. However, analysing the absence rates on a year-to-year basis, the overall absence rate was 3.60 per cent in the first year and 3.43 per cent in the following year. This represents a 5 per cent decrease from the first to the second year of the study. A significant decrease in absence over the two-year period could not be demonstrated.

    Discussion
    The non-financial incentive scheme did appear to assist in controlling absenteeism in the short term. As the scheme progressed it became harder to secure prizes and this contributed to the program’s losing momentum and finally ceasing. There were mixed results across wards as well. For example, in wards with staff members who had long-term genuine illness, there was little chance of winning, and to some extent the staff on those wards were disempowered. Our experience would suggest that the long-term effects of incentive awards on absenteeism are questionable.

    Over the time of the study, staff were given a larger degree of control in their rosters. This led to significant improvements in communication between managers and staff. A similar effect was found from the implementation of the third strategy. Many of the nurses had not realised the impact their behaviour was having on the organisation and their colleagues but there were also staff members who felt that talking to them about their absenteeism was ‘picking’ on them and this usually had a negative effect on management-employee relationships.

    Conclusion
    Although there has been some decrease in absence rates, no single strategy or combination of strategies has had a significant impact on absenteeism per se. Notwithstanding the disappointing results, it is our contention that the strategies were not in vain. A shared ownership of absenteeism and a collaborative approach to problem solving has facilitated improved cooperation and communication between management and staff. It is our belief that this improvement alone, while not tangibly measurable, has increased the ability of management to manage the effects of absenteeism more effectively since this study.

    Questions 1-7
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage I? In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet write

    YES                         if the statement agrees with the information
    NO                           if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN        if there is no information on this in the passage

    1 The Prince William Hospital has been trying to reduce absenteeism amongst nurses for many years.
    2 Nurses in the Prince William Hospital study believed that there were benefits in taking as little sick leave as possible.
    3 Just over half the nurses in the 1986 study believed that management understood the effects that shift work had on them.
    4 The Canadian study found that ‘illness in the family’ was a greater cause of absenteeism than ‘work to do at home’.
    5 In relation to management attitude to absenteeism the study at the Prince William Hospital found similar results to the two 1989 studies.
    6 The study at the Prince William Hospital aimed to find out the causes of absenteeism amongst 250 nurses.
    7 The study at the Prince William Hospital involved changes in management practices.

    Questions 8-13
    Complete the notes below. Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
    Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.

    In the first strategy, wards with the lowest absenteeism in different periods would win prizes donated by (8)………………………. In the second strategy, staff were given more control over their (9)……………………….
    In the third strategy, nurses who appeared to be taking (10)……………………….. sick leave or (11)…………………… were identified and counselled. Initially, there was a (12)………………………..per cent decrease in absenteeism. The first strategy was considered ineffective and stopped. The second and third strategies generally resulted in better (13)……………………. among staff.

    The Motor Car

    A There are now over 700 million motor vehicles in the world – and the number is rising by more than 40 million each year. The average distance driven by car users is growing too – from 8 km a day per person in western Europe in 1965 to 25 km a day in 1995. This dependence on motor vehicles has given rise to major problems, including environmental pollution, depletion of oil resources, traffic congestion and safety.

    B While emissions from new cars are far less harmful than they used to be, city streets and motorways are becoming more crowded than ever, often with older trucks, buses and taxis, which emit excessive levels of smoke and fumes. This concentration of vehicles makes air quality in urban areas unpleasant and sometimes dangerous to breathe. Even Moscow has joined the list of capitals afflicted by congestion and traffic fumes. In Mexico City, vehicle pollution is a major health hazard.

    C Until a hundred years ago, most journeys were in the 20 km range, the distance conveniently accessible by horse. Heavy freight could only be carried by water or rail. The invention of the motor vehicle brought personal mobility to the masses and made rapid freight delivery possible over a much wider area. Today about 90 per cent of inland freight in the United Kingdom is carried by road. Clearly the world cannot revert to the horse-drawn wagon. Can it avoid being locked into congested and polluting ways of transporting people and goods?

    D In Europe most cities are still designed for the old modes of transport. Adaptation to the motor car has involved adding ring roads, one-way systems and parking lots. In the United States, more land is assigned to car use than to housing. Urban sprawl means that life without a car is next to impossible. Mass use of motor vehicles has also killed or injured millions of people. Other social effects have been blamed on the car such as alienation and aggressive human behaviour.

    E A 1993 study by the European Federation for Transport and Environment found that car transport is seven times as costly as rail travel in terms of the external social costs it entails such as congestion, accidents, pollution, loss of cropland and natural habitats, depletion of oil resources, and so on. Yet cars easily surpass trains or buses as a flexible and conveniept mode of personal transport. It is unrealistic to expect people to give up private cars in favour of mass transit.

    F Technical solutions can reduce the pollution problem and increase the fuel efficiency of engines. But fuel consumption and exhaust emissions depend on which cars are preferred by customers and how they are driven. Many people buy larger cars than they need for daily purposes or waste fuel by driving aggressively. Besides, global car use is increasing at a faster rate than the improvement in emissions and fuel efficiency which technology is now making possible.

    G One solution that has been put forward is the long-term solution of designing cities and neighbourhoods so that car journeys are not necessary – all essential services being located within walking distance or easily accessible by public transport. Not only would this save energy and cut carbon dioxide emissions, it would also enhance the quality of community life, putting the emphasis aa people instead of cars. Good local government is already bringing this about in some places. But few democratic communities are blessed with the vision – and the capital – to make such profound changes in modern lifestyles.

    H A more likely scenario seems to be a combination of mass transit systems for travel into and around cities, with small ‘low emission’ cars for urban use and larger hybrid or lean burn cars for use elsewhere. Electronically tolled highways might be used to ensure that drivers pay charges geared to actual road use. Better integration of transport systems is also highly desirable – and made more feasible by modern computers. But these are solutions for countries which can afford them. In most developing countries, old cars and old technologies continue to predominate.

    Questions 14-19
    Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs (A-H). Which paragraphs concentrate on the following information? Write the appropriate letters (A-H) in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

    14 a comparison of past and present transportation methods
    15 how driving habits contribute to road problems
    16 the relative merits of cars and public transport
    17 the writer’s own prediction of future solutions
    18 the increasing use of motor vehicles
    19 the impact of the car on city development

    Questions 20-26
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 20-26 on your answer sheet write

    YES                          if the statement agrees with the information
    NO                            if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN         if there is no information on this in the passage

    20 Vehicle pollution is worse in European cities than anywhere else.
    21 Transport by horse would be a useful alternative to motor vehicles.
    22 Nowadays freight is not carried by water in the United Kingdom.
    23 Most European cities were not designed for motor vehicles.
    24 Technology alone cannot solve the problem of vehicle pollution.
    25 People’s choice of car and attitude to driving is a factor in the pollution problem.
    26 Redesigning cities would be a short-term solution.

    The Keyless Society

    A Students who want to enter the University of Montreal’s Athletic Complex need more than just a conventional ID card – their identities must be authenticated by an electronic hand scanner. In some California housing estates, a key alone is insufficient to get someone in the door; his or her voiceprint must also be verified. And soon, customers at some Japanese banks will have to present their faces for scanning before they can enter the building and withdraw their money.

    B All of these are applications of biometrics, a little-known but fast-growing technology that involves the use of physical or biological characteristics to identify individuals. In use for more than a decade at some high- security government institutions in the United States and Canada, biometrics are now rapidly popping up in the everyday world. Already, more than 10,000 facilities, from prisons to day-care centres, monitor people’s fingerprints or other physical parts to ensure that they are who they claim to be. Some 60 biometric companies around the world pulled in at least $22 million last year and that grand total is expected to mushroom to at least $50 million by 1999.

    C Biometric security systems operate by storing a digitised record of some unique human feature. When an authorised user wishes to enter or use the facility, the system scans the person’s corresponding characteristics and attempts to match them against those on record. Systems using fingerprints, hands, voices, irises, retinas and faces are already on the market. Others using typing patterns and even body odours are in various stages of development.

    D Fingerprint scanners are currently the most widely deployed type of biometric application, thanks to their growing use over the last 20 years by law-enforcement agencies. Sixteen American states now use biometric fingerprint verification systems to check that people claiming welfare payments are genuine. In June, politicians in Toronto voted to do the same, with a pilot project beginning next year.

    E To date, the most widely used commercial biometric system is the handkey, a type of hand scanner which reads the unique shape, size and irregularities of people’s hands. Originally developed for nuclear power plants the handkey received its big break when it was used to control access to the plarftf, the handkey received its big break when it was used to control access to the Olympic Village in Atlanta by more than 65,000 athletes, trainers and support staff. Now there are scores of other applications.

    F Around the world, the market is growing rapidly. Malaysia, for example, is preparing to equip all of its airports with biometric face scanners to match passengers with luggage. And Japan’s largest maker of cash dispensers is developing new machines that incorporate iris scanners. The first commercial biometric, a hand reader used by an American firm to monitor employee attendance, was introduced in 1974. But only in the past few years has the technology improved enough for the prices to drop sufficiently to make them commercially viable. ‘When we started four years ago, I had to explain to everyone what a biometric is,’ says one marketing expert. ‘Now, there’s much more awareness out there.’

    G Not surprisingly, biometrics raise thorny questions about privacy and the potential for abuse. Some worry that governments and industry will be tempted to use the technology to monitor individual behaviour. ‘If someone used your fingerprints to match your health-insurance records with a credit-card record showing you regularly bought lots of cigarettes and fatty foods,’ says one policy analyst, ‘you would see your insurance payments go through the roof.’ In Toronto, critics of the welfare fingerprint plan complained that it would stigmatise recipients by forcing them to submit to a procedure widely identified with criminals.

    H Nonetheless, support for biometrics is growing in Toronto as it is in many other communities. In an increasingly crowded and complicated world, biometrics may well be a technology whose time has come.

    Questions 27-33
    Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs (A-H). Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-H from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i—x) in boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet.
    NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.

    List of headings
    i. Common objections
    ii. Who’s planning what
    iii. This type sells best in shops
    iv. The figures say it all
    v. Early trials
    vi. They can’t get in without these
    vii. How does it work?
    viii. Fighting fraud
    ix. Systems to avoid
    x. Accepting the inevitable

    27 Paragraph B
    28 Paragraph C
    29 Paragraph D
    30 Paragraph E
    31 Paragraph F
    32 Paragraph G
    33 Paragraph H

    Questions 34-40
    Look at the following groups of people (Questions 34-40) and the list of biometric systems (A-F) below. Match the groups of people to the biometric system associated with them in Reading Passage 3. Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any biometric system more than once.

    34 sports students
    35 Olympic athletes
    36 airline passengers
    37 welfare claimants
    38 business employees
    39 home owners
    40 bank customers

    List of Biometric Systems
    A fingerprint scanner
    B hand scanner
    C body odour
    D voiceprint
    E face scanner
    F typing pattern

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 28

    Green Wave Washes Over Mainstream Shopping

    Research in Britain has shown that ‘green consumers’ continue to flourish as a significant group amongst shoppers. This suggests that politicians who claim environmentalism is yesterday’s issue may be seriously misjudging the public mood.

    A report from Mintel, the market research organisation, says that despite recession and financial pressures, more people than ever want to buy environmentally friendly products and a ‘green wave’ has swept through consumerism, taking in people previously untouched by environmental concerns. The recently published report also predicts that the process will repeat itself with ‘ethical’ concerns, involving issues such as fair trade with the Third World and the social record of businesses. Companies will have to be more honest and open in response to this mood.

    Mintel’s survey, based on nearly 1,000 consumers, found that the proportion who look for green products and are prepared to pay more for them has climbed from 53 per cent in 1990 to around 60 per cent in 1994. On average, they will pay 13 per cent more for such products, although this percentage is higher among women, managerial and professional groups and those aged 35 to 44.

    Between 1990 and 1994 the proportion of consumers claiming to be unaware of or unconcerned about green issues fell from 18 to 10 per cent but the number of green spenders among older people and manual workers has risen substantially. Regions such as Scotland have also caught up with the south of England in their environmental concerns. According to Mintel, the image of green consumerism as associated in the past with the more eccentric members of society has virtually disappeared. The consumer research manager for Mintel, Angela Hughes, said it had become firmly established as a mainstream market. She explained that as far as the average person is concerned environmentalism has not ‘gone off the boil’. In fact, it has spread across a much wider range of consumer groups, ages and occupations.

    Mintel’s 1994 survey found that 13 per cent of consumers are ‘very dark green’, nearly always buying environmentally friendly products, 28 per cent are ‘dark green’, trying ‘as far as possible’ to buy such products, and 21 per cent are ‘pale green’ – tending to buy green products if they see them. Another 26 per cent are ‘armchair greens’; they said they care about environmental issues but their concern does not affect their spending habits. Only 10 per cent say they do not care about green issues. Four in ten people are ‘ethical spenders’, buying goods which do not, for example, involve dealings with oppressive regimes. This figure is the same its in 1990, although the number of ‘armchair ethicals’ has risen from 28 to 35 per cent and only 22 per cent say they are unconcerned now, against 30 per cent in 1990. Hughes claims that in the twenty-first century, consumers will be encouraged to think more about the entire history of the products and services they buy, including the policies of the companies that provide them and that this will require a greater degree of honesty with consumers.

    Among green consumers, animal testing is the top issue – 48 per cent said they would be deterred from buying a product it if had been tested on animals – followed by concerns regarding irresponsible selling, the ozone layer, river and sea pollution, forest destruction, recycling and factory farming. However, concern for specific issues is lower than in 1990, suggesting that many consumers feel that Government and business have taken on the environmental agenda.

    Questions 1-6
    Do the fallowing statements agree with the claims of the writer of Reading Passage I? In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet write

    YES                                 if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer
    NO                                   if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    NOT GIVEN                if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    1 The research findings report commercial rather than political trends.
    2 Being financially better off has made shoppers more sensitive to buying ‘green’.
    3 The majority of shoppers are prepared to pay more for the benefit of the environment according to the research findings.
    4 Consumers’ green shopping habits are influenced by Mintel’s findings.
    5 Mintel have limited their investigation to professional and managerial groups.
    6 Mintel undertakes market surveys on an annual basis.

    Questions 7-9
    Choose the appropriate letters A-D

    7 Politicians may have ‘misjudged the public mood’ because
    A they are pre-occupied with the recession and financial problems
    B there is more widespread interest in the environment agenda than they anticipated
    C consumer spending has increased significantly as a result of ‘green’ pressure
    D shoppers are displeased with government policies on a range of issues.

    8 What is Mintel?
    A an environmentalist group
    B a business survey organisation
    C an academic research team
    D political organisation

    9 A consumer expressing concern for environmental issues without actively supporting such principles is
    A an ethical spender
    B a very dark green spender
    C an armchair green
    D a pale green spender

    Questions 10-13
    Complete the summary using words from the options given below. Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.
    NB There are more answers than spaces, so you will not use them all.

    The Mintel report suggests that in future companies will be forced to practise greater (10)………………………… in their dealings because of the increased awareness amongst (11)……………………………. of ethical issues. This prediction is supported by the growth in the number of (12)…………………………… identified in the most recent survey published. As a consequence, it is felt that companies will have to think more carefully about their (13)………………………..

    Environmental research                    Social awareness                       Consumers

    Honesty and openness                     Social record                             Political beliefs

    Ethical spenders                                Armchair ethical                        Financial constraints

    Politicians                                          Environmentalists

    Reading Passage 2

    A There is a great concern in Europe and North America about declining standards of literacy in schools. In Britain, the fact that 30 per cent of 16 year olds have a reading age of 14 or less has helped to prompt massive educational changes. The development of literacy has far-reaching effects on general intellectual development and thus anything which impedes the development of literacy is a serious matter for us all. So the hunt is on for the cause of the decline in literacy. The search so far has focused on socio-economic factors, or the effectiveness of ‘traditional’ versus ‘modern’ teaching techniques.

    B The fruitless search for the cause of the increase in illiteracy is a tragic example of the saying ‘They can’t see the wood for the trees’. When teachers use picture books, they are simply continuing a long-established tradition that is accepted without question. And for the past two decades, illustrations in reading primers have become increasingly detailed and obtrusive, while language has become impoverished – sometimes to the point of extinction.

    C Amazingly, there is virtually no empirical evidence to support the use of illustrations in teaching reading. On the contrary, a great deal of empirical evidence shows that pictures interfere in a damaging way with all aspects of learning to read. Despite this, from North America to the Antipodes, the first books that many school children receive are totally without text.

    D A teacher’s main concern is to help young beginner readers to develop not only the ability to recognise words, but the skills necessary to understand what these words mean. Even if a child is able to read aloud fluently, he or she may not be able to understand much of it: this is called ‘barking at text’. The teacher’s task of improving comprehension is made harder by influences outside the classroom. But the adverse effects of such things as television, video games, or limited language experiences at home, can be offset by experiencing ‘rich’ language at school.

    E Instead, it is not unusual for a book of 30 or more pages to have only one sentence full of repetitive phrases. The artwork is often marvellous, but the pictures make the language redundant, and the children have no need to imagine anything when they read such books. Looking at a picture actively prevents children younger than nine from creating a mental image, and can make it difficult for older children. In order to learn how to comprehend, they need to practise making their own meaning in response to text. They need to have their innate powers of imagination trained.

    F As they grow older, many children turn aside from books without pictures, and it is a situation made more serious as our culture becomes more visual. It is hard to wean children off picture books when pictures have played a major part throughout their formative reading experiences, and when there is competition for their attention from so many other sources of entertainment. The least intelligent are most vulnerable, but tests show that even intelligent children are being affected. The response of educators has been to extend the use of pictures in books and to simplify the language, even at senior levels. The Universities of Oxford and Cambridge recently held joint conferences to discuss the noticeably rapid decline in literacy among their undergraduates.

    G Pictures are also used to help motivate children to read because they are beautiful and eye-catching. But motivation to read should be provided by listening to stories well read, where children imagine in response to the story. Then, as they start to read, they have this experience to help them understand the language. If we present pictures to save children the trouble of developing these creative skills, then I think we are making a great mistake.

    H Academic journals ranging from educational research, psychology, language learning, psycholinguistics, and so on cite experiments which demonstrate how detrimental pictures are for beginner readers. Here is a brief selection:

    I The research results of the Canadian educationalist Dale Willows were clear and consistent: pictures affected speed and accuracy and the closer the pictures were to the words, the slower and more inaccurate the child’s reading became. She claims that when children come to a word they already know, then the pictures are unnecessary and distracting. If they do not know a word and look to the picture for a clue to its meaning, they may well be misled by aspects of the pictures which are not closely related to the meaning of the word they are trying to understand.

    J Jay Samuels, an American psychologist, found that poor readers given no pictures learnt significantly more words than those learning to read with books with pictures. He examined the work of other researchers who had reported problems with the use of pictures and who found that a word without a picture was superior to a word plus a picture. When children were given words and pictures, those who seemed to ignore the pictures and pointed at the words learnt more words than the children who pointed at the pictures but they still learnt fewer words than the children who had no illustrate stimuli at all.

    Questions 14-17
    Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 14-17.

    14 Readers are said to ‘bark’ at a text when
    A they read too loudly
    B there are too many repetitive words
    C they are discouraged from using their imagination
    D they have difficulty assessing its meaning

    15 The text suggests that
    A pictures in books should be less detailed
    B pictures can slow down reading progress
    C picture books are best used with younger readers
    D pictures make modern books too expensive

    16 University academics are concerned because
    A young people are showing less interest in higher education
    B students cannot understand modern academic text
    C academic books are too childish for their under graduation
    D there has been a significant change in student literature

    17 The youngest readers will quickly develop good reading skills if they
    A learn to associate the words in a text with pictures
    B are exposed to modern teaching techniques
    C are encouraged to ignore pictures in the text
    D learn the art of telling stories

    Questions 18-21
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 18-21 on your answer sheet write

    YES                            if the statement agrees with the information
    NO                              if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN           if there is no information about this in the passage

    18 It is traditionally accepted that children’s books should contain few pictures.
    19 Teachers aim to teach both word recognition and word meaning.
    20 Older readers are having difficulty in adjusting to texts without pictures.
    21 Literacy has improved as a result of recent academic conferences.

    Questions 22-25
    Reading Passage 2 has ten paragraphs, A-J. Which paragraphs state the following information?

    22 The decline of literacy is seen in groups of differing ages and abilities.
    23 Reading methods currently in use go against research findings.
    24 Readers able to ignore pictures are claimed to make greater progress.
    25 Illustrations in books can give misleading information about word meaning.

    Question 26
    From the list below choose the most suitable title for the whole of Reading Passage 2.

    A The global decline in reading levels
    B Concern about recent educational developments
    C The harm that picture books can cause
    D Research carried out on children’s literature
    E An examination of modern reading styles

    IN SEARCH OF THE HOLY GRAIL

    It has been called the Holy Grail of modern biology. Costing more than £2 billion, it is the most ambitious scientific project since the Apollo programme that landed a man on the moon. And it will take longer to accomplish than the lunar missions, for it will not be complete until early next century. Even before it is finished, according to those involved, this project should open up new understanding of, and new treatments for, many of the ailments that afflict humanity. As a result of the Human Genome Project, there will be new hope of liberation from the shadows of cancer, heart disease, auto-immune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, and some psychiatric illnesses.

    The objective of the Human Genome Project is simple to state, but audacious in scope: to map and analyse every single gene within the double helix of humanity’s DNA. The project will reveal a new human anatomy — not the bones, muscles and sinews, but the complete genetic blueprint for a human being. Those working on the Human Genome Project claim that the new genetical anatomy will transform medicine and reduce human suffering in the twenty-first century. But others see the future through a darker glass, and fear that the project may open the door to a world peopled by Frankenstein’s monsters and disfigured by a new eugenics.

    The genetic inheritance a baby receives from its parents at the moment of conception fixes much of its later development, determining characteristics as varied as whether it will have blue eyes or suffer from a life- threatening illness such as cystic fibrosis. The human genome is the compendium of all these inherited genetic instructions. Written out along the double helix of DNA are the chemical letters of the genetic text. It is an extremely long text, for the human genome contains more than 3 billion letters:

    On the printed page it would fill about 7,000 volumes. Yet, within little more than a decade, the position of every letter and its relation to its neighbours will have been tracked down, analysed and recorded.

    Considering how many letters there are in the human genome, nature is an excellent proof-reader. But sometimes there are mistakes. An error in a single ‘word’ — a gene — can give rise to the crippling condition of cystic fibrosis, the commonest genetic disorder among Caucasians. Errors in the genetic recipe for hemoglobin, the protein that gives blood its characteristic red colour and which carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body, give rise to the most common single-gene disorder in the world: thalassemia. More than 4,000 such single-gene defects are known to afflict humanity. The majority of them are fatal; the majority of the victims are children.

    None of the single-gene disorders is a disease in the conventional sense, for which it would be possible to administer a curative drug: the defect is pre-programmed into every cell of the sufferer’s body. But there is hope of progress. In 1986, American researchers identified the genetic defect underlying one type of muscular dystrophy. In 1989, a team of American and Canadian biologists announced that they had found the site of the gene which, when defective, gives rise to cystic fibrosis. Indeed, not only had they located the gene, they had analysed the sequence of letters within it and had identified the mistake responsible for the condition. At the least, these scientific advances may offer a way of screening parents who might be at risk of transmitting a single-gene defect to any children that they conceive. Foetuses can be tested while in the womb, and if found free of the genetic defect, the parents will be relieved of worry and stress, knowing that they will be delivered of a baby free from the disorder.

    In the mid-1980s, the idea gained currency within the scientific world that the techniques which were successfully deciphering disorder-related genes could be applied to a larger project if science can learn the genetic spelling of cystic fibrosis, why not attempt to find out how to spell ‘human’? Momentum quickly built up behind the Human Genome Project and its objective of ‘sequencing’ the entire genome – writing out all the letters in their correct order.

    But the consequences of the Human Genome Project go far beyond a narrow focus on disease. Some of its supporters have made claims of great extravagance – that the Project will bring us to understand, at the most fundamental level, what it is to be human. Yet many people are concerned that such an emphasis on humanity’s genetic constitution may distort our sense of values, and lead us to forget that human life is more than just the expression of a genetic program written in the chemistry of DNA.

    If properly applied, the new knowledge generated by the Human Genome Project may free humanity from the terrible scourge of diverse diseases. But if the new knowledge is not used wisely, it also holds the threat of creating new forms of discrimination and new methods of oppression. Many characteristics, such as height and intelligence, result not from the action of genes alone, but from subtle interactions between genes and the environment. What would be the implications if humanity were to understand, with precision, the genetic constitution which, given the same environment, will predispose one person towards a higher intelligence than another individual whose genes were differently shuffled?

    Once before in this century, the relentless curiosity of scientific researchers brought to light forces of nature in the power of the atom, the mastery of which has shaped the destiny of nations and overshadowed all our lives. The Human Genome Project holds the promise that, ultimately, we may be able to alter our genetic inheritance if we so choose. But there is the central moral problem: how can we ensure that when we choose, we choose correctly? That such a potential is a promise and not a threat? We need only look at the past to understand the danger.

    Questions 27-32
    Complete the sentences below (Questions 27—32) with words taken from Reading Passage 3. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer Write your answers in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

    27 The passage compares the Project in scale to the…………………
    28 The possible completion date of the Project is……………..
    29 To write out the human genome on paper would require………………………..books.
    30 A genetic problem cannot be treated with drugs because strictly speaking it is not a…………………….
    31 Research into genetic defects had its first success in the discovery of the cause of one form of……………….
    32 The second success of research into genetic defects was to find the cause of……………..

    Questions 33-40
    Classify the following statements as representing

    A the writer’s fears about the Human Genome Project
    B other people’s fears about the Project reported by the writer
    C the writer’s reporting of facts about the Project
    D the writer’s reporting of the long-term hopes for the Project

    Write the appropriate letters A-D in boxes 33—40 on your answer sheet.

    33 The Project will provide a new understanding of major diseases.
    34 All the components which make up DNA are to be recorded and studied.
    35 Genetic monsters may be created.
    36 The correct order and inter-relation of all genetic data in all DNA will be mapped.
    37 Parents will no longer worry about giving birth to defective offspring.
    38 Being ‘human’ may be defined solely in terms of describable physical data.
    39 People may be discriminated against in new ways.
    40 From past experience humans may not use this new knowledge wisely.

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 27

    A Remarkable Beetle

    Some of the most remarkable beetles are the dung beetles, which spend almost their whole lives eating and breeding in dung’.

    More than 4,000 species of these remarkable creatures have evolved and adapted to the world’s different climates and the dung of its many animals. Australia’s native dung beetles are scrub and woodland dwellers, specialising in coarse marsupial droppings and avoiding the soft cattle dung in which bush flies and buffalo flies breed.

    In the early 1960s George Bornemissza, then a scientist at the Australian Government’s premier research organisation, the Commonwealth Scientific and Industrial Research Organisation (CSIRO), suggested that dung beetles should be introduced to Australia to control dung-breeding flies. Between 1968 and 1982, the CSIRO imported insects from about 50 different species of dung beetle, from Asia, Europe and Africa, aiming to match them to different climatic zones in Australia. Of the 26 species that are known to have become successfully integrated into the local environment, only one, an African species released in northern Australia, has reached its natural boundary.

    Introducing dung beetles into a pasture is a simple process: approximately 1,500 beetles are released, a handful at a time, into fresh cow pats in the cow pasture. The beetles immediately disappear beneath the pats digging and tunnelling and, if they successfully adapt to their new environment, soon become a permanent, self-sustaining part of the local ecology. In time they multiply and within three or four years the benefits to the pasture are obvious.

    Dung beetles work from the inside of the pat so they are sheltered from predators such as birds and foxes. Most species burrow into the soil and bury dung in tunnels directly underneath the pats, which are hollowed out from within. Some large species originating from France excavate tunnels to a depth of approximately 30 cm below the dung pat. These beetles make sausage-shaped brood chambers along the tunnels. The shallowest tunnels belong to a much smaller Spanish species that buries dung in chambers that hang like fruit from the branches of a pear tree. South African beetles dig narrow tunnels of approximately 20 cm below the surface of the pat. Some surface-dwelling beetles, including a South African species, cut perfectly-shaped balls from the pat, which are rolled away and attached to the bases of plants.

    For maximum dung burial in spring, summer and autumn, farmers require a variety of species with overlapping periods of activity. In the cooler environments of the state of Victoria, the large French species (2.5 cms long) is matched with smaller (half this size), temperate-climate Spanish species. The former are slow to recover from the winter cold and produce only one or two generations of offspring from late spring until autumn. The latter, which multiply rapidly in early spring, produce two to five generations annually. The South African ball-rolling species, being a subtropical beetle, prefers the climate of northern and coastal New South Wales where it commonly works with the South African tunnelling species. In warmer climates, many species are active for longer periods of the year.

    Dung beetles were initially introduced in the late 1960s with a view to controlling buffalo flies by removing the dung within a day or two and so preventing flies from breeding. However, other benefits have become evident. Once the beetle larvae have finished pupation, the residue is a first-rate source of fertiliser. The tunnels abandoned by the beetles provide excellent aeration and water channels for root systems. In addition, when the new generation of beetles has left the nest the abandoned burrows are an attractive habitat for soil-enriching earthworms. The digested dung in these burrows is an excellent food supply for the earthworms, which decompose it further to provide essential soil nutrients. If it were not for the dung beetle, chemical fertiliser and dung would be washed by rain into streams and rivers before it could be absorbed into the hard earth, polluting water courses and causing blooms of blue-green algae. Without the beetles to dispose of the dung, cow pats would litter pastures making grass inedible to cattle and depriving the soil of sunlight. Australia’s 30 million cattle each produce 10-12 cow pats a day. This amounts to 1.7 billion tonnes a year, enough to smother about 110,000 sq km of pasture, half the area of Victoria.

    Dung beetles have become an integral part of the successful management of dairy farms in Australia over the past few decades. A number of species are available from the CSIRO or through a small number of private breeders, most of whom were entomologists with the CSIRO’s dung beetle unit who have taken their specialised knowledge of the insect and opened small businesses in direct competition with their former employer.

    Questions 1-5
    Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet write

    YES                             if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
    NO                               if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    NOT GIVEN            if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    1 Bush flies are easier to control than buffalo flies.
    2 Four thousand species of dung beetle were initially brought to Australia by the CSIRO.
    3 Dung beetles were brought to Australia by the CSIRO over a fourteen-year period.
    4 At least twenty-six of the introduced species have become established in Australia.
    5 The dung beetles cause an immediate improvement to the quality of a cow pasture.

    Questions 6-8
    Label the tunnels on the diagram below. Choose your labels from the box given with the diagram

    Reading Passage 2

    Section A
    The role of governments in environmental management is difficult but inescapable. Sometimes, the state tries to manage the resources it owns, and does so badly. Often, however, governments act in an even more harmful way. They actually subsidise the exploitation and consumption of natural resources. A whole range of policies, from farm- price support to protection for coal-mining, do environmental damage and (often) make no economic sense. Scrapping them offers a two-fold bonus: a cleaner environment and a more efficient economy. Growth and environmentalism can actually go hand in hand, if politicians have the courage to confront the vested interest that subsidies create.

    Section B
    No activity affects more of the earth’s surface than farming. It shapes a third of the planet’s land area, not counting Antarctica, and the proportion is rising. World food output per head has risen by 4 per cent between the 1970s and 1980s mainly as a result of increases in yields from land already in cultivation, but also because more land has been brought under the plough. Higher yields have been achieved by increased irrigation, better crop breeding, and a doubling in the use of pesticides and chemical fertilisers in the 1970s and 1980s.

    Section C
    All these activities may have damaging environmental impacts. For example, land clearing for agriculture is the largest single cause of deforestation; chemical fertilisers and pesticides may contaminate water supplies; more intensive farming and the abandonment of fallow periods tend to exacerbate soil erosion; and the spread of mono-Culture and use of high-yielding varieties of crops have been accompanied by the disappearance of old varieties of food plants which might have provided some insurance against pests or diseases in future. Soil erosion threatens the productivity of land in both rich and poor countries. The United States, where the most careful measurements have been done, discovered in 1982 that about one-fifth of its farmland as losing topsoil at a rate likely to diminish the soil’s productivity. The country subsequently embarked upon a program to convert 11 per cent of its cropped land to meadow or forest. Topsoil in India and China is vanishing much faster than in America.

    Section D
    Government policies have frequently compounded the environmental damage that farming can cause. In the rich countries, subsidies for growing crops and price supports for farm output drive up the price of land. The annual value of these subsidies is immense: about $250 billion, or more than all World Bank lending in the 1980s.To increase the output of crops per acre, a farmer’s easiest option is to use more of the most readily available inputs: fertilisers and pesticides. Fertiliser use doubled in Denmark in the period 1960-1985 and increased in The Netherlands by 150 per cent. The quantity of pesticides applied has risen too; by 69 per cent in 1975-1984 in Denmark, for example, with a rise of 115 per cent in the frequency of application in the three years from 1981.

    In the late 1980s and early 1990s some efforts were made to reduce farm subsidies. The most dramatic example was that of New Zealand, which scrapped most farm support in 1984. A study of the environmental effects, conducted in 1993, found that the end of fertiliser subsidies had been followed by a fall in fertiliser use (a fall compounded by the decline in world commodity prices, which cut farm incomes). The removal of subsidies also stopped land-clearing and over-stocking, which in the past had been the principal causes of erosion. Farms began to diversify. The one kind of subsidy whose removal appeared to have been bad for the environment was the subsidy to manage soil erosion.

    In less enlightened countries, and in the European Union, the trend has been to reduce rather than eliminate subsidies, and to introduce new payments to encourage farmers to treat their land in environmentally friendlier ways, or to leave it follow. It may sound strange but such payments need to be higher than the existing incentives for farmers to grow food crops. Farmers, however, dislike being paid to do nothing. In several countries they have become interested in the possibility of using fuel produced from crop residues either as a replacement for petrol (as ethanol) or as fuel for power stations (as biomass). Such fuels produce far less carbon dioxide than coal or oil, and absorb carbon dioxide as they grow. They are therefore less likely to contribute to the greenhouse effect. But they die rarely competitive with fossil fuels unless subsidised – and growing them does no less environmental harm than other crops.

    Section E
    In poor countries, governments aggravate other sorts of damage. Subsidies for pesticides and artificial fertilisers encourage farmers to use greater quantities than are needed to get the highest economic crop yield. A study by the International Rice Research Institute Of pesticide use by farmers in South East Asia found that, with pest-resistant varieties of rice, even moderate applications of pesticide frequently cost farmers more than they saved. Such waste puts farmers on a chemical treadmill: bugs and weeds become resistant to poisons, so next year’s poisons must be more lethal. One cost is to human health, every year some 10,000 people die from pesticide poisoning, almost all of them in the developing countries, and another 400,000 become seriously ill. As for artificial fertilisers, their use world-wide increased by 40 per cent per unit of farmed land between the mid 1970s and late 1980s, mostly in the developing countries. Overuse of fertilisers may cause farmers to stop rotating crops or leaving their land fallow. That, In turn, may make soil erosion worse.

    Section F
    A result of the Uruguay Round of world trade negotiations is likely to be a reduction of 36 per cent in the average levels of farm subsidies paid by the rich countries in 1986-1990. Some of the world’s food production will move from Western Europe to regions where subsidies are lower or non-existent, such as the former communist countries and parts of the developing world. Some environmentalists worry about this outcome.

    It will undoubtedly mean more pressure to convert natural habitat into farmland. But it will also have many desirable environmental effects. The intensity of farming in the rich world should decline, and the use of chemical inputs will diminish. Crops are more likely to be grown up in the environments to which they are naturally suited. And more farmers in poor countries will have the money and the incentive to manage their land in ways that are sustainable in the long run. That is important. To feed an increasingly hungry world, farmers need every incentive to use their soil and water effectively and efficiently.

    Questions 14-18
    Reading Passage 2 has six sections A-F. Choose the most suitable headings for sections A-D and F from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers i-ix in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings
    i The probable effects of the new international trade agreement
    ii The environmental impact of modern farming
    iii Farming and soil erosion
    iv The effects of government policy in rich countries
    v Governments and management of the environment
    vi The effects of government policy in poor countries
    vii Farming and food output
    viii The effects of government policy on food output
    ix The new prospects for world trade

    14 Paragraph A
    15 Paragraph B
    16 Paragraph C
    17 Paragraph D
    18 Paragraph F

    Questions 19-22
    Complete the table below using the information in sections B and C of Reading Passage 2. Choose your answers A-G from the box below the table and write them in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

    Agricultural practiceEnvironment damage that may result
    (19)……………………..deforestation
    (20)……………………degraded water supply
    More intensive farming(21)……………………
    Expansion of monoculture(22)…………………..
    A abandonment of fallow periodB disappearance of old plant varietiesC increased use of chemical inputs
    D increased irrigationE insurance against pets and diseasesF soil erosion
    G clearing land for cultivation

    Questions 23-27
    Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 23-27 on your answer sheet.

    23 Research completed in 1982 found that in the United States soil erosion
    A reduced the productivity of farmland by 20 per cent.
    B was almost as severe as in India and China.
    C was causing significant damage to 20 per cent of farmland.
    D could be reduced by converting cultivated land to meadow or forest.

    24 By the mid-1980s, farmers in Denmark
    A used 50 per cent less fertiliser than Dutch farmers.
    B used twice as much fertiliser as they had in 1960.
    C applied fertiliser much more frequently than in 1960.
    D more than doubled the amount of pesticide they used in just 3 years.

    25 Which one of the following increased in New Zealand after 1984?
    A farm incomes
    B use of fertilizer
    C over-stocking
    D farm diversification

    26 The writer refers to some rich countries as being ‘less enlightened’ than New Zealand because
    A they disapprove of paying farmers for not cultivating the land.
    B their new fuel crops are as harmful as the ones they have replaced.
    C their policies do not recognise the long-term benefit of ending subsidies.
    D they have not encouraged their farmers to follow environmentally friendly practices.

    27 The writer believes that the Uruguay Round agreements on trade will
    A encourage more sustainable farming practices in the long term.
    B do more harm than good to the international environment.
    C increase pressure to cultivate land in the rich countries.
    D be more beneficial to rich than to poor countries.

    Question 28
    From the list below choose the most suitable title for Reading Passage 2. Write the appropriate letter A-E in box 28 on your answer sheet.

    A Environmental management
    B Increasing the world’s food supply
    C Soil erosion
    D Fertilisers and pesticides – the way forward
    E Farm subsidies

    The Concept Of Role Theory

    Role set
    Any individual in any situation occupies a role in relation to other people. The particular individual with whom one is concerned in the analysis of any situation is usually given the name of focal person. He has the focal role and can be regarded as sitting in the middle of a group of people, with whom he interacts in some way in that situation. This group of people is called his role set. For instance, in the family situation, an individual’s role set might be shown as in Figure 6. The role set should include all those with whom the individual has more than trivial interactions.

    Role definition
    The definition of any individual’s role in any situation will be a combination of the role expectations that the members of the role set have of the focal role. These expectations are often occupationally denned, sometimes even legally so. The role definitions of lawyers and doctors are fairly clearly defined both in legal and in cultural terms. The role definitions of, say, a film star or bank manager, are also fairly clearly defined in cultural terms, too clearly perhaps.

    Individuals often find it hard to escape from the role that cultural traditions have defined for them. Not only with doctors or lawyers is the required role behaviour so constrained that if you are in that role for long it eventually becomes part of you, part of your personality. Hence, there is some likelihood that all accountants will be alike or that all blondes are similar – they are forced that way by the expectations of their role.

    It is often important that you make it clear what your particular role is at a given time. The means of doing this are called, rather obviously, role signs. The simplest of role signs is a uniform. The number of stripes on your arm or pips on your shoulder is a very precise role definition which allows you to do certain very prescribed things in certain situations. Imagine yourself questioning a stranger on a dark street at midnight without wearing the role signs of a policeman!

    In social circumstances, dress has often been used as a role sign to indicate the nature and degree of formality of any gathering and occasionally the social status of people present. The current trend towards blurring these role signs in dress is probably democratic, but it also makes some people very insecure. Without role signs, who is to know who has what role?

    Place is another role sign. Managers often behave very differently outside the office and in it, even to the same person. They use a change of location to indicate a change in role from, say, boss to friend. Indeed, if you wish to change your roles you must find some outward sign that you are doing so or you won’t be permitted to change – the subordinate will continue to hear you as his boss no matter how hard you try to be his friend. In very significant cases of role change, e.g. from a soldier in the ranks to officer, from bachelor to married man, the change of role has to have a very obvious sign, hence rituals. It is interesting to observe, for instance, some decline in the emphasis given to marriage rituals. This could be taken as an indication that there is no longer such a big change in role from single to married person, and therefore no need for a public change in sign.

    In organisations, office signs and furniture are often used as role signs. These and other perquisites of status are often frowned upon, but they may serve a purpose as a kind of uniform in a democratic society; roles without signs often lead to confused or differing expectations of the role of the focal person.

    Role ambiguity
    Role ambiguity results when there is some uncertainty in the minds, either of the focal person or of the members of his role set, as to precisely what his role is at any given time. One of the crucial expectations that shape the role definition is that of the individual, the focal person himself. If his occupation of the role is unclear, or if it differs from that of the others in the role set, there will be a degree of role ambiguity. Is this bad? Not necessarily, for the ability to shape one’s own role is one of the freedoms that many people desire, but the ambiguity may lead to role stress which will be discussed later on. The virtue of job descriptions is that they lessen this role ambiguity. Unfortunately, job descriptions are seldom complete role definitions, except at the lower end of the scale. At middle and higher management levels, they are often a list of formal jobs and duties that say little about the more subtle and informal expectations of the role. The result is therefore to give the individual an uncomfortable feeling that there are things left unsaid, i. e. to heighten the sense of role ambiguity.

    Looking at role ambiguity from the other side, from the point of view of the members of the role set, lack of clarity in the role of the focal person can cause insecurity, lack of confidence, irritation and even anger among members of his role set. One list of the roles of a manager identified the following: executive, planner, policy maker, expert, controller of rewards and punishments, counsellor, friend, teacher. If it is not clear, through role signs of one sort or another, which role is currently the operational one, the other party may not react in the appropriate way — we may, in fact, hear quite another message if the focal person speaks to us, for example, as a teacher and we hear her as an executive.

    Questions 29-35
    Do the following statements reflect the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 29-35 on your answer sheet write

    YES                           if the statement reflects the views of the writer
    NO                             if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
    NOT GIVEN          if it is impossible to know what the writer thinks about this

    29 It would be a good idea to specify the role definitions of soldiers more clearly.
    30 Accountants may be similar to one another because they have the same type of job.
    31 It is probably a good idea to keep dress as a role sign even nowadays.
    32 The decline in emphasis on marriage rituals should be reversed.
    33 Today furniture operates as a role sign in the same way as dress has always done.
    34 It is a good idea to remove role ambiguity.
    35 Job descriptions eliminate role ambiguity for managers.

    Questions 36-39
    Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 3 for each answer.
    Write your answers in boxes 36-39 on your answer sheet.

    36 A new headmaster of a school who enlarges his office and puts in expensive carpeting is using the office as a……………………….
    37 The graduation ceremony in many universities is an important……………….
    38 The wig which judges wear in UK courts is a………………….
    39 The parents of students in a school are part of the headmaster’s………………………

    Question 40
    Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write it in box 40 on your answer sheet.

    This text is taken from
    A a guide for new managers in a company.
    B a textbook analysis of behaviour in organisations.
    C a critical study of the importance of role signs in modern society.
    D a newspaper article about role changes.

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 26

    THE DEPARTMENT OF ETHNOGRAPHY

    The Department of Ethnography was created as a separate deportment within the British Museum in 1946, offer 140 years of gradual development from the original Department of Antiquities. If is concerned with the people of Africa, the Americas, Asia, the Pacific and parts of Europe. While this includes complex kingdoms, as in Africa, and ancient empires, such as those of the Americas, the primary focus of attention in the twentieth century has been on small-scale societies. Through its collections, the Department’s specific interest is to document how objects are created and used, and to understand their importance and significance to those who produce them. Such objects can include both the extraordinary and the mundane, the beautiful and the banal.

    The collections of the Department of Ethnography include approximately 300,000 artefacts, of which about half are the product of the present century. The Department has a vital role to play in providing information on non-Western cultures to visitors and scholars. To this end, the collecting emphasis has often been less on individual objects than on groups of material which allow the display of a broad range of a society’s cultural expressions.

    Much of the more recent collecting was carried out in the field, sometimes by Museum staff working on general anthropological projects in collaboration with a wide variety of national governments and other institutions. The material collected includes great technical series – for instance, of textiles from Bolivia, Guatemala, Indonesia and areas of West Africa – or of artefact types such as boats. The latter include working examples of coracles from India, reed boars from Lake Titicaca in the Andes, kayaks from the Arctic, and dug-out canoes from several countries. The field assemblages, such as those from the Sudan, Madagascar and Yemen, include a whole range of material culture representative of one people. This might cover the necessities of life of an African herdsman or on Arabian farmer, ritual objects, or even on occasion airport art. Again, a series of acquisitions might represent a decade’s fieldwork documenting social experience as expressed in the varieties of clothing and jewellery styles, tents and camel trappings from various Middle Eastern countries, or in the developing preferences in personal adornment and dress from Papua New Guinea. Particularly interesting are a series of collections which continue to document the evolution of ceremony and of material forms for which the Department already possesses early (if nor the earliest) collections formed after the first contact with Europeans.

    The importance of these acquisitions extends beyond the objects themselves. They come from the Museum with documentation of the social context, ideally including photographic records. Such acquisitions have multiple purposes. Most significantly they document for future change. Most people think of the cultures represented in the collection in terms of the absence of advanced technology. In fact, traditional practices draw on a continuing wealth of technological ingenuity. Limited resources and ecological constraints are often overcome by personal skills that would be regarded as exceptional in the West. Of growing interest is the way in which much of what we might see as disposable is, elsewhere, recycled and reused.

    With the Independence of much of Asia and Africa after 1945, it was assumed that economic progress would rapidly lead to the disappearance or assimilation of many small-scale societies. Therefore, it was felt that the Museum should acquire materials representing people whose art or material culture, ritual or political structures were on the point of irrevocable change. This attitude altered with the realisation that marginal communities can survive and adapt in spite of partial integration into a notoriously fickle world economy. Since the seventeenth century, with the advent of trading companies exporting manufactured textiles to North America and Asia, the importation of cheap goods has often contributed to the destruction of local skills and indigenous markets. On the one hand modern imported goods may be used in an everyday setting, while on the other hand other traditional objects may still be required for ritually significant events. Within this context trade and exchange attitudes are inverted. What are utilitarian objects to a Westerner may be prized objects in other cultures – when transformed by local ingenuity – principally for aesthetic value. In the some way, the West imports goods from other peoples and in certain circumstances categorizes them as ‘art’.

    Collections act as an ever-expanding database, nor merely for scholars and anthropologists, bur for people involved in a whole range of educational and artistic purposes. These include schools and universities as well as colleges of art and design. The provision of information about non-Western aesthetics and techniques, not just for designers and artists but for all visitors, is a growing responsibility for a Department whose own context is an increasingly multicultural European society.

    Questions 1-6
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet write

    TRUE                        if the statement is true according to the passage
    FALSE                      if the statement is false according to the passage
    NOT GIVEN           if the information is not given in the passage

    1 The twentieth-century collections come mainly from mainstream societies such as the US and Europe.
    2 The Department of Ethnography focuses mainly on modern societies.
    3 The Department concentrates on collecting single unrelated objects of great value.
    4 The textile collection of the Department of Ethnography is the largest in the world.
    5 Traditional societies are highly inventive in terms of technology.
    6 Many small-scale societies have survived and adapted in spite of predictions to the contrary.

    Questions 7-12
    Some of the exhibits at the Department of Ethnography are listed below (Questions 7-12). The writer gives these exhibits as examples of different collection types. Match each exhibit with the collection type with which it is associated in Reading Passage 1. Write the appropriate letters in boxes 7-12 on your answer sheet.
    NB You may use any collection type more than once.

    Example: Boats (Answer) AT
    7 Bolivian textiles
    8 Indian coracles
    9 airport art
    10 Arctic kayaks
    11 necessities of life of an Arabian farmer
    12 tents from the Middle East

    Collection Types
    AT Artefact Types
    EC Evolution of Ceremony
    FA Field Assemblages
    SE Social Experiences
    TS Technical Series

    Secrets of the Forest

    A In 1942 Allan R Holmberg, a doctoral student in anthropology from Yale University, USA, ventured deep into the jungle of Bolivian Amazonia and searched out an isolated band of Siriono Indians. The Siriono, Holmberg later wrote, led a “strikingly backward” existence. Their villages were little more than clusters of thatched huts. Life itself was a perpetual and punishing search for food: some families grew manioc and other starchy crops in small garden plots cleared from the forest, while other members of the tribe scoured the country for small game and promising fish holes. When local resources became depleted, the tribe moved on. As for technology, Holmberg noted, the Siriono “may be classified among the most handicapped people of the world”. Other than bows, arrows and crude digging sticks, the only tools the Siriono seemed to possess were “two machetes worn to the size of pocket- knives”.

    B Although the lives of the Siriono have changed in the intervening decades, the image of them as Stone Age relics has endured. Indeed, in many respects the Siriono epitomize the popular conception of life in Amazonia. To casual observers, as well as to influential natural scientists and regional planners, the luxuriant forests of Amazonia seem ageless, unconquerable, a habitat totally hostile to human civilization. The apparent simplicity of Indian ways of life has been judged an evolutionary adaptation to forest ecology, living proof that Amazonia could not – and cannot – sustain a more complex society. Archaeological traces of far more elaborate cultures have been dismissed as the ruins of invaders from outside the region, abandoned to decay in the uncompromising tropical environment.

    C The popular conception of Amazonia and its native residents would be enormously consequential if it were true. But the human history of Amazonia in the past 11,000 years betrays that view as myth. Evidence gathered in recent years from anthropology and archaeology indicates that the region has supported a series of indigenous cultures for eleven thousand years; an extensive network of complex societies – some with populations perhaps as large as 100,000 – thrived there for more than 1,000 years before the arrival of Europeans. (Indeed, some contemporary tribes, including the Siriono, still live among the earthworks of earlier cultures.) Far from being evolutionarily retarded, prehistoric Amazonian people developed technologies and cultures that were advanced for their time. If the lives of Indians today seem “primitive”, the appearance is not the result of some environmental adaptation or ecological barrier; rather it is a comparatively recent adaptation to centuries of economic and political pressure. Investigators who argue otherwise have unwittingly projected the present onto the past.

    D The evidence for a revised view of Amazonia will take many people by surprise. Ecologists have assumed that tropical ecosystems were shaped entirely by natural forces and they have focused their research on habitats they believe have escaped human influence. But as the University of Florida ecologist, Peter Feinsinger, has noted, an approach that leaves people out of the equation is no longer tenable. The archaeological evidence shows that the natural history of Amazonia is to a surprising extent tied to the activities of its prehistoric inhabitants.

    E The realization comes none too soon. In June 1992 political and environmental leaders from across the world met in Rio de Janeiro to discuss how developing countries can advance their economies without destroying their natural resources. The challenge is especially difficult in Amazonia. Because the tropical forest has been depicted as ecologically unfit for large-scale human occupation, some environmentalists have opposed development of any kind.

    Ironically, one major casualty of that extreme position has been the environment itself. While policy makers struggle to define and implement appropriate legislation, development of the most destructive kind has continued apace over vast areas.

    F The other major casualty of the “naturalism” of environmental scientists has been the indigenous Amazonians, whose habits of hunting, fishing, and slash-and-burn cultivation often have been represented as harmful to the habitat. In the clash between environmentalists and developers, the Indians, whose presence is in fact crucial to the survival of the forest, have suffered the most. The new understanding of the pre-history of Amazonia, however, points toward a middle ground. Archaeology makes clear that with judicious management selected parts of the region could support more people than anyone thought before. The long- buried past, it seems, offers hope for the future.

    Questions 13-15
    Reading Passage 2 has six sections A-F. Choose the most suitable headings for sections A, B and D from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers i-vii in boxes 13-15 on your answer sheet.

    List of headings

    i Amazonia as unable to sustain complex societies
    ii The role of recent technology in ecological research in Amazonia
    iii The hostility of the indigenous population to North American influences
    iv Recent evidence
    v Early research among the Indian Amazons
    vi The influence of prehistoric inhabitants on Amazonian natural history
    vii The great difficulty of changing local attitudes and practices

    Example: Section C iv
    13 Section A
    14 Section B
    15 Section D

    Questions 16-21
    Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 16—21 on your answer sheet write

    YES                        if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
    NO                         if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
    NOT GIVEN        if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

    16 The reason for the simplicity of the Indian way of life is that Amazonia has always been unable to support a more complex society.
    17 There is a crucial popular misconception about the human history of Amazonia.
    18 There are lessons to be learned from similar ecosystems in other parts of the world.
    19 Most ecologists were aware that the areas of Amazonia they were working in had been shaped by human settlement.
    20 The indigenous Amazonian Indians are necessary to the well-being of the forest.
    21 It would be possible for certain parts of Amazonia to support a higher population.

    Questions 22-25

    22 In 1942 the US anthropology student concluded that the Siriono
    A were unusually aggressive and cruel
    B had had their way of life destroyed by invaders
    C were an extremely primitive society
    D had only recently made permanent settlements

    23 The author believes recent discoveries of the remains of complex societies in Amazonia
    A are evidence of early indigenous communities
    B are the remains of settlements by invaders
    C are the ruins of communities established since the European invasions
    D show the region has only relatively recently been covered by forest

    24 The assumption that the tropical ecosystem of Amazonia has been created solely by natural forces
    A has often been questioned by ecologists in the past
    B has been shown to be incorrect by recent research
    C was made by Peter Feinsinger and other ecologists
    D has led to some fruitful discoveriesx

    25 The application of our new insights into the Amazonian past would
    A warn us against allowing any development at all
    B cause further suffering to the Indian communities
    C change present policies on development in the region
    D reduce the amount of hunting, fishing, and ‘slash-and-burn’

    HIGHS and LOWS

    Hormone levels – and hence our moods -may be affected by the weather. Gloomy weather can cause depression, but sunshine appears to raise the spirits. In Britain, for example, the dull weather of winter drastically cuts down the amount of sunlight that is experienced which strongly affects some people. They become so depressed and lacking in energy that their work and social life are affected. This condition has been given the name SAD (Seasonal Affective Disorder). Sufferers can fight back by making the most of any sunlight in winter and by spending a few hours each day under special, full-spectrum lamps. These provide more ultraviolet and blue-green light than ordinary fluorescent and tungsten lights. Some Russian scientists claim that children learn better after being exposed to ultraviolet light. In warm countries, hours of work are often arranged so that workers can take a break, or even a siesta, during the hottest part of the day. Scientists are working to discover the links between the weather and human beings’ moods and performance.

    It is generally believed that tempers grow shorter in hot, muggy weather. There is no doubt that crimes against the person rise in the summer, when the weather is hotter and fall in the winter when the weather is colder. Research in the United States has shown a relationship between temperature and street riots. The frequency of riots rises dramatically as the weather gets warmer, hitting a peak around 27-30°C. But is this effect really due to a mood change caused by the heat? Some scientists argue that trouble starts more often in hot weather merely because there are more people in the street when the weather is good.

    Psychologists have also studied how being cold affects performance. Researchers compared divers working in icy cold water at 5°C with others in water at 20°C (about swimming pool temperature). The colder water made the divers worse at simple arithmetic and other mental tasks. But significantly, their performance was impaired as soon as they were put into the cold water – before their bodies had time to cool down. This suggests that the low temperature did not slow down mental functioning directly, but the feeling of cold distracted the divers from their tasks.

    Psychologists have conducted studies showing that people become less sceptical and more optimistic when the weather is sunny. However, this apparently does not just depend on the temperature. An American psychologist studied customers in a temperature-controlled restaurant. They gave bigger tips when the sun was shining and smaller tips when it wasn’t, even though the temperature in the restaurant was the same. A link between weather and mood is made believable by the evidence for a connection between behaviour and the length of the daylight hours. This in turn might involve the level of a hormone called melatonin, produced in the pineal gland in the brain.

    The amount of melatonin falls with greater exposure to daylight. Research shows that melatonin plays an important part in the seasonal behaviour of certain animals. For example, food consumption of stags increases during the winter, reaching a peak in February/ March. It falls again to a low point in May, then rises to a peak in September, before dropping to another minimum in November. These changes seem to be triggered by varying melatonin levels.

    In the laboratory, hamsters put on more weight when the nights are getting shorter and their melatonin levels are falling. On the other hand, if they are given injections of melatonin, they will stop eating altogether. It seems that time cues provided by the changing lengths of day and night trigger changes in animals’ behaviour – changes that are needed to cope with the cycle of the seasons. People’s moods too, have been shown to react to the length of the daylight hours. Sceptics might say that longer exposure to sunshine puts people in a better mood because they associate it with the happy feelings of holidays and freedom from responsibility. However, the belief that rain and murky weather make people more unhappy is borne out by a study in Belgium, which showed that a telephone counselling service gets more telephone calls from people with suicidal feelings when it rains.

    When there is a thunderstorm brewing, some people complain of the air being ‘heavy’ and of feeling irritable, moody and on edge. They may be reacting to the fact that the air can become slightly positively charged when large thunderclouds are generating the intense electrical fields that cause lightning flashes. The positive charge increases the levels of serotonin (a chemical involved in sending signals in the nervous system). High levels of serotonin in certain areas of the nervous system make people more active and reactive and, possibly, more aggressive. When certain winds are blowing, such as the Mistral in southern France and the Fohn in southern Germany, mood can be affected – and the number of traffic accidents rises. It may be significant that the concentration of positively charged particles is greater than normal in these winds. In the United Kingdom, 400,000 ionizers are sold every year. These small machines raise the number of negative ions in the air in a room. Many people claim they feel better in negatively charged air.

    Questions 26-28
    Choose the appropriate letters A—D and write them in boxes 26—28 on your answer sheet.

    26 Why did the divers perform less well in colder conditions?
    A They were less able to concentrate
    B Their body temperature fell too quickly
    C Their mental functions were immediately affected by the cold
    D They were used to swimming pool conditions

    27 The number of daylight hours
    A affects the performance of workers in restaurants
    B influences animal feeding habits
    C makes animals like hamsters more active
    D prepares humans for having greater leisure time

    28 Human irritability may be influenced by
    A how nervous and aggressive people are
    B reaction to certain weather phenomena
    C the number of ions being generated by machines
    D the attitude of people to thunderstorms

    Questions 29-34
    Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 29-34 on your answer sheet write

    TRUE                        if the statement is true according to the passage
    FALSE                      if the statement is false according to the passage
    NOT GIVEN           if the information is not given in the passage

    29 Seasonal Affective Disorder is disrupting children’s education in Russia.
    30 Serotonin is an essential cause of human aggression.
    31 Scientific evidence links ‘happy associations with weather’ to human mood.
    32 A link between depression and the time of year has been established.
    33 Melatonin levels increase at certain times of the year.
    34 Positively charged ions can influence eating habits.

    Questions 35-37
    According to the text which THREE of the following conditions have been scientifically proved to have a psychological effect on humans? Choose THREE letters A—G and write them in boxes 35—37 on your answer sheet.

    A lack of negative ions
    B rainy weather
    C food consumption
    D high serotonin levels
    E sunny weather
    F freedom from worry
    G lack of counselling facilities

    Questions 38-40
    Complete each of the following statements with the best ending from the box below. Write the appropriate

    letters A-G in boxes 38—40 on your answer sheet.

    38 It has been established that social tension increases significantly in the United States during
    39 Research has shown that a hamster’s bodyweight increases according to its exposure to
    40 Animals cope with changing weather and food availability because they are influenced by

    A daylight                   B hot weather                  C melatonin                 D moderate temperatures

    E poor coordination    F time cues                      G impaired performance