Month: April 2024

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 20

    Part 1: Question 1
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. Mr. Jones moved to Los Angeles
     A two weeks ago
     B three weeks ago
     C two days ago

    Question 2
    Answer the question with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    2. When does Mr. Jones have to go to his office? 

    Question 3
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    3. Mr. Jones for a(n)
     A insurance company
     B medical company
     C real estate company

    Questions 4 and 5
    Complete the following sentences with ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Mr. Jones’ appointment with the doctor is at (4)  am on
    (5)
     

    Question 6-8
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    List any THREE medical tests that the insurance company requires Mr. Jones to have
    (6) 
    (7) 
    (8) 

    Questions 9 and 10
    Answer the following questions. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    9 What is Mr. Jones’ home telephone number including the area code? 
    10 What is secretary’s first name? 

    Part 2: Questions 11-13
    Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    11. Mr. Smith manages group tours to Australia, New Zealand and the 
    12. Morning Sun Travel did some  and developed their new tour.
    13. From the Five Seasons Hotel Sydney, one can clearly see a harbor, a bridge and 

    Question 14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    14. Mr. Smith says that to get used to the time difference it is best to
     A have a rest
     B visit a harbor
     C go outside

    Question 15
    Complete the following sentence WITH ONE WORD only.

    15. A wombat looks like a  with two short legs.

    Question 16
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    16. After the visit to the Sydney Olympic Site the tour group will return to downtown Sydney by
     A bus
     B boat
     C seaplane

    Question 17
    Answer the question with ONE WORD OR A NUMBER only.

    17. How high will the seaplane fly over Bondi Beach? 

    Questions 18 and 19
    Complete the sentence below with ONE WORD only.

    Mr. Smith says that in addition to Italian and Chinese food, in Australian cities one can find
    (18)  and (19)  cuisine.

    Question 20
    Answer the question with ONE WORD only.

    20. After Sydney, what is the destination on the tour itinerary? 

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Choose THREE letters from A-E.

    Why is Ann late preparing her talk?
     A her mother is ill
     B the doctor says Ann should do all the cooking and cleaning for her mother
     C Ann and her mother cannot pay for extra help
     D the neighbours are all too busy to help her mother
     E she spends too much time playing computer games

    Questions 24 and 25
    Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    When studying (24)  in high school, Bill read about an experiment on how wearing a uniform can change people’s (25) 

    Questions 26 and 27
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    26. Bill thinks that the professor is from
     A University of America
     B University of California
     C University of Los Angeles

    27. The police took the students to a
     A school
     B prison
     C police station

    Questions 28 and 29
    Choose TWO letters from A-E.

    Why does Bill say the arrested students did not know the other students?
     A they had not been introduced
     B they went to different schools
     C to prevent them realizing they were there for the experiment they had signed up for
     D the other students were in uniform
     E the professor did not want them to know each other

    Question 30
    Complete the following sentence with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    30. Bill says the ‘prisons’ started having 

    Part 4: Questions 31 and 32
    Choose TWO letter from A-E.

    The lecturer will talk about
     A the media
     B the internet
     C types of message
     D Yahoo
     E advertising

    Questions 34 and 33
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    The speaker says effective advertising depends on the right (33)  and the
    (34) 

    Question 35
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    35. Advertisers always want to change people’s
     A buying habits
     B life
     C working habits

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    People usually buy (36)  because they recognize the name of the manufacture. The speaker says that Shell has purchased a (37)  and marketed a beer they called (38)  San Fran Video Store handed out cards with a (39)  and a (40)  Of the store locations of them.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 19

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Health club customer research
    Name: Selina Thompson

    Occupation: (1) 
    Age group: (2) 
    Type of membership: (3) 
    Length of membership: (4)  years
    Why joined: recommended by a (5) 
    Visits to club per month: Eight (on average)
    Facility used most: (6) 
    Facility not used (if any): tennis courts (because reluctant to (7)  )
    Suggestions for improvements: have more (8) 
    Install (9)  in the gym
    Open (10)  later at weekends

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Complete the flow chart below. Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to questions 11-16.

    A air
    B ash
    C earth
    D grass
    E sticks
    F stones
    G water

    Making a steam pit
    • Dig a pit
    • Arrange a row of (11)  over the pit
    • Place (12)  on top
    • Light the wood and let it burn out
    • Remove (13) 
    • Insert a stick
    • Cover the pit with (14) 
    • Place wrapped food on top and cover it with (15) 
    • Remove the stick and put (16)  into the hole

    Questions 17-18
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO characteristics apply to the bamboo oven?

     A It’s suitable for windy weather.
     B The fire is lit below the bottom end of the bamboo.
     C The bamboo is cut into equal lengths.
     D The oven hangs from a stick.
     E It cooks food by steaming it.

    Questions 19-20
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about eating wild fungi?

     A Cooking doesn’t make poisonous fungi edible.
     B Edible wild fungi can be eaten without cooking.
     C Wild fungi are highly nutritious.
     D Some edible fungi look very similar to poisonous varieties.
     E Fungi which cannot be identified should only be eaten in small quantities.

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Research project on attitudes towards study

    21. Phoebe’s main reason for choosing her topic was that
     A her classmates had been very interested in it.
     B it would help prepare her for her first teaching post.
     C she had been inspired by a particular book.

    22. Phoebe’s main research question related to
     A the effect of teacher discipline.
     B the variety of learning activities.
     C levels of pupil confidence.

    23. Phoebe was most surprised by her finding that
     A gender did not influence behaviour significantly.
     B girls were more negative about school than boys.
     C boys were more talkative than girls in class.

    24. Regarding teaching, Phoebe says she has learned that
     A teachers should be flexible in their lesson planning.
     B brighter children learn from supporting weaker ones.
     C children vary from each other in unpredictable ways.

    25. Tony is particularly impressed by Phoebe’s ability to
     A recognise the limitations of such small-scale research.
     B reflect on her own research experience in an interesting way.
     C design her research in such a way as to minimise difficulties.

    Questions 26-30
    What did Phoebe find difficult about the different research techniques she used?

    Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G, next to questions 26-30.

    Difficulties
    A Obtaining permission
    B Deciding on a suitable focus
    C Concentrating while gathering data
    D Working collaboratively
    E Processing data she had gathered
    F Finding a suitable time to conduct the research
    G Getting hold of suitable equipment

    Research techniques
    26. Observing lessons 
    27. Interviewing teachers 
    28. Interviewing pupils 
    29. Using questionnaires 
    30. Taking photographs 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Saving the juniper plant

    Background

    31. Juniper was one of the first plants to colonise Britain after the last 
    32. Its smoke is virtually  so juniper wood was used as fuel in illegal activities.
    33. Oils from the plant were used to prevent  spreading.
    34. Nowadays, its berries are widely used to  food and drink

    Ecology

    35. Juniper plants also support several species of insects and 

    Problems

    36. In current juniper populations, ratios of the  are poor.
    37. Many of the bushes in each group are of the same age so  of whole populations is rapid.

    Solutions

    38. Plantlife is trialling novel techniques across  areas of England.
    39. One measure is to introduce  for seedlings.
    40. A further step is to plant  from healthy bushes.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 18

    Part 1: Questions 1-8
    Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    People interested in sharing the flat

    NameJobDescriptionSpecial Requirements
    Phil Parrott(1)……………teacher– (2)……………….
    -Too health-conscious?
    (3)…………….because of equipment
    David (4)……………Lawyer– Older
    – Quiet
    – (5)…………….
    To pay less for gas and electricity
    Leo Norris(6)………………….– Funny
    – Lazy
    – Not (7)…………or…………
    – Outdoor type
    Somewhere to keep his (8)………………..

    (1)                  (2) 
    (3)                 (4) 
    (5)                 (6) 
    (7)                 (8) 

    Questions 9 and 10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Leo’s phone number (mobile) (9)  
    Leo would like to move in on (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. Refreshments will be served
     A at the front counter
     B in the lobby
     C at the back of the hall

    12. Nick Noble advertised
     A on the radio
     B on a billboard
     C in the newspaper

    13. The original number of founding members was about
     A 12
     B 20
     C 200

    14. The club provides activities primarily for reasonable fit
     A males up to 75
     B females with young children
     C males and females of any age

    Questions 15-20
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    ActivityDay(s)DurationContact Person
    (15)……………….Tuesday and SaturdayAbout 3-5 hoursCoordinator
    (16)………………….Thursday and SundayUp to 3 hours(17)………………..
    WanderersSunday(18)……………Leader
    (19)…………….weekendsSaturday and SundayAll weekend(20)………………..

    (15)                   (16)  
    (17)                   (18)  
    (19)                   (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. What is the main topic of assignment?
     A the historical development of television
     B the development of new media
     C the cultural future of television

    22. According to Emilie which new technology will become the biggest competition for television?
     A iPods
     B mobile phones
     C video games

    23. According to the tutor the average length of a television become
     A 45 minutes
     B 4 to 5 minutes
     C 10 minutes

    24. What part of the library is going to be closed for one week?
     A the sociology section
     B the media studies section
     C the journals section

    25. Which body do they decide to complain to?
     A Premises committee
     B Students’ Union
     C the library

    26. What will the reprographics office do?
     A send emails to your tutor
     B send your dissertation to you
     C send your dissertation to your tutor

    Questions 27-30
    Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    27. What does the tutor compare homemade videos with? 
    28. What is the title of Mrs Jone’s lecture? 
    29. Where is the lecture? 
    30. When is the final date for the assignment? 

    Part 4: Questions 31-37
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    31. Samuel Wells  before Scholastic House opened in 1903.
    32. There were  original students.
    33. Scholastic House became  in 1963.
    34. One of these students became a prominent 
    35. Scholastic House experienced difficulties during 
    36. The college has a tradition of learning and 
    37. Since 1972, controversial  have been discussed.

    Questions 38-40
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    38. The college discusses controversial issues because it
     A informs the debate
     B reduces tension
     C encourages argument

    39. The principal believes that
     A science is less advanced than medicine
     B philosophy is more useful than science
     C science is ahead of philosophy

    40. The principal urges the students to
     A accept what they are told
     B ask questions at all times
     C think only about their studies

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 17

    Part 1: Questions 1-4
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. A TFN is a number used
     A exclusively for tax administration
     B exclusively by individual tax payers
     C for managing several government services

    2. Without a TFN, the applicant would be
     A taxed at a higher rate
     B unable to work
     C liable for medicare contributions

    3. What kind of visa does the applicant have?
     A a visa granting indefinite stay
     B a visa with work rights
     C a student visa

    4. A TFN is issued
     A if you change your name
     B only once in a lifetime
     C when you claim a government benefit

    Questions 5-10
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Passport:(5)……………..
    NationalitySpanish
    Postal Address1339 (6)……………………Hollywell 1517
    Contact DetailsPhone: 09-55775076
    Preferred Contact PersonMartha (7)…………………..(landlady)
    Family NameFarina
    First Given Name(8)……………………….Maria
    Any Other NamesMary = (9)………………….
    Date of Brith(10)…………./……………../…………………(dd/mm/yy)
    GenderFemale
    Name of SpouseNA

    (5)                    (6)   
    (7)                   (8)    
    (9)                  (10)  

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Keeping kids safe on Internet

    • Internet for children-scary but educational
    • ‘Online Family Norris’ blocks (11)  and social sites
    • But still important to watch children and (12)  them
    • Keep computer in family room where you can see it
    • Children should never use their own name nor give out (13) 
    • Online friends stay online
    • No personal email address for youngsters
    • Teach teenagers that (14)  on the Internet always stay there – and may ruin job prospects
    • Watch out for (15) 
    • Teenagers use internet: to socialize or do (16) 
    • Young kids: find help with school subjects

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    WebsiteContentActivityAge Group
    www.mathtutor.comMathematicsPractice and (17)………………….All levels
    www.spellcity.comSpelling(18)………………………Primary school
    www.bee.co/typingTyping(19)……………………….All levels
    www.coolresource.com(20)………………….Extra practiceMiddle school

    (17)                  (18) 
    (19)                 (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Ted and Cleo’s research results will be presented as a
     A poster
     B survey
     C graph

    22. They will select foreign students
     A from the language school
     B from the business school
     C randomly on campus

    23. The foreign students will have to
     A collate the answers
     B rank the answers
     C know a lot about the answers.

    Questions 24-28
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Reasons for studying abroad
    Study abroad
    • Is the best way to learn a language
    • Provides a (24) 
    • Allows you to experience another culture first hand
    • Helps you (25) 
    • Give you opportunity to make new friends
    • Helps you (26) 
    • Enables you to (27) 
    • Increase the value of your degree
    • Improves (28) 

    • Expands your world view

    Questions 29 and 30
    Label the diagram below. Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 29-30.

    (29) 
    (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-36
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Charles William Peale

    SlidePaintingDateNotes
    1Pitt as a Roman Senator(31)……………….Elaborate , symbolical portrait of British parliamentarian
    2George Washington1772(32)……………….of many Washington portraits
    3The Peale Family1773Family portrait – shows exuberance & (33)…………………
    4The (34)………….1795‘trompe l’oeil’ style – double portraits of sons – Raphaelle & Titian
    5Rachel Weeping1772Wife and dead (35)……………..
    6James(36)……………….Brother James – in darkness but face illuminated

    (31) 
    (32) 
    (33) 
    (34) 
    (35) 
    (36) 

    Questions 37-40
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    Primarily, Peale was a painter but he was also a politician, scientist and (37)  with many successful patents. He worked with Thomas Jefferson on the polygraph which was a desk that could be used for copying a (38)  He wrote academic papers on different subjects and tried to make movies, spectacles and a velocipede (a kind of (39)  ) Peale was also a naturalist and taxidermist and he helped unearth the skeleton of mastodon which was the best (40)  in his museum.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 16

    Section 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Name of libraryLocationOpening timesOther information
    Bailey LibraryParkville campus8.30 am to (1)………….pm weekdaysPopular with students
    Brown LibraryNear Stratton Street and (2)……………..7 am to 2 am dailyOpen to (3)…………students only
    RMIT LibraryLevel 5, building 8, (4)………………Swan Street10 am – 12 midnight Monday to Friday
    10 am – (5)………………..pm Saturdays and Sundays
    Good internet facilites

    (1)                   (2) 
    (3)                  (4) 
    (5) 

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.
    Process of booking a computer
    • Step 1: log in to (6)  using your student number and
    (7)
     
    • Step 2: choose the resource type you would like to use
    • Step 3: select (8)  of computer
    • Step 4: select date of booking using (9)  options
    • Step 5: complete your booking. Your name should appear on the booking
    (10)
     

    Section 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose TWO answers for each question.

    11. Doors Open
     A is an annual event
     B lasts for one week
     C is a free event
     D happens in spring
     E is more than 100 years old

    12. The Observatory
     A is situated in Edinburgh
     B was built 20 years ago
     C regularly participates in the Doors Open event
     D is 120 years old
     E is open to visitors every day of the year

    13. Planetarium Shows
     A take place twice a day
     B are more popular on Saturday
     C run on Saturday and Sunday
     D run four times a day
     E finish at half past ten

    14. All tickets
     A must be booked in advance
     B are already sold out
     C are on sale at the information point
     D must be booked online
     E are available for from midday

    Questions 15-20
    Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    15. The tour of the telescope dome includes access to the  of the building
    16. Tour participants are advised to have suitable 
    17. Visitors to the Crawford Collection can see items from the astronomical  on display
    18. The children’s craft workshops take place in the 
    19. During the craft workshops children can construct a model of a 
    20. Children also have the opportunity to colour a 

    Section 3: Questions 21-23
    Choose THREE letters A-G.

    Which THREE examples of space junk are mentioned by the speaker?

    (21) 
    (22) 
    (23) 

    A cans
    B cooling tanks
    C metal plates
    D metal screws
    E paint
    F satellites
    G whole rackets

    Questions 24-26
    Which country is responsible for depositing the following percentages of space junk?

    (24)  28% 
    (25)  29% 
    (26)  37% 

    A China
    B Europe
    C India
    D Russia
    E United States

    Questions 27-30
    Complete the table below. Choose the answers from the options and write the appropriate letter A-I next to questions 27-30.
    Space Junk – Satellites

    Name of SatelliteCountry of originNotes
    UARSUnited States– Size and weight of (27)……………..
    – Was in space for two decades
    SkylabUnited States– Ended up in (28)……………..
    – Weight of (29)………………
    MirRussia– Larger than UARS
    – Ended up in (30)………………….

    (27) 
    (28) 
    (29) 
    (30) 

    A a grown up gorilla
    B a double decker bus
    C the desert
    D Eastern Australia
    E the 1980s
    F 2001
    G 100 tonnes
    H the South Pacific

    Section 4: Questions 31-35
    Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Supermarket Layout

    Name of areaLocation of areaPurpose of area
    Decompression zone (sometimes called the (31)………………zone)Situated immediately inside the entrance and is generally free of (32)……………………..To encourage the customer to (33)………………to the supermarket
    (34)………………………zoneSituated on the right side near the front doorTo encourage customers to relax before they start shopping
    Power aisleThe central route through the supermarketTo display (35)……………..

    (31)                     (32) 
    (33)                    (34) 
    (35) 

    Questions 36-40
    Which items do the following sentences apply to?

    Write correct letter A, B, C, D or E next to questions 36-40.

    A fruit and vegetables
    B bread and milk
    C cheap tinned foods
    D flowers
    E sunglasses

    36. They are referred to as distress goods 
    37. They are always located at the front of the supermarket 
    38. They are referred to as destination goods 
    39. They are normally located below eye level 
    40. They are often located at the check-out 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 15

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Sunshine tours

    Type of holiday:      Cruise

    Customers’ names: Keith Waters       Age: 32

    (1)  Waters                  Age: (2) 

    Interests and hobbies:    travelling, swimming, jogging, (3)  history, reading

    Budget: $7000 – $(4) 

    Dates: 1st July – 16th July

    Cruise duration: at least (5) 

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Maria Cristina
    • Spanish boat
    • Starts in Barcelona
    • Cost – $10,500 (not including (6) )
    • All foods and drinks included
    • Inside cabin (upgrade to sea view for $800)
    • On board cinema (different films every night)
    • (7) on destinations
    • Classes (ie. Painting, cooking, art appreciation and others)
    • (8) included

    Sea Queen
    • Spanish boat
    • Starts in Marseille
    • Length – 2.5 week cruise
    • Cost – $(9)  (including flights)
    • Sea view cabin
    • Food included but not drinks
    • Cinema
    • (10)  + gym

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    11. The Read for All charity especially targets  parents.
    12. The Read for All charity mainly tries to contact parents at 
    13. Parents who want help with finding books can go to the Read for All charity’s centre or visit their 
    14. The Read for All charity’s app costs  to download to a smartphone.
    15.  families can also benefit the Read for All charity in terms of improving English for the whole family.

    Questions 16-18
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    16. The Read for All charity gets most of its operating funds from
     A the government
     B one individual
     C the general public

    17. Jake suggests radio listeners can make a donation to the Read for All charity
     A online
     B by dropping into one of the charity’s centres
     C by post

    18. The Read for All charity can sometimes pay
     A a modest hourly rate for people who work for them
     B for some overnight accommodation if volunteers live far from a centre
     C for workers’ expenses if they provide a receipt

    Questions 19 and 20
    Below is a basic map used to show where the Read for All charity’s offices are. The map has 12 locations marked A-L. Match the locations in questions 19-20 with the correct locations on the map.

    19. Cinema 
    20. Main town post office 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    SubjectProblemsRecommendations
    AMYWorld (21)………………..and the car industry(22)………………..of her sourcesCheck the (23)………………on the department website
    WILLIAMHow (24)…………………..affects employment in northern territoryWritten too muchFocus on the (25)……………..of his essay – going through the essay

    (21)                  (22) 
    (23)                  (24) 
    (25) 

    Questions 26-30
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    26. Why was Anna delayed starting her essay this month?
     A she was sick
     B she had other work to prepare
     C her parents were visiting

    27. Where does Mr. Stevenson recommend that Anna study?
     A library
     B Mr. Stevenson’s dedicated study periods
     C quietly at home

    28. What does Mr. Stevenson ask Anna to provide him with for an extension?
     A a copy of the department rules
     B a paper from her doctor
     C an application form for the extension

    29. What was Anna’s first possible topic to write about?
     A foreign investment helped by reduces tax deals offered by the Australian government
     B Australian taxes invested in overseas investment
     C how foreign governments’ tax deals help Australian business investment overseas

    30. What was Anna’s second possible topic to write about?
     A the travel business in Australia and New Zealand
     B taxation issues between Australia and New Zealand
     C a history of trade between Australia and New Zealand

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Match the person with their actions (A-G).

    31. The Sumerians 
    32. The Roman Emperor Valentinian 
    33. Camilo Baldi 
    34. Jean Michon 
    35. Wilheim Preyer 

    A stressed the importance of the link between handwriting and brain functions
    B was the first paid for his autograph
    C wrote the first signature in handwriting that we still have
    D used seals to identify ownership
    E started a social graphology
    F first wrote about the science that was to be called graphology
    G interpreted handwriting for police

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    The development of e-signature

    E-signatures have made the hand-writing signature (36)  Technologies such as fax and internet created a need for contracts and agreements to be signed without the presence of the signer. E-signatures did not satisfy previous basic law requirements for handwritten signatures as they did not create a (37)  The UN created a (38)  in 1996 that set out rules that allowed electronic business to go ahead as e-contracts and paper contracts would meet with (39)  in law. Although online businesses can use click-to-agree there is still demand for an electronic hand written signature as it can help (40)  in law and create human touch. This kind of hand written signature is available on software used to create electronic signatures.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 14

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    NEW PASSWORD

    Call taken by: Natasha

    Customer’s full name: Michael (1) 
    Date of birth: 27 March 1988
    Previous address: 319 (2)  East providence
    Phone number: 049248002
    Data allowance: (3) 
    Current plan: (4) 
    Mother’s maiden name: (5) 
    First pet: (6) 
    New password sent on: (7) 
    Extra services required: new (8) 
    Cancel (9) 
    (10)  pack

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Where can each of the following items be found?

    Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter A-I next to questions 11-16.

    Locations
    A on washing machine
    B in hallway cupboard
    C in hot water cupboard
    D next to back door
    E in bathroom
    F on top of television
    G in bedroom
    H under kitchen sink
    I above front door

    11. Alarm 
    12. Garage key 
    13. Laundry detergent 
    14. Beach towels 
    15. Bath towels 
    16. Light bulbs 

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Difficult parking in town at the weekend because of so many (17) 
    Museum is closed on (18) 
    Recommended places to eat:
    • (19)  for Chinese food
    • Pizzeria for Italian food
    Phone number for takeaway pizza (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Why did Joanne accept the offer from Gregory Associates?
     A it covered her travel expenses
     B it was from a well-known company
     C it was the only offer she received

    22. Joanne was disappointed because
     A she found the work routine repetitive
     B the staff were not very helpful
     C the work was not related to her studies

    23. What did Joanne like best about her internship?
     A observing how the workplace operates
     B being responsible for completing projects
     C working closely with the project managers

    24. What was the hardest part of the internship?
     A combining it with her studies
     B living on so little money
     C working such long hours

    25. During the internship Joanne
     A changed her mind about her career
     B received a job offer from the company
     C decided not to continue her studies

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    How to apply for an internship
    (26) 
    (27) 
    (28) 
    (29) 
    (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    DEVELOPMENT STUDIES
    Development studies attempts to understand:
    • How societies change and progress over time
    • What (31) help to make these changes

    Two approaches
    • Theoretical (understand how change occurs)
    • Applied (examine (32)  and how they can be applied) Areas of focus: Asia Pacific region; urbanizing (including employment and (33)  ); migration, trade

    You will develop skills to:
    • Understand key development issue in detail
    • Gather data (both (34)  and textual data)
    • Carefully (35)  findings
    • (36)  on a research project

    Brief history of development studies:
    • 1950s – the discipline emerges
    • (37)  issues are the major consideration
    • 1970s – development studies became more (38)  of the establishment. Questions were raised about power, environmental sustainability and (39)  issues.
    • 1980s – today – national governments were no longer as important. Growing interests in small scale practices such as remittances and (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 13

    Part 1: Questions 1-6
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Budget accommodation in Queenstown, New Zealand

    AccommodationPrice (dormitory)Comments
    Travellers’ LodgeFully booked
    Bingley’s(1) $…………………– In town centre
    – Cafe with regular (2)………………nights
    – Sundeck
    Chalet Lodge$18.00– Located in a (3)………………..alpine setting
    – 10 mins from town centre
    – (4)……………………….are welcome
    Globetrotters$18.50– In town centre
    – (5)………………………included
    – Chance to win a (6)…………………


    (1)                     (2) 
    (3)                    (4) 
    (5)                    (6) 

    Questions 7-10
    Who wants to do each of the activities below?

    A only Jacinta
    B only Lewis
    C both Jacinta and Lewis

    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 7-10

    7. bungee jump 
    8. white-water rafting 
    9. jet-boat ride 
    10. trekking on wilderness trail 

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. Jack says that in London these days many people
     A see cycling as a foolish activity
     B have on experience of cycling
     C take too many risks when cycling

    12. If people want to cycle to school or work, CitiCyclist helps them by
     A giving cycling lessons on the route they take.
     B advising them on the safest route to choose.
     C teaching them basic skills on quiet roads first.

    13 Jack works with some advanced cyclists who want to develop
     A international competitive riding skills.
     B knowledge of advanced equipment.
     C confidence in complex road systems.

    14 CitiCyclist supports the view that cyclists should
     A have separate sections of the road from motor traffic.
     B always wear protective clothing when cycling.
     C know how to ride confidently on busy roads.

    Questions 15-17
    List THREE types of organizations for which CitiCyclist provides services.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    (15) 
    (16) 
    (17) 

    Questions 18-20
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Website address: citicyclist.co.uk
    Phone: (18) 
    Cost (single person): (19)  per person
    Usual length of course: (20)  except complete beginners)

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    21. What do Sharon and Xiao Li agree was the strongest aspect of their presentation? 
    22. Which part of their presentation was Xiao Li least happy with? 
    23. Which section does Sharon feel they should have discussed in more depth? 

    Questions 24-27
    Choose the correct letters A-C.

    24. Sharon and Xiao Li were surprised when the class said
     A they spoke too quickly.
     B they included too much information.
     C their talk was not well organised.

    25. The class gave Sharon and Xiao Li conflicting feedback on their
     A timing.
     B use of visuals.
     C use of eye contact.

    26. The class thought that the presentation was different from the others because
     A the analysis was more detailed.
     B the data collection was more wide-ranging.
     C the background reading was more extensive

    27. Which bar chart represents the marks given by the tutor?

     A
     B
     C

    Questions 28-30
    Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The tutor says that the (28)  of the presentation seemed rather sudden.

    The tutor praises the students’ discussion of the (29)  of their results.

    The tutor suggests that they could extend the (30)  review in their report.

    Part 4: Questions 31-33
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    The World Health Organisation says a healthy city must
    • have a (31)  and environment.
    • meet the (32)  of all its inhabitants.
    • provide easily accessible health services.
    • encourage ordinary people to take part in (33) 

    Questions 34-40
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Place/ projectAimMethodAchievement
    Sri Lanka

    Community contracts system
    To upgrade squatter settlementsThe (34)……………….. constructed infrastructures e.g. drains, paths– Better housing and infrastructure
    – Provided better (35)………….opportunities
    Mali

    Cooperative
    To improve sanitation on city– (36)………………graduates organizing garbage collection
    – Public education campaign via (37)……………..and discussion group
    – Greater environmental awareness
    – Improved living conditions
    Egypt (Mokattam) (38)………………To support disadvantages womenWomen provided with the (39)…………………..and equipment for sewing and weaving-Rise in the (40)……………..and quality of life of young women

    (34)                  (35) 
    (36)                  (37) 
    (38)                 (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 12

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Harry’s Hire Company
    Hire for: birthday party

    Equipment hire:
    Day and date of event: (1)  November
    Number attending event: (2) 

    Rental: 5 dozens dinner plates, bowls
    5 dozens sets of (3)  and 
    40 plastic (4) 
    4 dozen each small/ medium glasses
    Six (5) 

    Costings:
    Weekend package: 5pm Friday – 10am Monday: $1600 + tax
    (6)  package: 5pm Saturday – 10am Monday: $1350 + tax
    (7)  $50 (within 10Km)

    Breakage allowance: $60

    Replacement costs: plates, bowls – $3.55 per item
    Small glasses – (8)  per item
    Medium glasses – $4.40 per item
    Customer details:
    Full name: (9) 
    Address: 28B, sandstone close, martinsborough
    Contact number: (10) 084 

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Match the creatures to their behavior. Write the correct letter A, B, C or D next to questions 11-15.

    A swifts
    B bats
    C cockroaches
    D centipedes

    11. feed on the guardrail beside the path 
    12. are dangerous to people 
    13. collect in large groups 
    14. fly only at night 
    15. live on the roof of the cave 

    Questions 16 and 17
    Answer the questions below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    16. What is the guano from the caves used for? 
    17. What are the birds’ nests from the cave used for? 

    Questions 18-20
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    In the cave you should:
    18. carry a 
    19. wear a  and a hat.
    20. keep to the  at all times.

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Mary has been called in for a meeting because
     A she has been working too hard
     B she has offered to lead an activity
     C she is going on a training programme

    22. The most important part of planning a field trip is:
     A to organize activities for everyone
     B to know about the official rules for field trips
     C to think about and plan for problems

    23. Leaders must develop
     A a tailored trip plan
     B an adventure activities plan
     C a hazard management plan

    Questions 24 and 25
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    24. Mary’s plan must consider  such as local rain or wind, the land and the party members.
    25. Mary’s plan does not need to consider things such as tropical storms or serious illnesses, which are known as 

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Field trip plan

    Weather:
    • Everyone needs warm clothing and a (26) 

    Activities:
    • Hiking – first aid kit, map and a (27) 
    • Avoid routes where an avalanche, mudslide or (28)  is possible

    Group members
    • Think about the fitness and (29)  of the group
    • Do not allow (30)  to be responsible for transport

    Part 4: Questions 31-34
    Label the diagrams below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (31)                (32) 
    (33)               (34) 

    Questions 35-40
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Cochlear implants – Advantages, disadvantages and factors

    Hearing aids (35)  normal sounds, so they are good for mild hearing loss but not for severe loss. Cochlear implants help some people a lot, but do not work so well for everyone. The brain gets different (36)  from an implant, so users must relearn how to hear. Cochlear implants are not a cure. Users need ongoing training in (37) , lip-reading and sign language. The surgery can damage nerves. It may also destroy any (38) ; in such cases, those users cannot go back to using a hearing aid. The most important factor for selecting users is the (39)  of their deafness and also age and previous speaking ability. Finally, the condition of the nerve cells in the cochlea is a factor because (40)  can damage these cells.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 11

    Questions 1-10

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    ClearPoint Telephone Company Customer Order Form
    Order taken by:Ms. Jones
    Name:Harold (1)……………………..
    Address:(2)…………………….Fulton Avenue apartment 12
    Type of service:(3)……………………………..
    Employer:Wrightsville Medical Group
    Occupation:(4)……………………………..
    Work Phone:(5)…………………………………..
    Time at current job:(6)……………………………..
    Special services:(7)……………………….. and (8)………………………….
    Installation scheduled for:Day (9)……………………..
    Time of day (10)………………………

    (1)                        (2)   
    (3)                       (4)   
    (5)                       (6)   
    (7)                       (8)   
    (9)                      (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Answer the questions below. Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

    11. The fair will take place at the
     A Fairgrounds
     B Park
     C School

    12. The fair will begin on Friday
     A Morning
     B Afternoon
     C Evening

    13. The fair will begin with a
     A Parade
     B Dance performance
     C Speech by the major

    Questions 15-20

    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    Day/ TimeEvent
    Saturday afternoon(15)…………………….show
    Saturday evening(16)………………………….by the lake
    Sunday afternoon(17)…………………….contest
    All weekend(18)…………………food
    (19)…………….for children
    (20)……………….for sale

    (15)                 (16) 
    (17)                 (18) 
    (19)                (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Complete the information below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    How you get academic credit for work experience

    First, read the (21)  Find courses that match your work experience. Then write
    (22)  of your work experience. Submit that together with a letter from your
    (23)  to the university admissions office.

    Questions 24-28
    Where can the items listed below be found?
    A admissions office
    B counseling center
    C library

    Write the correct letter, A, B, or C, next to questions 24-28.

    24. university catalog 
    25. application for admission form 
    26. requirements list 
    27. recommendation forms 
    28. job listings 

    Questions 29 and 30
    Choose the correct letters, A, B, or C.

    29. What are full-time students eligible for?
     A Discounted books
     B The work-study program
     C A free bus pass

    30. How can a student get financial assistance?
     A Speak with a counselor
     B Apply to the admissions office
     C Make arrangements with a bank

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Complete the chart with information about the black bear. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    RangeLives in (31)……………………..of North America
    DietNinety percent of diet consists of (32)……………….., also eats (33)……………………….
    CubsBaby bear cubs are born in (34)…………………………
    Life SpanBlack bears live for about (35)………………….in the wild

    (31)                  (32) 
    (33)                 (34) 
    (35) 

    Questions 36-40
    Which characteristics fit black bears and which fit grizzly bears?

    Write A if it is a characteristic оf black bears.
    Write В if it is a characteristic of grizzly bears.

    36. Has a patch of light fur on its chest 
    37. Weighs 225 kilos 
    38. Has a shoulder hump 
    39. Has pointed ears 
    40. Has shorter claws