Author: theieltsbridge

Reading Passage 1: Attitudes to language

Questions 1-8: (TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN)

In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 1: There are understandable reasons why arguments occur about language.

Keywords for the question: understandable reasons, arguments occur, language,

Let’s have a look at the first paragraph. In lines 2-4 the writer says, “Language belongs to everyone, so most people feel they have a right to hold an opinion about it. And when opinions differ, emotions can run high. Arguments can start . . .. . . .”.

The lines suggest that there are logics in favour of arguments about language.

So, the answer is: YES

Question 2: People feel more strongly about language education than about small difference in language usage.

Keywords for the question: more strongly, language education, small difference, language usage,

The last lines of paragraph no. 1 give us the answer. Here, the writer says, “Arguments can start as easily over minor points of usage as over major policies of linguistic education.”

The lines suggest that people feel as strongly about minor points (small differences) as they feel about linguistic education (language education). The feelings are equal for both.

So, the answer is: NO

Question 3:  Our assessment of a person’s intelligence is affected by the way he or she uses language.

Keywords for the question: assessment, person’s intelligence, affected, uses language,    

In lines 2-4 of paragraph no. 2, the writer says, “.. .. . . linguistic factors influence how we judge personality, intelligence, social status, educational standards, job aptitude, and many other areas of identity and social survival.”

Here, our assessment of a person’s intelligence = how we judge intelligence, affect = influence,

So, the answer is: YES          

Question 4:  Prescriptive grammar books cost a lot of money to buy in the 18th   century.

Keywords for the question: prescriptive grammar books, cost a lot, 18th century,

We find the mention of the 18th century in paragraphs no. 4 and 5. However, we do not find the mention of grammar books being costly in 18th century.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN       

Question 5: Prescriptivism still exists today.

Keywords for the question: prescriptivism, exists, today,   

The answer can be found by studying two paragraphs. First, in paragraph no. 4, the writer talks about what is prescriptivism. “All the main languages have been studied prescriptively, especially in the 18 century approach to the writing of grammars and dictionaries…. . .. . Some usages are “prescribed”, to be learnt and followed accurately;. …. .  .”

Then at the beginning of paragraph no. 5, the author says, ““These attitudes are still with us…”. So, the writer says that prescriptivism still exists.

So, the answer is: YES          

Question 6:  According to descriptivists, it is pointless to try to stop language change.

Keywords for the question: pointless, stop language change,     

Take a look at lines 4-6 of paragraph no. 5, “… .. . it is the task of the grammarian to describe, not prescribe – to record the facts of linguistic diversity, and not to attempt the impossible tasks of evaluating language variation or halting language change.”

Here, attempt the impossible task means it is pointless to try, halting means stop.

So, the answer is: YES          

Question 7: Descriptivism only appeared after the 18th century.

Keywords for the question: Descriptivism, after, 18th century,

In paragraph 5, the writer states, “This approach is summarised in the statement that it is the task of the grammarian to describe, not prescribe – to record the facts of linguistic diversity, and not to attempt the impossible tasks of evaluating language variation or halting language change. In the second half of the 18th century, we already find advocates of this view, such as Joseph Priestley, whose Rudiments of English Grammar (1761) insists that “the custom of speaking is the original and only just standard of any language”.”

So, these lines suggest that descriptivism appeared first in the 18th century.

So, the answer is: NO            

Question 8:  Both descriptivists and prescriptivists have been misrepresented.

Keywords for the question: descriptivists, prescriptivists, misrepresented,  

Take a look at the last paragraph where the author says, “In our own time, the opposition between descriptivists and prescriptivists has often become extreme, with both sides painting unreal pictures of the other.”

Here, misrepresented = painting unreal pictures of the other,

So, the statement is true.

So, the answer is: YES          

Questions 9-12: (Summary completion with list of words given in the box)

(In this kind of questions candidates are given a summary for one, two or three paragraphs with some fill in the blanks questions. As these are fill in the blanks or gaps, there is a condition of writing letters which represent the words listed in a box. Candidates need to find out the related paragraphs by correctly studying the keywords form the questions. Then, they should follow the steps of finding answers for fill in the gaps.)

The title of the summary: The language debate

According to 9. …………………….. there is only one correct form of language. Linguists who take this approach to language place great importance on grammatical 10. ……………………. .Conversely, the view of 11. ……………….…., such as Joseph Priestly, is that grammar should be based on 12. …………………….…. .

List of words: A. descriptivists, B. language experts, C. popular speech, D. formal language, E. evaluation, F. rules, G. modern linguists, H. prescriptivists, I. change,

Question 9: According to __________, there is only one correct form of language.

Keywords for the question: only one, correct form, language,  

In the beginning of paragraph no. 3, the author mentions the view of prescriptivists, “. .. . . prescriptivism is the view that one variety of language has an inherently higher value than others, and that this ought to be imposed on the whole of the speech community.”

The lines suggest that people who believe in prescriptivism form the view that only one language is valued over all other languages and it has to be believed by everybody.

So, the answer is: H (prescriptivists)

Question 10: Linguists who take this approach to language place great importance on grammatical ___________.

Keywords for the question: place, great importance, grammatical,

Take a look closely at paragraph no. 4. Here, the writer says, “… . .. All the main languages have been studied prescriptively, especially in the 18th century approach to the writings of grammars and dictionaries….. . .  . .. .The authoritarian nature of the approach is best characterised by its reliance on ‘rules’ of grammar.”

Here, this approach means the approach of the prescriptivists, place great importance means reliance on,

So, the answer is: F (rules)

Question 11 & 12: Conversely, the view of 11. ____________, such as Joseph Priestley, is that grammar should be based on 12. _____________.

Keywords for the question: view, Joseph Priestly, grammar should be, based on,   

We can see the mention of the view of Joseph Priestly in paragraph no. 5. So, let’s take a look at this paragraph.

In paragraph no. 5, the writer says, “Nevertheless, there is an alternative point of view that is concerned less with standards than the facts of linguistic usage. This approach is summarised in the statement that it is the task of the grammarian to describe, not prescribe – to record the facts of linguistic diversity, and not to attempt the impossible tasks of evaluating language variation or halting language change. In the second half of the 18th century, we already find advocates of this view, such as Joseph Priestley, whose Rudiments of English Grammar (1761) insists that ‘the custom of speaking is the original and only just standard of any language’.”

Here, nevertheless = conversely, to describe, not prescribe, = the view of descriptivists, original and just standard = should be based on,

The custom of speaking means the way people should speak or most popular way of speaking / popular speech,

So, the answers are:

1. A (descriptivists)
2. C (popular speech)

Question 13: Multiple choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers for previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

What is the writer’s purpose in Reading passage 1?

a. to argue in favour of a particular approach to writing dictionaries and grammar books.

b. to present a historical account of differing views of language.

c. to describe the differences between spoken and written language.

d. to show how a certain view of language has been discredited

Keywords for the question: writer’s purpose,  

The passage details about different views and approaches towards language and how they occurred and changed over the course of time. Firstly, we find the view of prescriptivists and then the other view of descriptivism.

Take a look at the last paragraph also. The last paragraph can be considered as the summary of what has been told in the previous paragraphs. Here, the writer says that we can see in present time the conflicting views between prescriptivists and descriptivists which have been a conflict between radical liberalism and elitist conservatism.

So, we can understand that the writer’s purpose in this passage is to present a historical account of differing views of language.

So, the answer is: B (to present a historical account of differing views of language.)

Reading Passage 2 : Tidal Power

Questions 14-17 (Identifying information):

[This question asks you to find information from the passage and write the number of the paragraph (A, B, C or D … .. ) in the answer sheet. Now, if the question is given in the very first part of the question set, I’d request you not to answer them. It’s mainly because this question will not follow any sequence, and so it will surely kill your time. Rather, you should answer all the other questions first. And just like List of Headings, only read the first two lines or last two lines of the expected paragraph initially. If you find the answers, you need not read the middle part. If you don’t find answers yet, you can skim the middle part of the paragraph. Keywords will be a useful matter here.]

Question 14: the location of the first test site

Keywords for the question: location, first test site,   

The location of the first site is given in paragraph C where writer states, “The first station is expected to be installed off Lynmouth in Devon shortly to test the technology in a venture jointly funded by the department of Trade and Industry and the European Union.”

So, the answer is: C

Question 15: the way of bringing the power produced on one site back into Britain

Keywords for the question: bringing, power produced, site, back into Britain,

In paragraph E, the author mentions, “Dr Bahaj has done most work on the Alderney site, where there are powerful currents. The single undersea turbine farm would produce far more power than needed for the Channel Islands and most would be fed into the French Grid and be re-imported into Britain via the cable under the Channel.”

Here, re-imported into Britain = back into Britain,

So, the answer is: E

Question 16: a reference to a previous attempt by Britain to find an alternative source of energy

Keywords for the question: previous attempt, by Britain, find an alternative source,   

In paragraph A, the writer says, “Unlike wind power, which Britain originally developed and then abandoned for 20 years allowing the Dutch to make it a major industry, undersea turbines could become a big export earner to island nations such as Japan and New Zealand”.

The lines indicate to the fact that the British made a previous attempt to use wind power as a sustainable and alternative source of energy, though they were not successful and they abandoned this attempt for 20 years.

So, the answer is: A

Question 17: mention of the possibility of applying technology from another industry

Keywords for the question: possibility, applying technology, another industry,  

In paragraph C, we can see the mention of possible use of a technology, “The technology for dealing with the hostile saline environment under the sea has been developed in the North Sea oil industry and much is already known about .. .  ….”

So, another industry which has used the technology is the North Sea oil industry.

So, the answer is: C

Questions 18-22: (Choosing options (claims) from given statements)

[In these questions candidates have to choose some options from the given statements. These questions will not follow any sequential orders so candidates need to apply their skills of skimming by reading the statements and finding the correct keywords. ]

Which FIVE of the following claims about tidal power are made by the writer?

In paragraph A, the writer talks about tidal power and says, “….  . . . . unlike wind, the tides are predictable and the power input is constant (A). This technology raises the prospect of Britain becoming self-sufficient in renewable energy and drastically reducing its carbon dioxide emissions (D). If tides, wind and wave power are all developed, Britain would be able to close gas, coal and nuclear power plants (E) and export renewable power to other parts of Europe (F).”

Again, in the end of paragraph C, the writer indicates that “The best sites are between islands or around heavily indented coasts where there are strong tidal currents. (J) ”

Here, reliable = predictable, cut down = reduce, plants = stations, a means of increasing national income = export earner,

So, the tides are predictable and the power input is constant = It is a more reliable source of energy than wind power (option A), drastically reducing its carbon dioxide emissions = It would cut down air pollution (option D), Britain would be able to close gas, coal and nuclear power plants = It would contribute to the closure of many existing power stations in Britain (option E), export renewable power to other parts of Europe = It could be a means of increasing national income (option F), The best sites are between islands or around heavily indented coasts where there are strong tidal currents = It is best produced in the vicinity of coastlines with particular features (option J).

So the answers are: (in any order)A, D, E, F, J,   

Questions 23-26 (Labeling a diagram)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to label a diagram with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to label a diagram with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

An Undersea Turbine

Question 23: Whole tower can be raised for __________ and the extraction of seaweed from the blades

Keywords for this question: can be raised, extraction of seaweed,  

Here, our main keyword is ‘extraction of seaweed’. We can find the mention of seaweed at the end of Section D. The writer says, “The towers will stick out of the water and be lit, to warn shipping, and also be designed to be lifted out of the water for maintenance and to clean seaweed from the blades.”

Here, lifted out = raised, clean seaweed = the extraction of seaweed,

So, the answer is: maintenance

Question 24: Sea life not in danger due to fact that blades are comparatively ____________ .

Keywords for this question: sea life, not in danger, blades are comparatively,

Here, our main keywords are sea life and not in danger which can be found in Section D, in the middle of the paragraph. “. . .. Fish and other creatures are thought unlikely to be at risk from the relatively slow-turning blades.”

Here, Fish and other creatures = sea life, unlikely to be at risk = not in danger, relatively = comparatively,

So, the answer is: slow / slow-turning

Questions 25 & 26: Air bubbles result from the _________ behind blades. This is known as __________.

Keywords for this question: air bubbles, result from, behind blades, known as,

Here, in these questions, the main keywords are air bubbles and result from which can be found in Section F. Let’s have a look there, “One technical difficulty is cavitation, where low pressure behind a turning blade causes air bubbles.”

Here, causes = result from,

So, the answers are:

• low pressure
• cavitation

Reading Passage 3 : Information theory – the big idea

Questions 27-32   (Identifying information):

[This question asks you to find information from the passage and write the number of the paragraph (A, B, C or D … .. ) in the answer sheet. Now, if the question is given in the very first part of the question set, I’d request you not to answer them. It’s mainly because this question will not follow any sequence, and so it will surely kill your time. Rather, you should answer all the other questions first. And just like List of Headings, only read the first two lines or last two lines of the expected paragraph initially. If you find the answers, you need not read the middle part. If you don’t find answers yet, you can skim the middle part of the paragraph. Keywords will be a useful matter here.]

Question 27: an explanation of the factors affecting the transmission of information.

Keywords for this question: factors affecting, transmission of information,

Paragraph D has the answer for this question. In lines 1-5 the writer says, “Noise usually means unwanted sounds which interfere with genuine information. Information theory generalises this idea via theorems that capture the effects of noise with mathematical precision. In particular, Shannon showed that noise sets a limit on the rate at which information can pass along communication channels while remaining error-free… .. .”

Here, transmission = pass along communication channels

So, the lines suggest that factors such as noise can affect transmission of information.

So, the answer is: D

Question 28: an example of how unnecessary information can be omitted

Keywords for this question: unnecessary information, omitted,

This question’s answer is found in paragraph F where the author talks about the solution of excluding unwanted information. In lines 1-4 the author states, “Shannon also laid the foundations of more efficient ways of storing information, by stripping out superfluous (redundant) bits from data which contributed little real information. As mobile phone text messages like ‘I CN C U’ show, it is often possible to leave out a lot of data without losing much meaning.”

Here, stripping out superfluous (redundant) bits from data & to leave out a lot of data means unnecessary data or information can be omitted.

So, the answer is: F

Question 29: a reference to Shannon’s attitude to fame

Keywords for this question: Shannon’s attitude, fame,  

The answer lies in paragraph B where we find this line in the middle, “While at Bell Laboratories, Shannon developed information theory, but shunned the resulting acclaim.”

Here, shunned means turned away from. It means Shannon developed information theory but he avoided the fame he got from his invention. He disliked it.

So, the answer is: B

Question 30: details of a machine capable of interpreting incomplete information

Keywords for this question: machine, capable, interpreting, incomplete information,

Take a close look at paragraph E. Here, the writer says in lines 5-7, “Other codes have become part of everyday life – such as the Universal Product Code, or bar code, which uses a simple error-detecting system that ensures supermarket check-out lasers can read the price even on, say, a crumpled bag of crisps.”

Here, machine indicates to check-out lasers that can interpret (read) incomplete information (crumpled bag of crisps).

So, the answer is: E

Question 31: a detailed account of an incident involving information theory

Keywords for this question: detailed account, incident, information theory,     

The answer can be found in paragraph A where we come to know about the problem faced by Voyager I which received instructions through a radio signal from the earth to use its spare parts to operate correctly. The whole paragraph is a detailed description of how NASA was able to send radio signals light years away to the Voyager I prove.

So, the answer is: A

Question 32: a reference to what Shannon initially intended to achieve in his research

Keywords for this question: Shannon, initially, intended to achieve, his research,

In paragraph C, the writer indicates, “He (Shannon) set out with an apparently simple aim: to pin down the precise meaning of the concept of ‘information’.”

Here, set out with an apparently simple aim = initially intended to achieve

So, the answer is: C

Questions 33-37: (Note completion)

Title of the note: The Voyager I Space Probe

Question 33-34: The probe transmitted pictures of both 33. _________ and _________, then left the 34. _________.

Keywords for this question: transmitted pictures, both, left,    

As the word before question 33 is ‘both’, we can understand that the answers for question no. 33 will be same kind of things. If we look closely at paragraph A, we can find the description of Voyager I Space Probe’s mention. In lines 2-4, the writer says, “The space probe, Voyager I, launched in 1977, had sent back spectacular images of Jupiter and Saturn and then soared out of the Solar System on a one-way mission to the stars.”

Here, sent back = transmitted, images = pictures, soared out = left,

So, the answers are:

• Jupiter, Saturn
• Solar System

Question 35: Scientists feared that both the ________ and ________ were about to stop working.

Keywords for this question: Scientists, feared, both, about to stop working,    

In paragraph A take a look at lines 5-7, “Sensors and circuits were on the brink of failing and NASA experts realised that they had to do something or lose contact with their probe forever.”

Here, on the brink of failing = about to stop working,

So, the answers are: sensors, circuits,

Special Note: remember, you cannot write sensors and circuits as your answers. It is because the word ‘and’ is already present in the question. In the IELTS listening and Reading Test, it is PROHIBITED to write any word/words which is/are already written in the question.

Question 36: The only hope was to tell the probe to replace them with __________ -but distance made communication with the probe difficult.

Keywords for this question: only hope, replace, distance, made communication, probe, difficult,    

In paragraph A the writer talks about the solution of Voyager I problem. In lines 7-8 the author writes, “The solution was to get a message to Voyager I to instruct it to use spares to change the failing parts.”

Here, solution = the only hope, change = replace,

So, the answer is: spares

Question 37: A ________ was used to transmit the message at the speed of light.

Keywords for this question: transmit, message, speed of light

Take a look at the end of paragraph A. Here, the author says in lines 9-12, “By means of a radio dish belonging to NASA’s Deep Space Network, the message was sent out into the depths of space. Even traveling at the speed of light, it took over 11 hours to reach its target, far beyond the speed of Pluto.”

Here, the message was sent out = transmit the message,

So, a radio dish was used to send out message to Voyager I.

So, the answer is: radio dish   

Questions 38-40: (TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN)

In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts  the information in the passage – FALSE

If there is no information on this – NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 38: The concept of describing something as true or false was the starting point for Shannon in his attempt to send messages over distance.

Keywords for this question: describing, starting point, true or false, the starting point, Shannon,

In paragraph C, the writer states in lines 3-6, “He set out with an apparently simple aim: to pin down the precise meaning of the concept of ‘information’. The most basic form of information, Shannon argued, is whether something is true or false – which can be captured in the binary unit, or ‘bit’, of the form 1 or 0.”

Here, set out = the starting point,

The lines clearly agree with the statement.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 39: The amount of information that can be sent in a given time period is determined with reference to the signal strength and noise level.

Keywords for this question: the amount of information, sent, the signal strength and noise level,      

The answer is in paragraph D as Shannon showed that the rate told us how much information passed in a given period of time. “Shannon showed that noise sets a limit on the rate at which information can pass along communication channels while remaining error-free. This rate depends on the relative strengths of the signal and noise traveling down the communication channel, on its capacity (its ‘bandwidth’).”

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 40: Products have now been developed which can convey more information than Shannon had anticipated as possible.

Keywords for this question: convey more information, Shannon anticipated

Take a close look at the end of paragraph E, the writer says, “As recently as 1993, engineers made a major breakthrough by discovering so-called turbo codes – which come very close to Shannon’s ultimate limit for the maximum rate that data can be transmitted reliably, and now play a key role in the mobile videophone revolution.”

This means the products of the present time came close to what Shannon had anticipated, but could not convey more information. They could not exceed Shannon’s expectations.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Reading Passage 1: Passage without title (about Hearing Problems)  

Questions 1-6: (Identifying information):

[This question asks you to find information from the passage and write the number of the paragraph (A, B, C or D … .. ) in the answer sheet. Now, if the question is given in the very first part of the question set, I’d request you not to answer them. It’s mainly because this question will not follow any sequence, and so it will surely kill your time. Rather, you should answer all the other questions first. And just like List of Headings, only read the first two lines or last two lines of the expected paragraph initially. If you find the answers, you need not read the middle part. If you don’t find answers yet, you can skim the middle part of the paragraph. Keywords will be a useful matter here.]

Question 1: an account of a national policy initiative

Keywords for the question: national policy initiative

IN the beginning of Section H, the writer mentions, “The New Zealand Government has developed a New Zealand Disability Strategy and has embarked on a wide-ranging consultation process.”

Here, New Zealand Disability Strategy is the name of the policy and it is a national policy as it is developed by the New Zealand government.

So, the answer is: H

Question 2: a description of a global team effort

Keywords for the question: global team effort

In the last lines of Section C, the author mentions, “The International Institute of Noise Control Engineering (I-INCE), on the advice of the World Health Organization, has established an international working party, which includes New Zealand, to evaluate noise and reverberation control for school rooms.”

Here, an international working party = global team effort

So, the answer is: C

Question 3:  a hypothesis as to one reason behind the growth in classroom noise 

Keywords for the question: reason, growth, classroom noise,   

Section B starts with this line, “A preliminary study in New Zealand has shown that classroom noise presents a major concern for teachers and pupils… . .. . ” Then in lines 7-9 the writer says, “.. . . . This all amounts to heightened activity and noise levels, which have the potential to be particularly serious for children experiencing auditory function deficit.”

Here, phrases such as A preliminary study and which have the potential to be indicates that the reason behind growth in classroom noise is a hypothesis because it is not confirmed.

So, the answer is: B   

Question 4:  a demand for suitable worldwide regulations

Keywords for the question: suitable, worldwide regulations,    

The last line of Section I give us the answer. “It is imperative that the needs of these children are taken into account in the setting of appropriate international standards to be promulgated in future.”

Here, It is imperative means that a demand has been made. Also, international standards = worldwide regulations,

So, the answer is: I     

Question 5: a list of medical conditions which place some children more at risk from noise than others

Keywords for the question: medical conditions, children, more at risk, from noise, than others,  

In Section D we can find the medical conditions which place some children at more risk from noise. Those conditions are, “… . . hearing impairment, autistic spectrum disorders (ASD) and attention deficit disorders (ADD/ADHD).

So, the answer is: D   

Question 6:  the estimated proportion of children in New Zealand with auditory problems

Keywords for the question: estimated proportion, children in New Zealand, auditory problems,     

The last lines of Section A points us to the answer. Here, the author says, “ . .. . . The New Zealand Ministry of Health has found from research carried out over two decades that 6-10% of children in that country are affected by hearing loss.”

So, the answer is: A   

Questions 7-10: Short answer to open questions (NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS)

[In this kind of questions candidates have to answer some questions, only with some conditions like NO MORE THAN THREE/TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER or, ONE WORD ONLY. Each question has keywords which will lead to the answer. This question type generally follows a sequence.]

Question 7: For what period of time has hearing loss in schoolchildren been studied in New Zealand?

Keywords for the question: hearing loss, schoolchildren, studied in New Zealand,  

In Section A, in the last lines the writer says, “. .. . . The New Zealand Ministry of Health has found from research carried out over two decades that 6-10% of children in that country are affected by hearing loss.”

The lines suggest that the study on hearing loss in schoolchildren has been done for two decades.

So, the answer is: two decades          

Question 8: In addition to machinery noise, what other type of noise can upset children with autism? 

Keywords for the question: addition to machinery noise, upset, children with autism,

The answer lies in Section E. Here, in lines 9-10, the writer states, “. . . Those experiencing these disorders often find sounds such as crowd noise and the noise generated by machinery painful and distressing.”

Here, other than noise created by machines, the type of noise that can upset children is crowd noise.

So, the answer is: crowd (noise)

Question 9: What term is used to describe the hearing problems of schoolchildren which have not been diagnosed?

Keywords for the question: hearing problems, schoolchildren, not been diagnosed,

In the last lines of paragraph G, the author says, “It is probable that many undiagnosed children exist in the education system with ‘invisible’ disabilities.”

Here, have not been diagnosed = undiagnosed

So, the answer is: invisible (disabilities/disability)

Question 10: What part of the New Zealand Disability Strategy aims to give schoolchildren equal opportunity?

Keywords for the question: What part, New Zealand Disability Strategy, aims, schoolchildren, equal opportunity,

In paragraph H, the writer says, “Objective 3 of the New Zealand Disability Strategy is to ‘Provide the Best Education for Disabled People’ by improving education so that all children, youth learners and adult  learners will have equal opportunities to learn and develop within their already existing school.”

So, the answer is: Objective 3  

Questions 11 & 12: (Choosing the TWO best answers)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked TWO best possible answers for one question. Candidates need to write the correct LETTERS for the answers.  Here, the techniques for Multiple Choice Questions are applicable.]

Question 11 & 12: The list below includes factors contributing to classroom noise.

Which TWO are mentioned by the writer of the passage?

A. Current teaching methods

B. Echoing corridors

C. Cooling systems

D. Large class sizes

E. Loud-voiced teachers

F. Playground games

Keywords for the question: factors, contributing, classroom noise,      

In paragraph B, the writer states in lines 2-5, “Modern teaching practices, the organisation of desks in the   classroom, poor classroom acoustics, and mechanical means of ventilation such as air- conditioning units all contribute to the number of children unable to comprehend the teacher’s voice.”

Here, Modern teaching practices = current teaching methods,

mechanical means of ventilation such as air-conditioning units = cooling systems,

So, the answers are: (in either order)

A  

C

Question 13: Multiple choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers for previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

What is the writer’s overall purpose in writing this article?

A. To compare different methods of dealing with auditory problems

B. To provide solutions for overly noisy learning environments

C. To increase awareness of the situation of children with auditory problems

D. To promote New Zealand as a model for other countries to follow

Keywords for the question: overall purpose,  

If you take a close look at the beginning of the passage, you will find the writer alerting us by stating that “Hearing impairment or other auditory function deficit in young children can have a major impact on their development of speech and communication, resulting in a detrimental effect on their ability to learn at school. This is likely to have major consequences for the individual and the population as a whole.”

Then, in the following sections, the author gives a detailed description of the situation of hearing deficit in schoolchildren in New Zealand by discussing the causes, effects and ways out to this problem.

So, overall, the writer’s purpose or aim is obviously to ‘increase awareness of the situation of children with auditory problems”.

So, the answer is: C

Reading Passage 2: Venus in transit

Questions 14-17 (Identifying information):

[This question asks you to find information from the passage and write the number of the paragraph (A, B, C or D … .. ) in the answer sheet. Now, if the question is given in the very first part of the question set, I’d request you not to answer them. It’s mainly because this question will not follow any sequence, and so it will surely kill your time. Rather, you should answer all the other questions first. And just like List of Headings, only read the first two lines or last two lines of the expected paragraph initially. If you find the answers, you need not read the middle part. If you don’t find answers yet, you can skim the middle part of the paragraph. Keywords will be a useful matter here.]

Question 14: examples of different ways in which the parallax principle has been applied

Keywords for the question: different ways, parallax principle, applied, 

The first lines of paragraph F indicates that the parallax principle has been applied in several ways using different measurements. “But astronomers labored hard to analyse the results of these expeditions to observe Venus transits. Johann Franz Encke, Director of the Berlin Observatory, finally determined a value for the AU based on all these parallax measurements.”

Here, determined a value . . .. . all these parallax measurements =  different ways …. Parallax principle ….applied,

So, the answer is: F

Question 15: a description of an event which prevented a transit observation

Keywords for the question: event, prevented, transit observation, 

Take a look at the very last line of paragraph D, “Ironically, after travelling nearly 50,000 kilometres, his view was clouded out at the last moment, a very dispiriting experience.”

Here, his view was clouded out at the last moment = the event which prevented the observation,

So, the answer is: D

Question 16: a statement about potential future discoveries leading on from transit observations

Keywords for the question: potential future discoveries, transit observations, 

TIPS: It is generally observed in IELTS exam that any statement indicating “future” is mostly found in the last paragraphs. So, when you are asked to look for ‘future’, go straight to the last paragraph.

In paragraph G, the last lines give us the answer, “. . . But such transits have paved the way for what might prove to be one of the most vital breakthroughs in the cosmos – detecting Earth-sized planets orbiting other stars.”

Here, paved the way for  = leading on from, might prove to be = future, breakthroughs = discoveries,

So, the answer is: G

Question 17: a description of physical states connected with Venus which early astronomical instruments failed to overcome

Keywords for the question: physical states, connected, Venus, early astronomical instruments, failed,  

The last lines of paragraph E indicate the answer for us. “.. .. . . this showed astronomers that Venus was surrounded by a thick layer of gases refracting sunlight around it, both effects made it impossible to obtain accurate timings.”

Here, made it impossible to obtain = failed to overcome

So, the answer is: E

Questions 18-21: (Matching statements with correct person or people):

(The rules for finding answers to this sort of question are simple. Just find the keywords and read around different names of people or person carefully. Then, give a quick look to check whether there is another statement or idea provided by the same person in the text. If there is, check the reference carefully and decide your answer. Remember, the questions may not follow any sequential order. )

Question 18: He calculated the distance of the Sun from the Earth based on observations of Venus with a fair degree of accuracy.

Keywords for this question: distance, observations of Venus, accuracy,

In paragraph F, the writer says in lines 2-5, “. …  . . Johann Franz Encke, Director of the Berlin Observatory, finally determined a value for the AU based on all these parallax measurements: 153,340,000  km. Reasonably accurate for the time, that is quite close to today’s value of 149,597,870 km. . .. ..”

Here, a fair degree of accuracy = Reasonably accurate,

AU (Astronomical Unit) = distance of the Earth from the Sun (in paragraph B)

So, the answer is: D (Johann Franz Encke)

Question 19: He understood that the distance of the Sun from the Earth could be worked out by comparing observations of a transit.

Keywords for this question: distance, worked out by comparing observations,

In paragraph B we find how Edmund Halley realised the observation of a transit could help find out the distance between the Earth and the Sun, “He realised that from different latitudes, the passage of the planet across the Sun’s disc would appear to differ. By timing the transit from two widely-separated locations, teams of astronomers could calculate the parallax angle – the apparent difference in position of an astronomical body due to a difference in the observer’s position. Calculating this angle would allow astronomers to measure what was then the ultimate goal: the distance of the Earth from the Sun.”

So, the answer is: A (Edmund Halley)

Question 20: He realised that the time taken by a planet to go around the Sun depends on its distance from the Sun.

Keywords for this question: time, around the Sun, distance from the Sun,

Paragraph C talks about Johannes Kepler’s realisation about timing of the orbit done by a planet around the Sun. Here, the writer says, “Johannes Kepler, in the early 17th century, had shown that the distances of the planets from the Sun governed their orbital speeds, which were easily measurable.”

Here, go around means orbit (orbital)

So, the answer is: B (Johannes Kepler)

Question 21: He witnessed a Venus transit but was unable to make any calculations.

Keywords for this question: Venus transit, unable, make calculations,

In lines 4-6 of paragraph D, the writer sympathizes Guillaume Le Gentil which indicates that he was unable to do something, “. . .. . The person who deserves most sympathy is the French astronomer Guillaume Le Gentil.” Then follow the last lines, “ .. . Ironically, after travelling nearly 50,000 kilometres, his view was clouded out at the last moment, a very dispiriting experience.”

So, the answer is: C (Guillaume Le Gentil)

Questions 22-26 (TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN)

In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUEThe statement in the question contradicts with the information in the passage – FALSEIf there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 22: Halley observed one transit of the planet Venus.

Keywords for this question: Halley, observed, transit, Venus,

In the last few lines of paragraph C, the writer says, “. . .and Halley worked out that by using Venus it would be possible to measure the Sun’s distance to 1 part in 500. But there was a problem: transits of Venus, unlike those of Mercury, are rare, occurring in pairs roughly eight years apart every hundred or so years. Nevertheless, he accurately predicted that Venus would cross the face of the Sun in both 1761 and 1769 – though he didn’t survive to see either.”

These lines suggest that Halley predicted the transits of Venus but he was not able to observe any transit because he died before that.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 23: Le Gentil managed to observe a second Venus transit.

Keywords for this question: Le Gentil, observe, second Venus transit,

In paragraph D, the writer states in lines 8-11, “Undaunted, he remained south of the equator ….before setting off to observe the next transit in thePhilippines. Ironically, after traveling nearly 50,000 kilometers, his view was clouded out at the last moment, a very dispiriting experience.”

Here, his view was clouded out = he could not observe the transit, 

The lines suggest that Le Gentil was not able to observe a second Venus transit in the Philippines due to the thickness of the cloud.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 24: The shape of Venus appears distorted when it starts to pass in front of the Sun.

Keywords for this question: shape, distorted, pass in front of the sun,

In paragraph E, take a look at lines 1-3, “While the early transit timings were as precise as instruments would allow, the measurements were dogged by the ‘black drop’ effect. When Venus begins to cross the Sun’s disc, it looks smeared not circular.”

Here, pass in front of the Sun = cross the Sun’s disc, distorted = smeared not circular

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 25: Early astronomers suspected that the atmosphere on Venus was toxic.

Keywords for this question: early astronomers, suspected, atmosphere on Venus, toxic,

There is no information in this passage about the atmosphere of Venus.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 26: The parallax principle allows astronomers to work out how far away distant stars are from the Earth.

Keywords for this question: parallax principle, how far, stars, Earth,

In paragraph F, take a look at lines 7-10, “The parallax principle can be extended to measure the distances to the stars. If we look at a star in January – when Earth is at one point in its orbit – it will seem to be in a different position from where it appears six month later. Knowing the width of Earth’s orbit, the parallax shift lets astronomers calculate the distance.”

The lines suggest that the parallax principles can be used to measure the distance between different stars and the Earth.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Reading Passage 3: A neuroscientist reveals how to think differently

Questions 27-31   (Multiple choice questions)

[‘Multiple choice questions’ is a common type of question set in IELTS Reading test. It is also found in Listening test.  Most of the time, they come with four options but sometimes there are three options. Candidates need to work hard for this type of questions because this may confuse them easily in passage 2 or passage 3. There will be long answers for each question, so they may kill valuable time. So, quick reading or skimming technique might come handy here.  Remember that answers in 3 options out of 4 will be very close. So, vocabulary power will help a lot to choose the best answer.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence.]

Question 27: Neuroeconomics is a field of study which seeks to –

Keywords for this question: Neuroeconomics, seeks to,

In the first paragraph, the writer says in lines 3-5, “These discoveries have led to the field known as neuroeconomics which studies the brain’s secrets to success in an economic environment that demands innovation and being able to do things differently from competitors.”

The lines suggest that neuroeconomics is the field of study that looks for understanding the link between brain and creativity that leads to achievement in different competitions.

Here, success = achievements

So, the answer is: C (understand how brain is linked to achievement in competitive fields)

Question 28: According to the writer, iconoclasts are distinctive because –

Keywords for this question: iconoclasts, distinctive, because,

Take a look at lines 1-3 of paragraph no. 2, “This definition implies that iconoclasts are different from other people, but more precisely, it is their brains that are different in three distinct ways: perception, fear response, and social intelligence.”

The lines indicate that iconoclasts are different from other people (distinctive) because their brains works differently.

So, the answer is: B (their brains function differently)

Question 29: According to the writer, the brain works efficiently because –

Keywords for this question: brain, works efficiently, because,

In paragraph 3, the author states in lines 3-6, “For example, when confronted with information streaming from the eyes, the brain will interpret this information in the quickest way possible. Thus it will draw on both past experience and any other source of information… . ”

So, according to the passage, the brain functions quickly because it depends on events of the past.

Here, quickly = in the quickest way, depends on = draw on, events of the past = past experience,

So, the answer is: D (it relies on previous events)

Question 30: The writer says that perception is –

Keywords for this question: perception,   

Take a close look at the end of paragraph no. 3, the author states in the last lines, “More than the physical reality of photons and sound waves, perception is a product of the brain.”

The lines indicate that perception is the outcome/product of the brain.

So, the answer is: C (a result of brain processes)

Question 31: According to the writer, an iconoclastic thinker –

Keywords for this question: iconoclastic thinker,   

The answer can be found in paragraph no. 4. Here, the writer says in lines, “Iconoclasts, either because they were born that way or through learning, have found ways to work around the perceptual shortcuts that plague most people.”

Here, work around = avoid, perpetual shortcuts that plague = cognitive traps,

So, the answer is: B (avoids cognitive traps)

Questions 32-37: (YES, NO, NOT GIVEN)

In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the claims of the writer – YESThe statement in the question contradicts the claims of the writer – NOIf it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this – NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 32: Exposure to different events forces the brain to think differently.

Keywords for this question: exposure, different events, forces, think differently,   

The answer for this question is in paragraph no. 5. In the beginning of the paragraph the writer says, “The best way to see things differently to other people is to bombard the brain with things it has never encountered before. Novelty releases the perceptual process from the chains of past experience and forces the brain to make new judgments.”

Here, think differently = make new judgments, exposure to different event = to bombard the brain with things it has never encountered before.

So, the answer is: YES

Question 33: Iconoclasts are unusually receptive to new experiences.

Keywords for this question: iconoclasts, usually, receptive, new experiences,   

In paragraph no. 5, take a look at lines 3-4, where the author says, “Successful iconoclasts have an extraordinary willingness to be exposed to what is fresh and different.”

Here, have an extraordinary willingness to be exposed = unusually receptive, fresh and different = new experiences,

So, the answer is: YES

Question 34: Most people are too shy to try different things.

Keywords for this question: most people, too shy, try, different things,

From this passage, we just learn that people avoid such things or activities which they try to avoid. However, the writer does not mention whether most people are shy too try different things or not.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN   

Question 35: If you think in an iconoclastic way, you can easily overcome fear.

Keywords for this question: exposure, different events, forces, think differently,  

In paragraph no. 6, in lines 2-3, the writer states, “Fear is a major impediment to thinking like an iconoclast and stops the average person in his tracks.”

This means fear works as a blockade against thinking like an iconoclast. So, if someone thinks like an iconoclast, he/she cannot overcome fear.

So, the statement is contradictory.

So, the answer is: NO

Question 36: When concern about embarrassment matters less, other fears become irrelevant.

Keywords for this question: iconoclasts, usually, receptive, new experiences,  

There is no information in relation to embarrassment being more or less.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 37: Fear of public speaking is a psychological illness.

Keywords for this question: most people, too shy, try, different things,

We find the mention of public speaking in paragraph no. 6. Here, in lines 5-7, “But fear of public speaking, which everyone must do from time to time, afflicts one-third of the population. This makes it too common to be considered a mental disorder. It is simply a common variant of human nature, one which iconoclasts do not let inhibit their reactions.”

Here, too common to be considered a mental disorder = so common that it cannot be considered a psychological illness,

So, the statement in the passage contradicts the question.

So, the answer is: NO 

Questions 38-40: (Completing sentences with correct ending)

[For this type of question, candidates need to match the beginning and ending of sentences. Candidates need to look for keywords in the sentence beginnings and find the relative paragraphs and then sentences in the passage. Skimming and scanning, both reading skills are essential for this question-type.]

Question 38: Thinking like a successful iconoclast is demanding because it –

Keywords for this question: thinking like, successful iconoclast, demanding, because,    

In lines 1-2 of paragraph no. 7, the author says, “. .. . to be successful iconoclasts, individuals must sell their ideas to other people. This is where social intelligence comes in.” Here, we can understand that successful iconoclasts need social intelligence. Then, in lines 7-8, we find the reference to perceptual skills, “Perception is important in social cognition too…”. Finally, in the last lines, the writer talks about the demand of thinking like a successful iconoclast, “Understanding how perception becomes intertwined with social decision making shows why successful iconoclasts are so rare.”

Here, rare = demanding

So, the answer is: A (requires both perceptual and social intelligence skills)

Question 39: The concept of the social brain is useful to iconoclasts because it –

Keywords for this question: concept, social brain, useful, iconoclasts, because,     

In paragraph no. 7, take a look at lines 3-7, “In the last decade there has been an explosion of knowledge about the social brain and how the brain works when groups coordinate decision making. Neuroscience has revealed which brain circuits are responsible for functions like understanding what other people think, empathy, fairness, and social identity. These brain regions play key roles in whether people convince others of their ideas.”

So, the lines suggest that the concept of ‘social brain’ plays key roles (is useful) to iconoclasts as these brain regions focuses on group-decision making.

Here, groups decide on an action = groups coordinate decision making

So, the answer is: B (focuses on how groups decide on an action)

Question 40: Iconoclasts are generally an asset because their way of thinking –

Keywords for this question: iconoclasts, generally, asset, because, way of thinking,

The last paragraph gives us the answer. In lines 1-4, the author says, “Iconoclasts create new opportunities in every area from artistic expression to technology to business. They supply creativity and innovation not easily accomplished by committees. Iconoclasts face alienation and failure, but can also be an asset to any organisation.”

The lines indicate that iconoclasts are an asset because their process of thinking works in artistic and scientific fields.

So, the answer is: C (works in many fields, both artistic and scientific)

Reading Passage 1:William Henry Perkin

Questions 1-7: In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 1: Michael Faraday was the first person to recognise Perkin’s ability as a student of chemistry.

Keywords for the question: Michael Faraday, first person, recognise, Perkin’s ability, student of chemistry,     

Take a look at paragraph no. 2 where the writer mentions, “His talent and devotion to the subject were perceived by his teacher (at the City of London school) Thomas Hall….”.

This line suggests the fact that it was Thomas Hall, and not Michael Faraday, who first recognised the talent of Perkin in Chemistry. He also advised Perkin to attend the lectures given by Faraday.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 2: Michael Faraday suggested Perkin should enroll in the Royal College of Chemistry.

Keywords for the question: Michael Faraday, should enroll, Royal College of Chemistry

At the end of paragraph no. 2, we find the information that Perkin was able to enroll in the Royal College of Chemistry, but there is no mention of the person who suggested Perkin to admit in the college.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 3:  Perkin employed August Wilhelm Hofmann as his assistant.

Keywords for the question: employed, Hofmann, assistant,  

In paragraph no. 3, in lines 1-7, the writer mentions, ““At the time of Perkin’s enrolment, the Royal College of Chemistry was headed by the noted German chemist August Wilhelm Hofmann. Perkin’s scientific gifts soon caught Hofmann’s attention and, within two years, he became Hofmann’s youngest assistant.”

This means Perkin did not employ Hofmann, rather Hofmann employed Perkin as his assistant.

So, the answer is: FALSE     

Question 4:  Perkin was still young when he made the discovery that made him rich and famous.

Keywords for the question: still young, discovery, made him rich and famous,   

Take a look at the end of paragraph no. 3. The writer says here, “Perkin’s scientific gifts soon caught Hofmann’s attention and, within two years, he became Hofmann’s youngest assistant. Not long after that, Perkin made the scientific breakthrough that would bring him both fame and fortune.”

Here, fame = famous, fortune = rich, scientific breakthrough = discovery,

So, these lines suggest that Perkin was still young when he made the discovery.

So, the answer is: TRUE       

Question 5: The trees from which quinine is derived grow only in South America.

Keywords for the question: quinine, derived, grow, only in South America

Paragraph no. 4 talks about the medicine quinine and its tree which is ‘cinchona tree’ which originates in South America. But, there is no information which suggest that this tree only grows in this part of the world only.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN       

Question 6:  Perkin hoped to manufacture a drug from a coal tar waste product.

Keywords for the question: hoped, manufacture, drug, coal tar waste,    

In paragraph no. 5, in lines 4-7, the author says, “.. . .. He (Perkin) was attempting to manufacture quinine from aniline, an inexpensive and readily available coal tar waste product.”

Here, attempted = hoped, quinine = a drug for the treatment of malaria.

So, the answer is: TRUE       

Question 7:  Perkin was inspired by the discoveries of the famous scientist Louis Pasteur.

Keywords for the question: inspired by, Louis Pasteur

At the end of paragraph no. 5 we find a quote from the world-famous scientist Louis Pasteur. But there is no mention of any inspiration received by Perkin from the discoveries of Louis Pasteur.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN       

Questions 8-13: Short answer to open questions (NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS)

[In this kind of question candidates have to answer some questions, only with some conditions like NO MORE THAN THREE/TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER or, ONE WORD ONLY. Each question has keywords that will lead to the answer. This question type generally follows a sequence.]

Question 8: Before Perkin’s discovery, with what group in society was the colour purple associated?

Keywords for the question: before, Perkin’s discovery, what group, purple associated,

In paragraph no. 6, the writer argues in lines 6-9, “Indeed, the purple colour extracted from a snail was once so costly that in society at the time, only the rich could afford it.”

The lines suggest that before the discovery made by Perkin, the colour purple was associated with the rich.

So, the answer is: the rich     

Question 9: What potential did Perkin immediately understand that his new dye had?

Keywords for the question: potential, new dye, immediately understand,

At the end of paragraph no. 7, the writer states, “ .. . . But perhaps the most fascinating of all Perkin’s reactions to his find was his nearly instant recognition that the new dye had commercial possibilities.”

This means that Perkin immediately understood that his new dye had the potential of being sold commercially.

So, the answer is: commercial (possibilities)

Question 10: What was the name finally used to refer to the first colour Perkin invented?

Keywords for the question: finally, name, first colour

If we closely look at paragraph no. 7, we can find that the purple colour that Perkin discovered became the world’s first synthetic dye. Later, in the very beginning of paragraph no. 8, the writer mentions, “Perkin originally named his dye Tyrian Purple, but it later became commonly known as mauve.”

So, the final name of the purple colour was mauve.

So, the answer is: mauve

Question 11: What was the name of the person Perkin consulted before setting up his own dye works?

Keywords for the question: name, person, Perkin consulted,

In paragraph no. 8, we can find the name of the person with whom Perkin consulted about setting up his own dye works. “He (Perkin) asked advice of Scottish dye works owner Robert Pullar, who assured him that manufacturing the dye would be well worth it if the colour remained fast and the cost was  relatively  low.”

So, the answer is: Robert Pullar

Question 12: In what country did Perkin’s newly invented colour first become fashionable?

Keywords for the question: country, fashionable,     

Take a close look at paragraph no. 9 where the writer says, “The company received a commercial boost from the Empress Eugénie of France, when she decided the new colour flattered her. Very soon, mauve was the necessary shade for all the fashionable ladies in that country.”

So, the answer is: France  

Question 13: According  to  the  passage,  which  disease  is  now  being  targeted  by  researchers  using  synthetic dyes?

Keywords for the question: disease, researchers, using synthetic dyes,

Take a look at the end of paragraph no. 10. “And, in what would have been particularly pleasing to Perkin, their current use is in the research for a vaccine against malaria.”

So, the answer is: malaria  

Reading Passage 2: Is there anybody out there?

Questions 14-17 (List of headings):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C, and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph that will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence. ]

Question 14: Paragraph B

Here, in line no. 1 of Paragraph B, we find the mention of two ‘ground rules’ that SETI scientists adopt.

In the first ground rule, we can see the writer mentions in line no. 4-5, “.. . .(although it is also important to keep an open mind in case any really convincing evidence emerges in the future.)”. This line suggests that there is no real evidence of extra-terrestrial intelligence so far, which indicates that these are only assumptions.

Again, in line no. 5, the author mentions, “. . .Second, we make a very conservative assumption that . . ..”

So, the answer is: iv (Assumptions underlying the search for extra-terrestrial intelligence)

Question 15: Paragraph C

In lines 4-6, the writer says, “. . .  However, when we look at the 100 billion stars in our galaxy (the Milky Way), and 100 billion galaxies in the observable Universe, it seems inconceivable that at least one of these planets does not have a life form on it; in fact, the best educated guess we can make, . .. . . that perhaps one in 100,000 stars might have a life-bearing planet orbiting it.”

Here, it seems inconceivable, best-educated guess, perhaps, might have, all these phrases indicate to the word ‘likelihood’ or possibility.

So, the answer is: vii (Likelihood of life on other planets)

Question 16: Paragraph D

Here, the first lines directly indicate the fact that SETI scientists and organizations like NASA are seeking the transmission of radio signals from other planets. “An alien civilisation could choose many different ways of sending information across the galaxy, . .. .” Then, in the next lines, we see discussion on radio signals, “. . . .. radio waves in the frequency range 1000 to 3000 MHz travel the greatest distance.” After that, in lines 11-12, we can learn about NASA getting a large fund from the government which is dedicated to locate or seek radio signals from other planets, “.. .Much of the money in this project is being spent on developing the special hardware needed to search many frequencies at once.”

So, the answer is: i (Seeking the transmission of radio signals from planets)

Question 17: Paragraph E

The answer is in the first lines of paragraph E. “There is considerable debate over how we should react if we detect a signal from an alien civilisation. Everybody agrees that we should not reply immediately.”

Here, Everybody agrees that we should not reply immediately means it is most appropriate that we should not response to the signals straight away.

So, the answer is: ii (Appropriate responses to signals from other civilisations)

Questions 18-20: Short answer to open questions (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER)

[In this kind of question candidates have to answer some questions, only with some conditions like NO MORE THAN THREE/TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER or, ONE WORD ONLY. Each question has keywords that will lead to the answer. This question type generally follows a sequence.]

Question 18: What is the life expectancy of Earth?.

Keywords for this question: likely to, live longer, zoo, than in the wild,    

The answer for this question lies in line no. 12, “…Since the lifetime of a planet like ours is several billion years, .. ..”

Here, lifetime = life expectancy, a planet like ours = Earth,

So, the answer is: several billion years

Question 19: What kind of signals from other intelligent civilisations are SETI scientists searching for?

Keywords for this question: some species, zoos, no longer be found, wild,  

From our reading of paragraph D for question no. 16, we came to know that SETI scientists are seeking radio signals from other planets. In this paragraph, line no. 5-6 says, “….and so all searches to date have concentrated on looking for radio waves in this frequency.”

So, the answer is: radio (waves/signals)

Question 20: How many stars are the world’s most powerful radio telescopes searching?

Keywords for this question: improvements, quality of TV wildlife documentaries, insulted, increased, zoo visitors,     

In lines 13-15 of paragraph D the author says, “ . .. One part is a targeted search using the world’s largest radio telescopes, the American-operated telescope in Arecibo, Puerto Rico and the French telescope in Nancy in France. This part of the project is searching the nearest 1000 likely stars . . ..”

Here, the world’s largest radio telescopes = the world’s most powerful radio telescopes

So, the answer is: 1000 (stars)

Questions 21-26 (YES, NO, NOT GIVEN)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question matches the claim of the writer in the text- YESThe statement in the question contradicts the claim of the writer in the text- NOThe statement in the question has no clear connection with the account in the text- NOT GIVEN

[TIPS: For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 21: Alien civilisations may be able to help the human race to overcome serious problems.

Keywords for this question: alien, help overcome problems, 

In the end of paragraph A, the author says in lines 16-18, “It it even possible that the older civilisation may pass on the benefits of their experience in dealing with threats to survival such as nuclear war and global pollution, and other threats that we haven’t yet discovered.”

The lines suggest that alien civilisation may be able to assist us to deal with threats to survival.

Here, may pass on the benefits of their experience = may be able to help

So, the answer is: YES

Question 22: SETI scientists are trying to find a life form that resembles humans in many ways.

Keywords for this question: trying to find, life form, resemble humans

In paragraph B, the author states in lines 5-6, “.  .. .Second, we make a very conservative assumption that  we are looking for a life form that is pretty well like us, since if it differs radically from us we may well not recognise it as a form….. .”

Here, try to find = looking for, like = resembles, pretty well = in many ways,

So, the answer is: YES

Question 23: The Americans and Australians have co-operated on joint research projects.

Keywords for this question: Americans and Australians, co-operated, joint research projects,

We can find talks about ‘the Americans’ and ‘the Australians’ in paragraph D. However, there is no mention of any co-operation in research projects between the two.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 24: So far SETI scientists have picked up radio signals from several stars.

Keywords for this question: picked up signals, several stars,

In paragraph D, the writer states in lines 8-9, “Until now, there have not been any detections from the few hundred stars which have been searched.”

The information in the passage contradicts with the question.

So, the answer is: NO

Question 25: The NASA project attracted criticism from some members of Congress.

Keywords for this question: NASA projects, criticism, Congress, 

Again, we can see the mention of ‘members of Congress’ in paragraph D. But there is no mention of criticism by the members of Congress about the NASA project.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 26: If a signal from outer space is received, it will be important to respond promptly.

Keywords for this question: signal, outer space, respond promptly,

In line 2 of paragraph E, the author mentions, “Everybody agrees that we should not reply immediately.” The previous line talks about what to do in case of receiving a signal from the aliens.

So, the lines suggest that we should not respond promptly or immediately if we receive a signal form the outer space.

So, the answer is: NO

Reading Passage 3 : The history of the tortoise

Questions 27-30   (Short answer to open questions with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS)

[In this kind of questions candidates have to answer some questions, only with some conditions like NO MORE THAN THREE/TWO WORDS and/or A NUMBER or, ONE WORD ONLY. Each question has keywords which will lead to the answer. This question type generally follows a sequence.]

Question 27: What had to transfer from sea to land before any animals could migrate?

Keywords for this question: transfer, from sea to land, before, animals, migrate   

The last lines of paragraph no. 1 give us the answer, “… And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land none of the other migrations could have happened.”

Here, transfer from sea to land before any animals = prior invasion of the land

So, the answer is: plants

Question 28: Which TWO processes are mentioned as those in which animals had to make big changes as they moved onto land?

Keywords for this question: TWO processes, animals, had to make, big changes, moved onto land,  

The first lines of paragraph no. 2 indicate the answer for this question. “Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including breathing and reproduction.”

Here, major redesign = big changes

So, the answers are: breathing, reproduction (in any order)

Question 29: Which physical feature, possessed by their ancestors, do whales, lack?

Keywords for this question: physical feature, ancestors, whales, lack,  

In paragraph no. 2 we can find the mention of whales. Here, in lines 12-21, the author of the passage states, “Whales (including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close cousins the manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their remote ancestors. They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air, having never developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation.”

Here, having never developed = lack, their earlier marine incarnation = their ancestors,

So, the answer is: gills

Question 30: Which animals might ichthyosaurs have resembled?

Keywords for this question: ichthyosaurs, resembled,  

In paragraph no. 3 we can find the answer. In lines 13-17, the writer says, “Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like dolphins, in the water.”

Here, look like = resemble

So, the answer is: dolphins

Questions 31-33: In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUEThe statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSEIf there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 31: Turtles were among the first group of animals to migrate back to the sea.

Keywords for this question: turtles, first group, migrate, back to the sea,  

In paragraph no. 2 we find the writer saying, “Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later turned around, abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again.”

This line doesn’t indicate whether turtles were the first group of animals to migrate back to the sea. IN this paragraph there is only the information about the turtles that they “went back to the sea a very long time age.. .”

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 32: It is always difficult to determine where an animal lived when its fossilised remains are incomplete.

Keywords for this question: difficult, determine, where, lived, fossilised remains, incomplete,

In paragraph no. 3, take a look at lines 9-13, “You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived on land or in water, especially if only fragments are found. Sometimes it’s obvious.”

So, the lines mean that even though fossilised remains are in fragments (incomplete), it is not always difficult to (Sometimes it’s obvious) determine whether an animal lived on land or water. Here, the question statement contradicts the information.

Here, obvious = clear, apparent

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 33: The habitat of ichthyosaurs can be determined by the appearance of their fossilised remains.

Keywords for this question: habitat, ichthyosaurs, determined, appearance, fossilised remains,    

In paragraph no. 3, look at lines 13-17, “Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like dolphins, in the water.”

Therefore, it is true that the habitat of ichthyosaurs can be determined by taking a close look at their fossils.

So, the answer is: TRUE   

Questions 34-39: (Completing flow chart with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER to complete a flow chart on the given topic. For this type of question, first, skim the passage to find the keywords in the paragraph concerned with the answer, and then scan to find the exact word.]

Title: Method of determining where the ancestors of turtles and tortoises come from

Step 1:

Question 34: 71 species of living turtles and tortoises were examined and a total of ____________ were taken from the bones of their forelimbs.

Keywords for this question: 71 species, living turtles and tortoises, examined, bones, forelimbs,   

In paragraph no. 4 we find the mention of ‘71 species of living turtles and tortoises’. So, we should read attentively to find our answer here. The writer says in the beginning of paragraph no. 4, “Walter Joyce Jacques Gauthier, at Yale University, obtained three measurements in these particular bones (of their forelimbs as mentioned at the end of paragraph no. 3) of 71 species of living turtles and tortoises.”

So, the answer is: 3/three measurements

Step 2:

Question 35: The data was recorded on a _________(necessary for comparing the information).

Keywords for this question: data, recorded on, necessary, comparing information,    

In lines 5-7 of paragraph no. 4 the writer says, “. . . They used a kind of triangular graph paper to plot the three measurements against one another.”

Here, to plot … . . .. against one another = necessary for comparing the information

So, the answer is: (triangular) graph  

Question 36: Outcome: Land tortoises were represented by a dense _________ of points towards the top.

Sea turtles were grouped together in the bottom part.

Keywords for this question: outcome, land tortoises, dense, points, towards the top,    

The answer can be found in lines 7-11, “. . . All the land tortoise species formed a tight cluster of points in the upper part of the triangle; all the water turtles cluster in the lower part of the triangular graph.”

Here, tight = dense, lower part = bottom part,

So, the answer is: cluster

Step 3:

Question 37: The same data was collected from some living _________ species and added to the other results.

Keywords for this question: same data, collected, some living, species, added to, other results,     

In lines 11-14 of paragraph no. 4, the author says, “.. . .. . . There was no overlap, except when they added some species that spend time both in water and on land. Sure enough, these amphibious species show up . ..”. So, the data was added to the graph was from some amphibious species.

So, the answer is: amphibious  

Question 38: Outcome: The points for these species turned out to be positioned about _________ up the triangle between the land tortoises and the sea turtles.

Keywords for this question: outcome, points, species, turned out to be, positioned, triangle, between, land tortoises, sea turtles,    

The answer lies in lines 13-17, the author says, “. .. Sure enough, these amphibious species show up on the triangular graph approximately half way between the ‘wet cluster’ of sea turtles and the ‘dry cluster’ of land tortoises.

Here, show up = positioned, approximately = about,

So, the answer is: half way

Step 4:

Bones of P. quenstedti and P. talampayensis were examined in a similar way and the results added.

Question 39: Outcome: The position of the points indicated that both these ancient creatures were ________.

Keywords for this question: bones, P. quenstedti and P. talampayensis, examined, similar way, position, points, indicated, ancient creatures,  

We can see the mention of ‘the bones of P. quenstedti and P. talampayensis’ at the end of paragraph no. 4. Here, in lines 19-23, the author says, “. . .. The bones of P. quenstedti and P. talampayensis leave us no doubt. Their points on the graph are right in the thick of the dry cluster. Both these fossils were dry-land tortoises.”

Here, fossils = ancient creatures,

So, the answer is: dry-land tortoises

Question 40: Multiple choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers for previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

According to the writer, the most significant thing about tortoises is that –

A. they are able to adapt to life in extremely dry environments.

B. their original life form was a kind of primeval bacteria.

C. they have so much in common with sea turtles.

D. they have made the transition from sea to land more than once.

As the question asks us to identify the most significant thing about tortoises, we need to look closely at the final paragraph, as this paragraph will give us the summary of the whole passage. Take a look at this paragraph where the author says, “Tortoises therefore represent a remarkable double return. In common with all mammals, reptiles and birds, their remote ancestors were marine fish and before that various more or less worm-like creatures stretching back, still in the sea, to the primeval bacteria. Later ancestors lived on land and stayed there for a very large number of generations. Later ancestors still evolved back into the water and become sea turtles. And finally they returned yet again to the land as tortoises, some of which now live in the driest of deserts.”

This paragraph suggests to the fact that the tortoises have changed their habitat from sea to land a number of times.

So, the answer is: D

 

Reading Passage 1: Land of the Rising Sum

Questions 1-5: (List of headings):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph that will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence. ]

Question 1: Section B

Section B is clearly an overview of lower secondary schools or middle-years education in Japan.

The very first lines talk about the lower secondary schools, “Lower secondary schools in Japan cover three school years, from the seventh grade (age 13) to the ninth grade (age 15). . . .. .” So, obviously, this section covers the explanation of lower secondary schools and its background. 

The writer then gives a description of the number of years, the different facilities, timing of lessons, break-time and description of the class-size, etc.

So, the answer is: vii (Background to middle-years education in Japan)

Special tip: Most of the time in ‘List of headings/Matching headings’ questions, the answers are found from the first few lines as they give an idea about the main topic. However, this is not applicable to all questions, so sometimes you need to skim the whole section/paragraph. 

Question 2: Section C

In paragraph C, look at lines 3-4, “Everyone has their own copy of the textbook supplied by the central education authority, Monbusho, as a part of the concept of free compulsory education up to the age of 15.” Therefore, Monbusho, which is Japan’s central education authority, supplies textbooks to the students for free.

Again, the last sentence in paragraph C says, “Besides approving textbooks, Monbusho also decides the highly centralized national curriculum and how it is to be delivered”.

These lines suggest that Monbusho has such a great effect/influence on Japan’s education that it not only designs textbooks but also the national curriculum.

So, the answer is: i (The influence of Monbusho)

Question 3: Section D

This section describes the format of every lesson in Monbusho system. However, it seems that none of the ‘headings’ from the list matches with this section.

Again, if you look at lines 11-12, the author writes, “. .. Only rarely are supplementary worksheets distributed in a maths class.” This means supplementary worksheets are rarely distributed in maths class only, and this makes the maths class format typical.

So, the answer is: v (The typical format of a maths lesson)

Question 4: Section E

In the first part of section E, the writer says lines 3-4, “. .. In observed lessons, any strugglers would be assisted by the teacher or quietly seek help from their neighbour.” Here, strugglers mean less successful students.

Then, in the next part of section E, the author says, “This scarcely seems adequate help to enable slow learners to keep up. However, the Japanese attitude towards education runs along the lines of ‘if you work hard enough, you can do almost anything’.” This means slow learners get help which may seem inadequate but Japanese people believe hard work essential to get success.

So, the answer is: ii (Helping less successful students)

Question 5: Section F

The first lines of parts 1 and 2 of section F give us the answer to this question. At the beginning of part 1, “So what are the major contributing factors in the success of maths teaching? Clearly, attitudes are important.”

And then, at the beginning of part 2, “Other relevant points relate to the supportive attitude of a class towards slower pupils, the lack of competition within a class and a positive emphasis on learning for oneself and improving one’s own standard.”

So, the answer is: viii (The key to Japanese successes in maths education)

Questions 6-9: YES, NO, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the claims of the writer in the passage – YES
The statement in the question contradicts the claims of the writer in the passage – NO
If there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 6: There is a wider range of achievement amongst English pupils studying maths than amongst their Japanese counterparts.

Keywords for the question: wider range of achievement, English pupils, studying maths, Japanese counterparts,

In paragraph A, take a look at lines 4-6, where the writer says, “… .. . but there was also a larger proportion  of ‘low’ attainers in England, where, incidentally, the variation in attainment scores was much greater.” The lines suggest that even though Japan has a much better record in average mathematical achievement than England and Wales, England has a much wider range of achievement scores than Japan.

Here, wider means greater, achievement means attainment,

So, the answer is: YES

Question no. 7: The percentage of Gross National Product spent on education generally reflects the level of attainment in mathematics.

Keywords for the question: percentage, Gross National Product, spent, reflects, level of attainment,

Take a look at the last sentence of Section A,”. .. . The percentage of Gross National Product spent on education is reasonably similar in the two countries, so how is this higher and more consistent attainment in maths achieved?”

Now have a look at the sentence of section A, “Japan has significantly better record in terms of average mathematical attainment than England and Wales.”

Therefore, the writer is asking the question about the role of GNP in relation to higher scores in maths by Japan. This suggests that the percentage of GNP spent on education doesn’t necessarily reflect the level of scoring in maths. Had it been like that, England would have the same result in maths as Japan.

So, the answer is: NO

Question no. 8: Private schools in Japan are more modern and spacious than state-run lower secondary schools.

Keywords for the question: private schools in Japan, modern, spacious, state-run lower secondary schools,

In section B, the writer indicates in lines 2-3, “. .. . all pupils at this stage attend state schools; only 3 percent are in the private sector. Schools are usually modern in design, set well back from the road and spacious inside”. 

However, we don’t find any comparison between the facilities of private schools and state-run schools here.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question no. 9: Teachers mark homework in Japanese schools.

Keywords for the question: teachers, mark, homework, Japanese schools,  

In section D, take a look at lines 3-5, “Pupils mark their own homework: this is an important principle in Japanese schooling as it enables pupils to see where and why they made a mistake so that these can be avoided in future”. 

So, the homework is marked by the pupils, not by their teachers.

So, the answer is: NO

Questions 10-13: Multiple-choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers to previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

Question no. 10: Maths textbooks in Japanese schools are –

Keywords for the question: Maths textbooks, Japanese schools,   

In section C, find this line, “These textbooks are, on the whole, small, presumably inexpensive to produce, but well set out and logically developed.”

Here, well set out and logically developed = well organised and adapted to the needs of the pupils

So, the answer is: B (Well organised and adapted to the needs of the pupils)

Question 11: When a new maths topic is introduced,

Keywords for this question: new maths topic, introduced,     

In section D, the writer says in lines 7-10, “…. the teacher explains the topic of the lesson, slowly and with a lot of repetition and elaboration. Examples are demonstrated on the board; questions from the textbook are worked through first with the class….”.  This means that the teacher patiently explains any new maths topic with repetition and elaborates on the topic to the students so that they can understand it easily.

So, the answer is: C (It is carefully and patiently explained to the students)

Question 12: How do schools deal with students who experience difficulties?

Keywords for this question: schools, deal with, students, experience difficulties,

In section E, the author of the text says in lines 2-5, “. .. . . Teachers say that they give individual help at the end of a lesson or after school, setting extra work if necessary. In observed lessons, any strugglers would be assisted by the teacher or quietly seek help from their neighbour”.
Furthermore, the schools also inspire the parents and guardians to help as the writer explains in lines 10-13, “. .. . .. Parents are kept closely informed of their children’s progress and will play a part in helping their children to keep up with class, sending them to ‘Juku’ (private evening tuition) if extra help is needed and encouraging them to work harder”.

This means the students are encouraged to take extra lessons in ‘Juku’ (supplementary tuition)

So, the answer is: A (They are given appropriate supplementary tuition)

Question 13: Why do Japanese students tend to achieve relatively high rates of success in maths?

Keywords for this question: Japanese students, tend to achieve, relatively high rates of success, maths,  

In section F, the writer says in lines 3-4, “.. . .. . maths is recognised as an important compulsory subject throughout schooling, and the emphasis is on hard work coupled with a focus on accuracy.”

This means Japanese students and teachers give more importance to hard work and accuracy in maths and as a result, the students get relatively high scores in maths.

Here, hard work = effort, accuracy = correct answers,

So, the answer is: C (Much effort is made and correct answers are emphasised)

Reading Passage 2: Biological control of pests 

Questions 14-17: Multiple choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers to previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

Question 14: The use of pesticides has contributed to –

Keywords for this question: use of pesticides, contributed to,    

In paragraph no. 1, the writer says in lines 2-4, “.. .  Apart from engendering widespread ecological disorders, pesticides have contributed to the emergence of a new breed of chemical-resistant, highly lethal superbugs. .”

Here, around the world = widespread, imbalance = disorders,

So, the answer is: B (an imbalance in many ecologies around the world.)

Question 15: The Food and Agriculture Organisation has counted more than 300 agricultural pests which –

Keywords for this question: The Food and Agriculture Organisation, counted, more than 300, agricultural pests,    

In paragraph no. 2, lines 1-2, the writer says, “According to a recent study by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), more than 300 species of agricultural pests have developed resistance to a wide range of potent chemicals”.  

This means that pesticides are no longer effective on these 300 species of agricultural pests.

Here, no longer responding to = have developed resistance to, pesticides = potent chemicals

So, the answer is: A (are no longer responding to most pesticides in use.)

Question 16: Cotton farmers in Central America began to use pesticides –

Keywords for this question: Cotton farmers, Central America, began, use pesticides,     

We find the reference of ‘Cotton farmers’ in paragraph no. 4. In lines 1-4, the author says, “. . .. . well illustrated by what happened to cotton farmers in Central America. In the early 1940s, basking in the glory of chemical-based intensive agriculture, the farmers avidly took to pesticides as a sure measure to boost crop yield.”

Here, began to use = took to, boost = to make something increase

So, the answer is: D (to ensure more cotton was harvested from each crop)

Question 17: By the mid-1960s, cotton farmers in Central America found that pesticides –

Keywords for this question: mid-1960s, cotton farmers, Central America, found, pesticides,     

In paragraph no. 5, the author says in the beginning, “By the mid-1960s, the situation took an alarming turn with the outbreak of four more new pests, necessitating pesticides spraying to such an extent that 50% of the financial outlay on cotton production was accounted for by pesticides”.

This means that pesticides accounted for 50% of the amount of money spent on cotton production.
Here, financial outlay = the money that need to be spent in order to produce cotton,

So, the answer is: D (were costing 50% of the total amount they spent on their crops)

Questions 18-21 YES, NO, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the claims of the writer in the passage – YESThe statement in the question contradicts the claims of the writer in the passage – NOIf there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 18: Disease-spreading pests respond more quickly to pesticides than agricultural pests do.

Keywords for this question: disease-spreading pests, respond, more quickly, pesticides, agricultural pests,

In paragraph 2, we find a statement made by the FAO, “. . .. . more than 300 species of agricultural pests have developed resistance to a wide range of potent chemicals. Not to be left behind are the disease-spreading pests, about 100 species of which have become immune to a variety of insecticides now in use”. 

In this statement, the writer talks about the response by different pests to different pesticides. However, we find no comparison on any pests responding more quickly or less quickly than other pests.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 19: A number of pests are now born with an innate immunity to some pesticides.

Keywords for this question: pests, born, innate immunity, pesticides,    

In paragraph no. 3, the writer states in lines 3-5, “Because of their tremendous breeding potential and genetic diversity, many pests are known to withstand synthetic chemicals and bear offspring with a built-in resistance to pesticides”.  

The lines suggest the fact that these species are born with an innate immunity to insecticides.

Here, built-in = innate, resistance = immunity,

So, the answer is: YES

Question 20: Biological control entails using synthetic chemicals to try and change the genetic make-up of the pests’ offspring.

Keywords for this question: biological control, synthetic chemicals, change, genetic make-up, pests’ offspring,    

In paragraph no. 7, the author says in lines 1-4, “In the face of the escalating perils from indiscriminate applications of pesticides, a more effective and ecologically sound strategy of biological control, involving the selective use of natural enemies of the pest population, is fast gaining popularity – though, as yet, it is a new field with limited potential.”

Here, involving the selective use of natural enemies of the pest population means using natural enemies instead of using synthetic chemicals.

Here, synthetic means artificial.

Therefore, the question contradicts the statement given in the passage.

So, the answer is: NO

Question 21: Bio-control is free from danger under certain circumstances.

Keywords for this question: bio-control, free from, danger, circumstances,

In paragraph 7, the writer states in lines 4-7, “. . .. . .. the advantage of biological control in contrast to other methods is that it provides a relatively low-cost, perpetual control system with a minimum of detrimental side-effects. When handled by experts, bio-control is safe, non-polluting and self-dispersing”.

Here, with a minimum of detrimental side-effects = free from danger

So, the answer is: YES

Questions 22-26: (Completing sentences with correct endings)

[For this type of question, candidates need to match the beginning and ending of sentences. Candidates need to look for keywords in the sentence beginnings and find the relative paragraphs and then sentences in the passage. Skimming and scanning, both reading skills are essential for this question type.]

Question 22: Disapene scale insects feed on –

Keywords for this question: Disapene scale insects, feed on,

The last sentence in paragraph no. 9 gives us the answer to this question. The writer says here, “CIBC is also perfecting the technique for breeding parasites that prey on ‘disapene scale’ insects – notorious defoliants of fruit trees in the US and India.”

The lines suggest that disapene scale insects cause harm to fruit trees, so they feed on fruit trees.

Here, notorious = well known for being bad,

So, the answer is: D (fruit trees)

Question 23: Neodumetia sangawani ate –

Keywords for this question: Neodumetia sangawani, ate,

In paragraph no. 10, take a look at these lines, “Neodumetia sangawani, was found useful in controlling the Rhodes grass-scale insect that was devouring forage grass in many parts of the US.” 

This means that Neodumetia sangawani devoured or ate Rhodes grass-scale insect to control it from devouring forage grass. Here, ate = was devouring

So, the answer is: H (grass-scale insects)

Question 24: Leaf-mining hispides blighted –

Keywords for this question: Leaf-mining hispides, blighted,

In paragraph no. 10, the writer mentions, “In the late 1960s, when Sri Lanka’s flourishing coconut groves were plagued by leaf-mining hispides, a larval parasite imported from Singapore brought the pest under control.” 

This suggests the fact that Sri Lanka’s coconut groves were damaged by leaf-mining hispides.
Here, blight = plague, flourishing = developing quickly or being productive, grove = a small garden or group of trees,

So, the answer is: C (coconut trees)

Question 25: An Argentinian weevil may be successful in wiping out –

Keywords for this question: Argentinian weevil, may be, successful, wiping out,

In paragraph no. 9, the author mentions, “Similarly the Hyderabad-based Regional Laboratory (RRL), supported by CIBC, is now trying out an Argentina weevil (a kind of small beetle) for the eradication of water hyacinth.”

The lines suggest that an Argentinian weevil has a possibility of being successful in destroying all of the water hyacinth plants. We can guess that the weevils will eat the water hyacinth.

Here, destroying = wiping out,

So, the answer is: E (water hyacinth)

Question 26: Salvinia molesta plagues

Keywords for this question: Salvinia molesta, plagues,

Again, in paragraph 10, the writer says, “By using Neochetina bruci, a beetle native to Brazil, scientists at Kerala Agricultural University freed a 12-kilometer-long canal from the clutches of the weed Salvinia molesta. About 30,000 hectares of rice fields in Kerala are infested by this weed.”

Here, plagues = are infested by,

So, the answer is: B (rice fields)

Reading Passage 3: Collecting Ant Specimens

Questions 27-30 (TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN)

In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 27: Taxonomic research involves comparing members of one group of ants.   

Keywords for this question: Taxonomic research, comparing members, one group of ants,

In paragraph 1, the writer says in lines 4-6, “For taxonomy, or classification, long series, from a single nest, which contain all castes (workers, including majors and minors, and, if present, queens and males) are desirable, to allow the determination of variation within species.”

These lines explain that taxonomic research entails classifying different ants from a particular nest, which holds all the different castes, or different members of a single group.

Here, one group of ants = a single nest, which contain all castes,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 28: New species of ant are frequently identified by taxonomists.  

Keywords for this question: new species, frequently, identified, by taxonomists,

Only paragraph no. 1 details about taxonomic research of ants. However, no information is found here about how often/frequently taxonomists identify new species of ants.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 29: Range is the key criterion for ecological collections.

Keywords for this question: Range, key criterion, ecological collections, 

In paragraph no. 1, the author says in lines 7-8, “For ecological studies, the most important factor is collecting identifiable samples of as many of the different species present as possible.” 

The lines suggest that it is absolutely vital/ important to gather a variety or range of present species.

Here, as many of the different species = range, the most important factor = key criterion, 

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 30: A single collection of ants can generally be used for both taxonomic and ecological purposes.  

Keywords for this question: single collection, generally, used for, both, taxonomic, ecological purposes,  

The last few lines of paragraph no. 1 gives us hint to the answer, “The taxonomist sometimes overlooks whole species in favour of those groups currently under study, while the ecologist often collects only a limited number of specimens of each species, thus reducing their value for taxonomic investigations.”

This means the taxonomists sometimes don’t consider a large collection (whole species) so important while ecologists often collect a very inadequate number of specimens of ever species of ants. This often makes the taxonomic investigation insignificant. Thus, a single collection cannot be used for both taxonomic and ecological purposes.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Questions 31-36 (Classifying statements)

[This type of question asks candidates to classify information from the given reading text. Candidates are given some statements from the text, and a list of options, which are listed as A, B, C, etc. They must match the correct statements with the correct options.

N.B.: This question doesn’t follow any sequence. So, they should be answered after all other questions in the passage.]

Question 31: It is preferable to take specimens from groups of ants.

Keywords for this question: preferable, take specimens, groups of ants,

In paragraph no. 2, where the author talks about hand collecting method, it says in lines 6-8, “. . .. .. when possible, collections should be made from nests or foraging columns and at least 20 to 25 individuals collected. This will ensure that all individuals are from the same species and so increase their value for detailed studies”.

Here, at least 20 to 25 individuals = groups of ants,

So, the answer is: A (hand collecting)

Question 32: It is particularly effective for wet habitats.

Keywords for this question: particularly effective, wet habitats,

The answer can be found in paragraph no. 4, where the writer gives details about ground litter sampling method, “. . .. .. .this method works especially well in rain forests and marshy areas”.  Rain forests and marshy areas are wet habitats.

Here, works well = effective, rain forests and marshy area = wet habitats, 

So, the answer is: C (sampling ground litter)

Question 33: It is a good method for species which are hard to find.

Keywords for this question: good method, hard to find,  

In paragraph no. 3, where the writer details about using baits, it says, “. . . . Baits can be used to attract and concentrate foragers. This often increases the number of individuals collected and attracts species that are otherwise elusive”. 

Here, elusive = hard to find,

So, the answer is: B (using bait)

Question 34: Little time and effort is required.

Keywords for this question: little time and effort, required,  

In paragraph no. 5, where the author explains the pitfall trap method, it says, “One advantage of pitfall traps is that they can be used to collect over a period of time with minimal maintenance and intervention”.

That means pitfall traps require little time and effort to look after.

Here, minimal maintenance and intervention = little time and effort,

So, the answer is: D (using a pitfall trap)

Question 35: Separate containers are used for individual specimens.

Keywords for this question: separate containers, used, individual specimens,

Again, in paragraph no. 2, where the hand collecting method is explained, the writer says in lines 11-12, “Individual insects are placed in plastic or glass tubes (1.5 – 3.0 ml capacity for small ants, 5-8 ml for larger ants) containing 75% to 95% ethanol.”

Here, plastic or glass tubes = containers,

So, the answer is: A (hand collecting)

Question 36: Non-alcoholic preservative should be used.

Keywords for this question: non-alcoholic preservatives,  

In paragraph no. 5, in the pitfall trap method, the writer says, “ . .. . . . .. the preservative used is usually ethylene glycol or propylene glycol, as alcohol will evaporate quickly and the traps will dry out”.

Here, the writer explains the use of ethylene glycol or propylene glycol because if alcohol is used, it will evaporate and the trap will dry out quickly and will not have any effect.

So, the answer is: D (using a pitfall trap)

Questions 37-40 (Labeling a diagram)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to label a diagram with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Title: One method of collecting ants

Special tip: To answer this question easily, we need to get an idea about which method of collecting ants is displayed in this diagram and find out the paragraph in the passage where the answers for questions 37-40 can be traced.

In this diagram, we find only one word which seems to be our KEYWORD and the word is ‘funnel’. Therefore, we need to find out the paragraph where the word ‘funnel’ can be found.

This passage has only five paragraphs and paragraphs 2 3, 4 and 5 talk about different methods of collecting the ant specimens.

If we look at paragraph no. 4, we can find the word ‘funnel’ in different lines. So, we can find all the answers in this paragraph.

Question 37: some _________

Question 38: _________

Question 39: a _________

Question 40: some _________

Now, let’s have a close look at paragraph no. 4,

“Many ants are small and forage primarily in the layer of leaves and other debris on the ground. Collecting these species by hand can be difficult. One of the most successful ways to collect them is to gather the leaf litter in which they are foraging and extract the ants from it. This is most commonly done by placing leaf litter on a screen over a large funnel, often under some heat. As the leaf litter dries from above, ants (and other animals) move downward and eventually fall out the bottom and are collected in alcohol placed below the funnel. This method works especially well in rainforests and marshy areas. A method of improving the catch when using a funnel is to sift the leaf litter through a coarse screen before placing it above the funnel. This will concentrate the litter and remove larger leaves and twigs. It will also allow more litter to be sampled when using a limited number of funnels.”

Now, as the picture suggests, the answer to question no. 28 will be leaf litter (they look like leaf and garbage), and as the thing above the leaf litter indicates to question no. 27, the answer will be heat (the heat covers the leaf litter).  “This is most commonly done by placing leaf litter on a screen over a large funnel, often under some heat.”(lines 4 and 5)

Then, question no. 39 in the picture shows a covering above the funnel which holds the leaf litter. So, the answer to question no. 39 will be coarse screen. “A method of improving the catch when using a funnel is to sift the leaf litter through a coarse screen before placing it above the funnel.”(lines 7-9)

Finally, for question no. 40, it looks like something below the funnel. So, the answer will be alcohol. “As the leaf litter dries from above, ants (and other animals) move downward and eventually fall out the bottom and are collected in alcohol placed below the funnel.” (lines 5-6)

So, the answers are:

• heat
• leaf litter
• (coarse) screen
• alcohol

Reading Passage 1: Striking Back at Lightning with Lasers

Questions 1-5: Multiple choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers for previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

Question 1: The main topic discussed in the text is –

Keywords for the question: main topic,  

A very quick reading (skimming) of the passage will let us know about the following facts:

Paragraph no. 1: Lightning and its adverse effects

Paragraph no. 2: Researchers has found a way to control lightning’s effects with laser

Paragraph no. 3: A project to strike back at lightning survived

Paragraph no. 4: Lightning may change its own course and hit somewhere else

Paragraph no. 5: Research needs to be risk-free

Paragraph no. 6: How the new research idea may work and be used in events

Paragraph no. 7: The mammoth size of the laser

Paragraph no. 8: The much needed money for producing the laser at a cheaper price

Paragraph no. 9: The project can be helpful for other scientists and experts  

Paragraph no. 10: The laser has a good chance to work against hailstorms

Now, we can decide that option A is not a match because this passage is not about the damage lightning does to US golf course and players; option B is not a match because the passage does not talk about supplying power to US and Japan; and option C is not a match because we find only one way of trying to control lightning strikes.

Option D is our answer as the main topic is ‘A laser technique that may work to control lightning strikes.

So, the answer is: D (a laser technique used in trying to control lightning strikes.)

Special tip: As the question asks to find out the main topic of the passage, this question should be answered after all the 12 questions of this passage.

Question 2: According to the text, every year lightning –

Keywords for the question: every year, lightning,  

Take a look at the last lines of paragraph A, “. . .. And there is damage to property too. Lightning damage costs American power companies more than $100 million a year.” This means that every year lightning causes a great amount of damage to buildings.

Here, damage to property = damage to buildings, a year = every year,

So, the answer is: A (does considerable damage to buildings during thunderstorms.)

Question 3: Researchers at the University of Florida and at the University of New Mexico –

Keywords for the question: Researchers, University of Florida, University of New Mexico,

The answer can be found in two paragraphs.

First take a look at lines 3-5 of paragraph no. 3, “The technique survives to this day at a test site in Florida run by the University of Florida, with support from the Electrical Power Research Institute (EPRI), based in California.” So, Researchers at the University of Florida receive funds from EPRI.

Now, go to paragraph no. 5 and look at lines 2-3, “. . . points out Jean-Claude Diels of the University of New Mexico. Diels is leading a project, which is backed by EPRI,. ..  .” So, researchers at the University of New Mexico also receive funds from EPRI.

So, the answer is: A (receive funds from the same source.)

Questions 4-6: (Completing sentences with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS)

[For this type of question, candidates need to complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Candidates need to look for keywords in the sentence beginnings and find the relative paragraphs and then sentences in the passage. Skimming and scanning, both reading skills are essential for this question type.]

Question 4: EPRI receives financial support from ______________.

Keywords for the question: EPRI receives, financial supports,

Have a close look at paragraph no. 3, lines 5-6, “. . . .. with support from the Electrical Power Research Institute (EPRI), based in California. EPRI, which is funded by power companies, . . .. .”

Here, funded by means receives financial support from,  

So, the answer is: power companies

Question 5: The advantage of the technique being developed by Diels is that it can be used ____________.

Keywords for the question: advantage, technique, Diels, can be used,  

In paragraph no. 5, lines 2-4 say, “. …. .. points out Jean-Claude Diels of the University of New Mexico. Diels is leading a project, which is backed by EPRI, to try to use lasers to discharge lightning safely- and safety is a basic requirement since no one wants to put themselves or their expensive equipment at risk.”

So, the answer is: safely (you must use the adverb form of the noun ‘safety’)

Question 6: The main difficulty associated with using the laser equipment is related to its ____________.

Keywords for the question: main difficulty, using the laser equipment, related to,  

In paragraph no. 7, the writer talks about the main problem related to the laser equipment. “However, there is still a big stumbling block. The laser is no nifty portable: it’s a monster that takes up a whole room. Diels is trying to cut down the size and says that a laser around the size of a small table is in the offing.”

Here, big stumbling block = main difficulty, it’s a monster that takes up a whole room = size,

So, the answer is: size

Questions 7-10: (Completing summary with a list of words)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to complete a summary with a list of words taken from the passage. Candidates must write the correct letter (not the words) as the answers. Keywords and synonyms are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Question no. 7: In this method, a laser is used to create a line of ionisation by removing electrons from __________.

Keywords for the question: laser, used, create, a line of ionisation, removing electrons from,

In paragraph no. 6, the author of the passage writes in lines 1-4, “The idea began some 20 years ago, when high-powered lasers were revealing their ability to extract electrons out of atoms and create ions. If a laser could generate a line of ionisation. .. ..”

Here, generate a line of ionisation = create a line of ionisation, removing electrons from = extract electrons out of,

So, the answer is: B (atoms)

Question no. 8 and 9: This laser is then directed at 8. __________ in order to control electrical charges, a method which is less dangerous than using 9. __________.  

Keywords for the question: laser, directed, control electrical charges, a method, less dangerous than,  

Again, in paragraph no. 6, carefully look at lines 2-3, “If a laser could generate a line of ionisation in the air all the way up to a storm cloud, this conducting path could be used to guide lightning to Earth . … . ”

Now, paragraph no. 6 is an explanation of using lasers in a populated area by Jean-Claude Diels of the University of New Mexico. If you take a look at the first line of paragraph no. 5, you’ll find the reason for using lasers, “And anyway, who would want to fire streams of rockets in a populated area?”

This means lasers are less dangerous than rockets.

So, the answers are:

• C (storm clouds)
• G (rockets)

Question no. 10: As a protection for the lasers, the beams are aimed firstly at __________.

Keywords for the question: protection, for the lasers, beams, aimed firstly,  

For this question, we have to look at lines 5-6 of paragraph no.6, “. . .. To stop the laser itself being struck, it would not be pointed straight at the clouds. Instead it would be directed at a mirror and from there into the sky”.

So, mirrors will give the much needed protection for the lasers.

Here, directed at =  aimed . . . at,  

So, the answer is: D (mirrors)

Questions 11-13: YES, NO, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the claims of the writer in the passage – YES
The statement in the question contradicts the claims of the writer in the passage – NO
If there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 11: Power companies have given Diels enough money to develop his laser.

Keywords for this question: power companies, given, Diels, enough money, to develop his laser,    

In paragraph no. 8 the writer says in lines 1-3, “Bernstein says that Diels’s system is attracting lots of interest from the power companies. But they have not yet come up with the 5 million dollars that EPRI says will be needed to develop a commercial system…”.

This means even though power companies are fascinated by Diels’s system, they have not yet provided him with the money that he needs.

So, the answer is: NO

Question 12: Obtaining money to improve the lasers will depend on tests in real storms.

Keywords for this question: obtaining money, improve the lasers, depend on, tests, real storm,    

In paragraph no. 8, lines 3-6 the author says, “He reckons that the forthcoming field test will be the turning point – and he’s hoping for good news. Bernstein predicts ‘an avalanche of interest and support’ if all goes well. He expects to see cloud – zappers eventually costing 50,000 dollars to 100,000 dollars each.”

Here, the forthcoming field test will be the turning point indicates that the coming tests in real storms will determine whether he will obtain the money or not.

So, the answer is: YES

Question 13: Weather forecasters are intensely interested in Diels’s system.

Keywords for this question: Weather forecasters, intensely interested, Diels’s system,   

We find the mention of ‘meteorology’ in both paragraphs no. 9 and 10. However, neither of the paragraphs indicates anything about weather forecasters’ interest in Diels’s system.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Reading Passage 2: The Nature of Genius

Questions 14-18 (Choosing from list of factors):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of factors with a question. Candidates must find out three/four or five factors that matches with the questions. Most of the time, the answers can be found in one or two paragraphs.

TIPS: Both skimming and scanning are needed for this kind of question. You need to skim the passage to find out the paragraph where the answers can be found. Then you can scan it to find all the answers. The answers can be written in any order.]

Question for 14-18: Below are listed some popular beliefs about genius and giftedness.

Which FIVE of these beliefs are reported by the writer of the text?

For this question, we have to find out the paragraph where popular beliefs about genius and giftedness are reported.

A quick skimming of paragraph A indicates that the answers can’t be found there. Now, in paragraph B, take a look at lines 2-3, “. . .In the mythology of giftedness. . ..”

Here, mythology = popular beliefs.

Now, let’s match the answers:

In lines 4-5, “.. . .. that intellectuals are impractical, that prodigies burn too brightly too soon and burn out, … ..”.

Here, prodigies = gifted people/genius people, burn out = exhausted,

This information matches with the answer B. 

In lines 10-11, “… . that people with gifts have a responsibility to use them. . . ”.

Here, have a responsibility = should, use them = use their gifts,

This information matches with the answer C.

In lines 6-7, “… . that genius runs in families. . . ”.

Here, genius runs in families = Genius is inherited, 

This information matches with the answer F.

In line no. 9, “… . that genius goes unrecognized and unrewarded. . . ”.

Here, genius goes unrecognized and unrewarded = People never appreciate true genius,

This information matches with the answer H.

In line no. 10, “… . that adversity makes men wise . . . ”.

Here, adversity = difficulties, develop their greatness = makes men wise,

This information matches with the answer J.

The other options such as A, D, E, G, I, K, do not match with the information provided in paragraph B.

So the answers are: (in any order)

B

C

F

H

J

Questions 19-26 (TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN)

In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUEThe statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSEIf there is no information on this – NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 19: Nineteenth-century studies of the nature of genius failed to take into account the uniqueness of the person’s upbringing.

Keywords for this question: Nineteenth-century studies, failed to take into account, uniqueness, person’s upbringing,

We find the reference of 19th century studies in paragraph no. 3. Now, take a look at lines 7-9, “. . However, the difficulty with the evidence produced by these studies, fascinating as they are in collecting together anecdotes and apparent similarities and exceptions, is that they are not what we would today call norm-referenced.”

Here, norm-referenced means followed by a fixed principle.  Here, the principle is to maintain standard in upbringing a genius person, which was not maintained properly as “. … the cases studied were members of the privileged classes” (line no. 16). Therefore, the information matches with the question.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 20: Nineteenth-century studies of genius lacked both objectivity and a proper scientific approach.

Keywords for this question: Nineteenth-century studies, lacked, objectivity, proper scientific approach,    

The last sentence of paragraph no. 3 points us to the answer, “It was only with the growth of paediatrics and psychology in the twentieth century that studies could be carried out on a more objective, if still not always very scientific, basis.”

This sentence directly indicates that 19th century studies on genius could not be conducted on an objective basis and that scientific approach was not so proper.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 21: A true genius has general powers capable of excellence in any area.

Keywords for this question: true genius, general powers, excellence in any area,   

Let’s have a look at paragraph no. 4 for this question’s answer. In lines 9-10, the writer gives reference to Dr. Samuel Johnson’s observation, “ ‘The true genius is a mind of large general powers, accidentally determined to particular direction’. We may disagree with the ‘general’, for we doubt if all musicians of genius could have become scientists of genius or vice versa, …. ..”

This means a genius person does not have general powers which make him or her capable of excellence in any area; otherwise musicians could easily be become scientists. So, the information is contradictory to the question.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 22: The skills of ordinary individuals are in essence the same as the skills of prodigies.

Keywords for this question: skills, ordinary individuals, in essence, same, prodigies,   

Take a look at lines 1-2 of paragraph no. 5, “.. …the achievements of prodigies are the manifestations of skills or abilities which are similar to, but also much superior to, our own.”

Here, are similar to = the same as

Remember, the line means that the skills of ordinary people are mainly the same as the genius people, only genius people can use them in a superior way.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 23: The ease with which truly great ideas are accepted and taken for granted fails to lessen their significance.

Keywords for this question: ease, truly great ideas, accepted and taken for granted, fails, lessen, significance,   

In paragraph no. 5, in lines 4-8, the writer illustrates that “. .. .the hard-won discoveries of scientists like Kepler or Einstein become the commonplace knowledge of schoolchildren and the colours of an artist like Paul Klee so soon appear on the fabrics we wear. This does not minimise the supremacy of their achievements….”

Here, This does not = fails, lessen = minimize, commonplace knowledge = the ease,

Therefore, great ideas (hard-won discoveries) are accepted and taken for granted means that even schoolchildren can learn them. 

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 24: Giftedness and genius deserve proper scientific research into their true nature so that all talent may be retained for the human race.

Keywords for this question: Giftedness and genius, deserve, proper scientific research, true nature, all talent, retained for the human race,

In the passage we do not find any information regarding what genius really is, in order for all talent to be retained.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 25: Geniuses often pay a high price to achieve greatness.

Keywords for this question: Geniuses, often, pay, high price, achieve greatness,    

In paragraph 6, lines 7-10, the writer talks about what genius people have to go through to achieve greatness, “We may envy their achievements and fame, but we should also recognise the price they may have paid in terms of perseverance, single-mindedness, dedication, restrictions on their personal lives, the demands upon their energies and time, and how often they had to display great courage to preserve their integrity or to make their way to the top.”

This means genius people have to pay a great price to reach the top of their success.  

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 26: To be a genius is worth the high personal cost.

Keywords for this question: to be a genius, worth, high personal cost,   

In paragraph 6, the writer mentions about the high price that genius people may have paid to achieve greatness. However, we find no reference to whether all the personal costs, restrictions on their personal lives, demands on their time, dedication, energy and all other matters, are quite worthy of becoming a genius.”

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Reading Passage 3: How does the biological clock tick?

Questions 27-32 (List of headings):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph which will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence.]

Question 27: Paragraph B   

Look at lines 1-6 first, the writer talks about the ageing of ‘dead’ products/ objects and that of organisms, “Our ‘dead’ products are ‘static’, closed systems. It is always the basic material which constitutes the object and which, in the natural course of things, is worn down and becomes ‘older’. Ageing in this case must occur according to the laws for a living organism, the result of this law is not inexorable in the same way. At least as long as a biological system has the ability to renew itself it could actually become older without ageing; .. .. .”  

Therefore, it can be clearly understood that dead objects are worn down and become older; for a living organism, becoming older can happen without ageing.

So, the answer is: ix (Fundamental differences in ageing of objects and organisms)

Question 28: Paragraph C  

The answer is in the last few lines of paragraph C, “.. .. . Because of changes in the genetic material (mutations) these have new characteristics and in the course of their individual lives they are tested for optimal or better adaptation to the environmental conditions. Immortality would disturb this system – it needs room for new and better life.. … .”

 The lines suggest that changes in genetic materials characterize them with new features and these new characteristics need to be tested so that organisms can adapt to the environment. If organisms don’t die, the expectation of new and better life becomes impossible.

So, the answer is: ii (Why dying is beneficial)

Question 29: Paragraph D

The answer can be found in the first few lines, “Every organism has a life span which is highly characteristic. There are striking differences in life span between different species, but within one species the parameter is relatively constant.”

Here, constant = stable, but = despite,

So, the answer is: vii (A stable life span despite improvements)

Question 30: Paragraph E  

In paragraph E, again, the first few lines provide us with the answer, “If a life span is a genetically determined biological characteristic, it is logically necessary to propose the existence of an internal clock, which in some way measures and controls the ageing process and which finally determines death as the last step in a fixed programme.”

This is the description of the biological clock.

So, the answer is: i (The biological clock)

Question 31: Paragraph F

Paragraph F mainly deals with the effect of energy consumption by organisms and animals, “Animals which save energy… . ..  .. live much longer than those which are always active”.

We find examples of what happens to different animals like crocodiles, tortoises, and birds which do not use much energy. Then we find comparisons between women and men who use different levels of energy.

So, the answer is: viii (Energy consumption)

Question 32: Paragraph G

The first line of paragraph G gives us the answer, “It follows from the above that sparing use of energy reserves should tend to extend life.”

Here, extend = prolong,

So, the answer is: iv (Prolonging your life)

Questions 33-36: (Completing notes)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to complete different notes with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Question 33 & 34:

• Objects age in accordance with principles of 33. ________ and of 34. _________

Keywords for this question: objects, age, principles of,  

The answers lie in paragraph B. In lines 3-4, the writer talks about the ageing of objects, “. . .Ageing in this case (case of objects) must occur according to the laws of physical chemistry and thermodynamics.”

Here, the laws = principles,

So, the answers are:

• physical chemistry
• thermodynamics

Question 35: Through mutations, organisms can ________ better to the environment

Keywords for this question: through mutations, organisms, better, environment,   

In paragraph C, take a look at lines 6-8, “Because of changes in the genetic material (which means mutations) these (which means organisms) have new characteristics and in the course of their individual lives they are tested for optimal or better adaptation to the environmental conditions”.

Here, for the question, we cannot write ‘adaptation’ as our answer. The question has a modal verb ‘can’ for which our answer had to be a main verb. The verb for ‘adaptation’ is ‘adapt’.

So, the answer is: adapt

Question 36: ________ would pose a serious problem for the theory of evolution

Keywords for this question: pose a serious problem, theory of evolution,

In paragraph C, take a look at the last line: “Immortality would disturb this system – it needs room for new and better life. This is the basic problem of evolution”.

Here, disturb this system = pose a serious problem,

So, the answer is: Immortality   

Questions 37-40 (YES, NO, NOT GIVEN)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question matches the claim of the writer in the text- YES
The statement in the question contradicts the claim of the writer in the text- NO
The statement in the question has no clear connection with the account in the text- NOT GIVEN

[TIPS: For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 37: The wear and tear theory applies to both artificial objects and biological systems.

Keywords for this question: wear and tear theory, artificial objects and biological systems, 

In paragraph A line no. 3-4, the writer talks about ‘the wear and tear theory’, “. . .. products which are subjected to natural wear and tear during use.” Then, in the end of this paragraph, the writer raises a big question on whether the theory applies to both living things and artificial objects, “. . .But are the wear and tear and loss of function of technical objects and the death of living organisms really similar or comparable?”

Here, the raised question gives us the indication that the theory does not apply to both.

So, the answer is: NO

Question 38: In principle, it is possible for a biological system to become older without ageing.

Keywords for this question: principle, possible, biological system, become older without ageing,  

In paragraph B, take a look at lines 6-7, “ . . . . At least as long as a biological system has the ability to renew itself it could actually become older without ageing; … ..”

The sentence is a clear match with the question.

So, the answer is: YES

Question 39: Within seven years, about 90 per cent of a human body is replaced as new.

Keywords for this question: seven years, 90 per cent of human body, replaced as new,

In this passage, we don’t find any reference to seven years or 90 percent.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 40: Conserving energy may help to extend a human’s life.

Keywords for this question: conserving energy, extend, life,

In paragraph G, the very first lines give us the answer to this question, “It follows from the above that sparing use of energy reserves should tend to extend life.”

Here, conserving energy = sparing use of energy reserves,

The sentence is a clear match with the question. So, the answer is: YES

Reading Passage 1: Sheet glass manufacture: the float process

Questions 1-5: (Table completion):

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to complete different gaps in a table with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Here is the table with the title: Early methods of producing flat glass

Question 1 & 2:

Method: 1. _________

Advantages:

• Glass remained 2. __________

Keywords for the question: method, advantages, remained,

Tips: To answer this question, we need to have a look at the whole table first and apply a trick.

As you can see from the given picture, there are two early methods of producing float glass in this table. One is ‘Ribbon’ and we have to find the other one. You should probably know by now that most of the IELTS Reading question types follow a sequence; so we can figure out easily that the description of ‘Ribbon method’ is given in the text/passage right after the description of the method’s name we are looking for. Now, the mention of the ‘Ribbon method’ is found in the very beginning of Paragraph no. 2. So, we can safely assume that we’ll find the answer for question no. 1, 2 and 3 in paragraph no. 1.

Let’s have a look. Remember the word ‘early’ in the table? This word suggests that the methods were the first methods of producing clear flat glass. Take a look at lines 3-6 of paragraph no. 1, “. . . .The first successful method for making clear, flat glass involved spinning. This method was very effective as the glass had not touched any surfaces between being soft and becoming hard, so it stayed perfectly unblemished, with a ‘fire finish’.”

Here, The first successful method indicates that the name of the first method is spinning.

Also, stayed = remained.

So, the answers are:

1. spinning
2. (perfectly) unblemished

Question 3:
Disadvantages:

• Slow
• ____________

Keywords for the question: disadvantages, slow,

Take a look at line no. 6 of paragraph no. 1. “However, the process took a long time, and was labour intensive.”

So, here we find the disadvantages/ pitfalls/ problems related to this ‘spinning’ process. The first problem was that the process was slow (took a long time). The second problem was that it was labour intensive.

So, the answer is: labour intensive

Question 4:  

Advantages:

• Could produce glass sheets of varying ___________
• Non-stop process

Keywords for the question: Ribbon, advantages, produce glass sheets, varying, non-stop process,     

The answer is found in paragraph no. 2. In lines 2-4 the writer says, “. .. .The first continuous ribbon process involved squeezing molten glass through two hot rollers, similar to an old mangle. This allowed glass of virtually any thickness to be made non-stop. . .. .”

Here, virtually any means nearly any kind of or varying

So, the answer is: thickness

Question 5: 

Disadvantages:

• Glass was ___________
• 20% of glass rubbed away
• Machines were expensive

Keywords for the question: disadvantages, 20, rubbed away, machines, expensive,

Again, the answer is found in paragraph no. 2 in lines 4-6, “. .. . but the rollers would leave both sides of the glass marked, and these would then need to be ground and polished. This part of the process rubbed away around 20 percent of the glass, and the machines were very expensive”.

So, the answer is: marked

Questions 6-8: (Labeling a diagram)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to label a diagram with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

\

Here is the diagram with the title: Pilkington’s float process

To answer a diagram, we need to understand the concept of a diagram. In this diagram, we have to fill in the gaps for the model of Pilkington’s float process.

In paragraph no. 3 we find the explanation of ‘Pilkington’s float process’.

Let’s take a look:

“The float process for making flat glass was invented by Alistair Pilkington. This process allows the manufacture of clear, tinted and coated glass for buildings, and clear and tinted glass for vehicles. Pilkington had been experimenting with improving the melting process, and in 1952 he had the idea of using a bed of molten metal to form the flat glass, eliminating altogether the need for rollers within the float bath. The metal had to melt at a temperature less than the hardening point of glass (about 600°C), but could not boil at a temperature below the temperature of the molten glass (about 1500°C). The best metal for the job was tin.”

Then, in paragraph no. 4 we find further explanation of ‘Pilkington’s float process’ and we find all answers for the diagram in this paragraph. Take a close look at lines 2-6, “Consequently, when pouring molten glass onto the molten tin, the underside of the glass would also be perfectly flat. If the glass were kept hot enough, it would flow over the molten tin until the top surface was also flat, horizontal and perfectly parallel to the bottom surface. Once the glass cooled to 604°C or less it was too hard to mark and could be transported out of the cooling zone by rollers.

So, for question no. 6, the answer has to be glass/ molten glass. (The picture indicates that molten glass is poured on the float bath.)

Then, for question no. 7, the answer is molten metal/tin. (The picture indicates that molten glass is poured on the float bath which is made from some material that could not boil below 1500°C).

And, for question no. 8, the answer is rollers. (The picture indicates that two small wheels helps to transport the molten glass from the float bath’s melting zone to cooling zone).

So, the answers are:

• (molten) glass
• (molten) metal/tin
• rollers

Questions 9-13: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 9: The metal used in the float process had to have specific properties.

Keywords for this question: metal, float process, specific properties,  

In paragraph no. 3, in lines 5-7, the author describes the Pilkington’s float process, “The metal had to melt at a temperature less than the hardening point of glass (about 600°C), but could not boil at a temperature below the temperature of the molten glass (about 1500°C). The best metal for the job was tin.”

The lines clearly indicate that float process required a specific metal which was tin.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 10: Pilkington invested some of his own money in his float plant.

Keywords for this question: Pilkington, invested, own money, float plant,

In paragraph no. 5, the writer only mentions, “Pilkington built a pilot plant in 1953 and by 1955 he had convinced his company to build a full-scale plant.” However, there is no indication of whether he invested some of his own money on that project.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 11: Pilkington’s first full-scale plant was an instant commercial success.

Keywords for this question: first full-scale plant, instant commercial success,   

In paragraph no. 5 the author says, “Pilkington built a pilot plant in 1953 and by 1955 he had convinced his company to build a full-scale plant. However, it took 14 months of non-stop production, costing the company £100,000 a month, before the plant produced any usable glass. Furthermore, once they succeeded in making marketable flat glass, the machine was turned off for a service to prepare it for years of continuous production. When it started up again it took another four months to get the process right again. They finally succeeded in 1959. …”

So, the plant was built in 1953 but it became successful in 1959, after 6 years. Therefore, it was not an instant or immediate success.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 12: The process invented by Pilkington has now been improved.

Keywords for this question: process, invented by Pilkington, improved,   

For this question, you need to compare the original Pilkington process which is explained in paragraph no. 3 and 4 with the modern Pilkington process which is explained in paragraph no. 6. You’ll find a number of improvements in the modern Pilkington process including refining, homogenizing, continuous melting process etc.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 13: Computers are better than humans at detecting faults in glass.

Keywords for this question: Computers, better, humans, detecting, faults in glass,    

The last few lines of paragraph no. 7 gives us the answer, “Inspection technology allows more than 100 million measurements a second to be made across the ribbon, locating flaws the unaided eye would be unable to see. Secondly, it enables computers downstream to steer cutters around flaws.”

This means computers can detect such faults in glass that naked eyes of human cannot detect.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Reading Passage 2: The Little Ice Age

Questions 14-17 (List of headings):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc.). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph which will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence. ]

Question 14: Paragraph B

In paragraph B, in lines 3-5, the writer says, “The climate events of the Little Ice Age did more than help shape the modern world. They are the deeply important context for the current unprecedented global warming”.

The lines suggest that the climate events of the Little Ice Age are very important or relevant for the modern world / current state of global warming.

So, the answer is: ii (The relevance of the Little Ice Age today)

Question 15: Paragraph D

Take a look at the first sentence of paragraph D is: “This book is a narrative history of climate shifts during the past ten centuries.”

Here, ten centuries means a thousand years, narrative history means study,

So, the answer is: vii (A study covering a thousand years)

Question 16: Paragraph E   

Take a look at the last sentence of paragraph E states: “The increased productivity from farmland made some countries self-sufficient in grain and livestock and offered effective protection against famine”.

The lines clearly indicate that some countries now have enough food to tackle famine, thanks to the productivity from farmland.

Here, self-sufficient = adequate to survive from their own resources, grain and livestock = foods and animals such as cows, sheep, horse, buffalos, buffalos, goats, etc. 

So, the answer is: ix (Enough food at last)

Question 17: Paragraph F

In general, paragraph F deals with how present human civilization is responsible for different types of problems that have affected our climate. For instance, we can find the reference of the famine caused by the Irish potato blight (lines 2-4), deforestation because of intensive farming (lines 4-5), and the rise in temperature because of excessive use of fossil fuel (lines 9-10).

All these activities are done by humans and it has affected the climate seriously.

So, the answer is: iv (Human impact on the climate)

Questions 18-22 (Completing summary with list of words)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to complete a summary with list of words taken from the passage. Candidates must write the correct letter (not the words) as the answers. Keywords and synonyms are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Title of the summary: Weather during the Little Ice Age

Questions 18 and 19: Documentation of past weather conditions is limited: our main sources of knowledge of conditions in the distant past are 18. ________ and 19. _________.

Keywords for this question: documentation, past weather conditions, limited, main source of knowledge,

In paragraph C the writer talks about how limited the documentation of the past weather is.

In lines 1-2 the writer says, “Reconstructing the climate changes of the past is extremely difficult, because systematic weather observations began only a few centuries ago. . . .”

Then, in lines 4-5, the writer says, “For the time before records began, we have only ‘proxy records’ reconstructed largely from tree rings and ice cores, . … ..”

Here, For the time before records began = distant past,

So, the answers are: (in either order)

C (tree rings)

B (ice cores)

Question 20: We can deduce that the Little Ice Age was a time of ________, rather than of consistent freezing.

Keywords for this question: Little Ice Age, time of, rather than, consistent freezing,  

For this question, we need to go back a little bit to paragraph B first, in lines 6-7. Here, the author says, “. . . The little Ice Age was far from a deep freeze, however; rather an irregular seesaw of rapid climatic shifts, few lasting more than a quarter-century, . . ..”.

Now, in paragraph C, the writer says in the first line, “This book is a narrative history of climatic shifts during the past ten centuries, . . . .”

Here, far from a deep freeze = rather than of consistent freezing

So, the book shows that The Little Ice Age was, in fact, a time of climatic shifts.

So, the answer is: A (climatic shifts)

Questions 21 & 22: Within it there were some periods of very cold winters, others of 21. _________ and heavy rain, and yet others that saw 22. _________ with no rain at all.

Keywords for this question: some periods, very cold winters, others of, heavy rain,  

As paragraph B (lines 6-7) gave us the answer for question no. 20, we need look for the answer of this question in paragraph B. In lines 9-13, “The seesaw brought cycles of intensely cold winters and easterly winds; then switched abruptly to years of heavy spring and early summer rains, mild winters, and frequent Atlantic storms, or to periods of droughts, light northeasterly winds, and summer heat waves.”

So, the answers are:

• H (storms)
• G (heat waves)

Questions 23-26 (Classifying events to periods)

[In this kind of questions, candidates are asked to classify different events to their occurring periods and write the correct letters corresponding to the answers.]

Question 23: Many Europeans started farming abroad.

Keywords for this question: Many Europeans, farming, abroad,  

In paragraph F The author explains in the very beginning, “Global temperature began to rise slowly after 1850, with the beginning of the Modern Warm Period. There was a vast migration from Europe by land-hungry farmers and others, to which the famine caused by the Irish potato blight contributed. . .. .” 

Here, a vast migration from Europe by land-hungry farmers and others = Europeans started farming abroad,

So, the answer is: C (Modern Warm Period)

Question 24: The cutting down of trees began to affect the climate.

Keywords for this question: cutting down of trees, affect the climate,  

In paragraph F, the writer explains in lines 5-7, “. . . Millions of hectares of forest and woodland fell before the newcomers’ axes between 1850 and 1890, as intensive European farming methods expanded across the world. The unprecedented land clearance released vast quantities of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, triggering for the first time humanly caused global warming.”

Here, Millions of hectares of forest and woodland fell and unprecedented land clearance = the cutting down of trees,

So, the answer is: C (Modern Warm Period)

Question 25: Europeans discovered other lands.

Keywords for this question: Europeans, discovered, other lands, 

In paragraph D, the author says in lines 2-5, “.. .. . Part one describes the Medieval Warm Period, roughly 900 to 1200. During these three centuries, Norse voyagers from Northern Europe explored northern seas, settled Greenland, and visited North America.”

So, the answer is: A (Medieval Warm Period)

Question 26: Changes took place in fishing patterns.

Keywords for this question: Changes, fishing patterns, 

Have a careful look at lines 9-12 of paragraph E, which talks about the Little Ice Age, “Dried cod and herring were already staples of the European fish trade, but changes in water temperature forced fishing fleets to work further offshore. The Basques, Dutch and English developed the first offshore fishing boats adapted to a colder and stormier Atlantic…”

This means the boats were redesigned for the change in fishing practice in the Atlantic.

So, the answer is: B (Little Ice Age)

Reading Passage 3: The meaning and power of smell

Questions 27-32 (List of headings):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph which will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence. ]

Question 27: Paragraph A   

The third and last lines of paragraph A give us the answer,

Third line: “… It became apparent that smell can evoke strong emotional responses.”

Last lines: “. . . The perception of smell, therefore, consists not only of the sensation of the odours themselves, but of the experiences and emotions associated with them”.

Here, strong emotional responses and experiences and emotions = feelings, associated with them = relationship,

So, the answer is: viii (The relationship between smell and feelings)

Question 28: Paragraph B  

Take a look at lines no. 1-4, “Odours are also essential cues in social bonding. One respondent to the survey believed that there is no true emotional bonding without touching and smelling a loved one. In fact, infants recognise the odours of their mothers soon after birth and adults can often identify their children or spouses by scent.. . .. .. . .”

Here, infants recognise the odours of their mothers soon after birth = personal relationship

So, the answer is: ii (The role of smell in personal relationship)

Question 29: Paragraph C

The first few lines give us the answer, “In spite of its importance to our emotional and sensory lives, smell is probably the most undervalued sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the low regard in which smell is held is that, in comparison with its importance among animals, the human sense of smell is feeble and undeveloped.”

Here, smell is probably the most undervalued sense = sense of smell is not appreciated

So, the answer is: vi (Why our sense of smell is not appreciated)

Question 30: Paragraph D  

In paragraph D, again, the first few lines provide us with the answer, “Odours, unlike colours, for instance, cannot be named in many languages because the specific vocabulary simply doesn’t exist.”

The lines suggest that there are difficulties to describe smell verbally.

Here, the specific vocabulary simply doesn’t exist = difficulties of talking about smells

So, the answer is: i (The difficulties of talking about smells)

Question 31: Paragraph E

Lines 3-5 of paragraph E give a hint to our answer, “ . . . .. but many fundamental questions have yet to be answered. Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense or two – one responding to odours proper and the other registering odourless chemicals in the air.”

Here, Researchers have still to decide = Future studies

So, the answer is: iii (Future studies into smell)

Question 32: Paragraph F

In paragraph F, we can find out that the author provides a link between cultures and smell in lines 8-9, “Importantly,  our commonly held feelings about smells can help distinguish us from other cultures”.

This line suggests that smell or odour can be exercised as a factor to define one person/culture from another.

Here, define = distinguish, groups = other cultures,

So, the answer is: v (The interpretation of smells as a factor in defining groups)

Questions 33-36: Multiple-choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers for previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

Question 33: According to the introduction, we become aware of the importance of smell when –

Keywords for this question: introduction, aware, importance of smell, when,

The last lines of the introduction give us the answer for this question, “It is only when the faculty of smell is impaired for some reason that we begin to realise the essential role the sense of smell plays in our sense of well-being.”

This means we become aware of the importance of smell when this faculty is impaired or damaged.

So, the answer is: C (our ability to smell is damaged)

Question 34: The experiment described in paragraph B –

Keywords for this question: experiment, paragraph B, 

Read the last half part of paragraph B, “ . .. In one well-known test, women and men were able to distinguish by smell alone clothing worn by their marriage partners from similar clothing worn by other people. Most of the subjects would probably never have given much thought to odour as a cue for identifying family members before being involved in the test, but as the experiment revealed, even when not consciously considered, smells register.”

This means the experiment shows how our sense of smell is in use even though we don’t realise it.

So, the answer is: A (shows how we make use of smell without realising it)

Question 35: What is the writer doing in paragraph C?

Keywords for this question: writer doing, paragraph C, 

The common belief is given in lines 1-4, “.. . .. . smell is probably the most undervalued sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the low regard in which smell is held is that, in comparison with its importance among animals, the human sense of smell is feeble and undeveloped.” This means smell is extremely undervalued.

Then, in the next few lines, “.. . .. While it is true that the olfactory powers of humans are nothing like as fine as those possessed by certain animals, they are still remarkably acute. Our noses are able to recognise thousands of smells, and to perceive odours which are present only in extremely small quantities.” Here, the writer discards the common belief about the undervalued sense of smell.  

So, the answer is: C (rejecting a common belief)

Question 36: What does the writer suggest about the study of smell in the atmosphere in paragraph E?

Keywords for this question: writer suggest, study of smell, atmosphere, paragraph E,

In lines 3-4, we have our answer for this question, “ . . . but many fundamental questions have yet to be answered. Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense or two – . . ..”

This means the definition of smell is yet to come to light.

So, the answer is: D (Smell is yet to be defined)  

Questions 37-40 (Completing sentences with ONE WORD ONLY)

[For this type of question, candidates need to complete the sentences with ONE WORD ONLY from the passage. Candidates need to look for keywords in the sentence-beginnings and find the relative paragraphs and then sentences in the passage. Skimming and scanning, both reading skills are essential for this question type.]

Question 37: Tests have shown that odours can help people recognise the _______ belonging to their husbands and wives.

Keywords for this question: can help, recognise, belonging to, husbands and wives, 

In paragraph B, take a look at lines, “In one well-known test, women and men were able to distinguish by smell alone clothing worn by their marriage partners from similar clothing worn by other people”. This means that the special smell in clothing worn by husbands or wives can be used to recognize their marriage partners.

Here, odours = smell, recognize = distinguish, their husbands and wives = their marriage partners,

So, the answer is: clothing  

Question 38: Certain linguistic groups may have difficulty describing smell because they lack the appropriate __________.

Keywords for this question: Certain linguistic groups, have difficulty, describing smell, lack, appropriate,  

In paragraph D, lines 1-4 say, “Odours, unlike colors, for instance, cannot be named in many languages because the specific vocabulary simply does not exist. “It smells like . . .” we have to say when describing an odour, struggling to express our olfactory experience”.

The lines suggest that it is quite hard for people to talk about smells because of the lack of specific vocabulary in their languages.

Here, linguistic groups = languages, lack = does not exist,

So, the answer is: vocabulary  

Question 39: The sense of smell may involve response to _________ which do not smell, in addition to obvious odours.

Keywords for this question: sense of smell, involve, and do not smell,

Take a look at paragraph E. In lines 4-5 the writer says, “Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense or two  – one responding to odours proper and the other registering odourless chemicals in the air.”

Therefore, it can be understood that chemicals are the things which do not smell in the air.

Here, do not smell = odourless,

So, the answer is: chemicals

Question 40: Odours regarded as unpleasant in certain ________ are not regarded as unpleasant in others.

Keywords for this question: unpleasant, regarded as, not unpleasant in others,

In paragraph F, read the following lines, “Odours are invested with cultural values: smells that are considered to be offensive in some cultures may be perfectly acceptable in others”.

The lines suggest that certain smells may be acceptable in some cultures, but in other cultures they are not acceptable.

Here, unpleasant = offensive, regarded as = considered, not unpleasant = acceptable,

So, the answer is: cultures

Reading Passage 1: Sheet glass manufacture: the float process

Questions 1-5: (Table completion):

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to complete different gaps in a table with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Here is the table with the title: Early methods of producing flat glass

Question 1 & 2:

Method: 1. _________

Advantages:

• Glass remained 2. __________

Keywords for the question: method, advantages, remained,

Tips: To answer this question, we need to have a look at the whole table first and apply a trick.

As you can see from the given picture, there are two early methods of producing float glass in this table. One is ‘Ribbon’ and we have to find the other one. You should probably know by now that most of the IELTS Reading question types follow a sequence; so we can figure out easily that the description of ‘Ribbon method’ is given in the text/passage right after the description of the method’s name we are looking for. Now, the mention of the ‘Ribbon method’ is found in the very beginning of Paragraph no. 2. So, we can safely assume that we’ll find the answer for question no. 1, 2 and 3 in paragraph no. 1.

Let’s have a look. Remember the word ‘early’ in the table? This word suggests that the methods were the first methods of producing clear flat glass. Take a look at lines 3-6 of paragraph no. 1, “. . . .The first successful method for making clear, flat glass involved spinning. This method was very effective as the glass had not touched any surfaces between being soft and becoming hard, so it stayed perfectly unblemished, with a ‘fire finish’.”

Here, The first successful method indicates that the name of the first method is spinning.

Also, stayed = remained.

So, the answers are:

1. spinning
2. (perfectly) unblemished

Question 3:
Disadvantages:

• Slow
• ____________

Keywords for the question: disadvantages, slow,

Take a look at line no. 6 of paragraph no. 1. “However, the process took a long time, and was labour intensive.”

So, here we find the disadvantages/ pitfalls/ problems related to this ‘spinning’ process. The first problem was that the process was slow (took a long time). The second problem was that it was labour intensive.

So, the answer is: labour intensive

Question 4:  

Advantages:

• Could produce glass sheets of varying ___________
• Non-stop process

Keywords for the question: Ribbon, advantages, produce glass sheets, varying, non-stop process,     

The answer is found in paragraph no. 2. In lines 2-4 the writer says, “. .. .The first continuous ribbon process involved squeezing molten glass through two hot rollers, similar to an old mangle. This allowed glass of virtually any thickness to be made non-stop. . .. .”

Here, virtually any means nearly any kind of or varying

So, the answer is: thickness

Question 5: 

Disadvantages:

• Glass was ___________
• 20% of glass rubbed away
• Machines were expensive

Keywords for the question: disadvantages, 20, rubbed away, machines, expensive,

Again, the answer is found in paragraph no. 2 in lines 4-6, “. .. . but the rollers would leave both sides of the glass marked, and these would then need to be ground and polished. This part of the process rubbed away around 20 percent of the glass, and the machines were very expensive”.

So, the answer is: marked

Questions 6-8: (Labeling a diagram)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to label a diagram with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

\

Here is the diagram with the title: Pilkington’s float process

To answer a diagram, we need to understand the concept of a diagram. In this diagram, we have to fill in the gaps for the model of Pilkington’s float process.

In paragraph no. 3 we find the explanation of ‘Pilkington’s float process’.

Let’s take a look:

“The float process for making flat glass was invented by Alistair Pilkington. This process allows the manufacture of clear, tinted and coated glass for buildings, and clear and tinted glass for vehicles. Pilkington had been experimenting with improving the melting process, and in 1952 he had the idea of using a bed of molten metal to form the flat glass, eliminating altogether the need for rollers within the float bath. The metal had to melt at a temperature less than the hardening point of glass (about 600°C), but could not boil at a temperature below the temperature of the molten glass (about 1500°C). The best metal for the job was tin.”

Then, in paragraph no. 4 we find further explanation of ‘Pilkington’s float process’ and we find all answers for the diagram in this paragraph. Take a close look at lines 2-6, “Consequently, when pouring molten glass onto the molten tin, the underside of the glass would also be perfectly flat. If the glass were kept hot enough, it would flow over the molten tin until the top surface was also flat, horizontal and perfectly parallel to the bottom surface. Once the glass cooled to 604°C or less it was too hard to mark and could be transported out of the cooling zone by rollers.

So, for question no. 6, the answer has to be glass/ molten glass. (The picture indicates that molten glass is poured on the float bath.)

Then, for question no. 7, the answer is molten metal/tin. (The picture indicates that molten glass is poured on the float bath which is made from some material that could not boil below 1500°C).

And, for question no. 8, the answer is rollers. (The picture indicates that two small wheels helps to transport the molten glass from the float bath’s melting zone to cooling zone).

So, the answers are:

• (molten) glass
• (molten) metal/tin
• rollers

Questions 9-13: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSE
If there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 9: The metal used in the float process had to have specific properties.

Keywords for this question: metal, float process, specific properties,  

In paragraph no. 3, in lines 5-7, the author describes the Pilkington’s float process, “The metal had to melt at a temperature less than the hardening point of glass (about 600°C), but could not boil at a temperature below the temperature of the molten glass (about 1500°C). The best metal for the job was tin.”

The lines clearly indicate that float process required a specific metal which was tin.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 10: Pilkington invested some of his own money in his float plant.

Keywords for this question: Pilkington, invested, own money, float plant,

In paragraph no. 5, the writer only mentions, “Pilkington built a pilot plant in 1953 and by 1955 he had convinced his company to build a full-scale plant.” However, there is no indication of whether he invested some of his own money on that project.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 11: Pilkington’s first full-scale plant was an instant commercial success.

Keywords for this question: first full-scale plant, instant commercial success,   

In paragraph no. 5 the author says, “Pilkington built a pilot plant in 1953 and by 1955 he had convinced his company to build a full-scale plant. However, it took 14 months of non-stop production, costing the company £100,000 a month, before the plant produced any usable glass. Furthermore, once they succeeded in making marketable flat glass, the machine was turned off for a service to prepare it for years of continuous production. When it started up again it took another four months to get the process right again. They finally succeeded in 1959. …”

So, the plant was built in 1953 but it became successful in 1959, after 6 years. Therefore, it was not an instant or immediate success.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 12: The process invented by Pilkington has now been improved.

Keywords for this question: process, invented by Pilkington, improved,   

For this question, you need to compare the original Pilkington process which is explained in paragraph no. 3 and 4 with the modern Pilkington process which is explained in paragraph no. 6. You’ll find a number of improvements in the modern Pilkington process including refining, homogenizing, continuous melting process etc.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 13: Computers are better than humans at detecting faults in glass.

Keywords for this question: Computers, better, humans, detecting, faults in glass,    

The last few lines of paragraph no. 7 gives us the answer, “Inspection technology allows more than 100 million measurements a second to be made across the ribbon, locating flaws the unaided eye would be unable to see. Secondly, it enables computers downstream to steer cutters around flaws.”

This means computers can detect such faults in glass that naked eyes of human cannot detect.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Reading Passage 2: The Little Ice Age

Questions 14-17 (List of headings):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc.). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph which will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence. ]

Question 14: Paragraph B

In paragraph B, in lines 3-5, the writer says, “The climate events of the Little Ice Age did more than help shape the modern world. They are the deeply important context for the current unprecedented global warming”.

The lines suggest that the climate events of the Little Ice Age are very important or relevant for the modern world / current state of global warming.

So, the answer is: ii (The relevance of the Little Ice Age today)

Question 15: Paragraph D

Take a look at the first sentence of paragraph D is: “This book is a narrative history of climate shifts during the past ten centuries.”

Here, ten centuries means a thousand years, narrative history means study,

So, the answer is: vii (A study covering a thousand years)

Question 16: Paragraph E   

Take a look at the last sentence of paragraph E states: “The increased productivity from farmland made some countries self-sufficient in grain and livestock and offered effective protection against famine”.

The lines clearly indicate that some countries now have enough food to tackle famine, thanks to the productivity from farmland.

Here, self-sufficient = adequate to survive from their own resources, grain and livestock = foods and animals such as cows, sheep, horse, buffalos, buffalos, goats, etc. 

So, the answer is: ix (Enough food at last)

Question 17: Paragraph F

In general, paragraph F deals with how present human civilization is responsible for different types of problems that have affected our climate. For instance, we can find the reference of the famine caused by the Irish potato blight (lines 2-4), deforestation because of intensive farming (lines 4-5), and the rise in temperature because of excessive use of fossil fuel (lines 9-10).

All these activities are done by humans and it has affected the climate seriously.

So, the answer is: iv (Human impact on the climate)

Questions 18-22 (Completing summary with list of words)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to complete a summary with list of words taken from the passage. Candidates must write the correct letter (not the words) as the answers. Keywords and synonyms are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Title of the summary: Weather during the Little Ice Age

Questions 18 and 19: Documentation of past weather conditions is limited: our main sources of knowledge of conditions in the distant past are 18. ________ and 19. _________.

Keywords for this question: documentation, past weather conditions, limited, main source of knowledge,

In paragraph C the writer talks about how limited the documentation of the past weather is.

In lines 1-2 the writer says, “Reconstructing the climate changes of the past is extremely difficult, because systematic weather observations began only a few centuries ago. . . .”

Then, in lines 4-5, the writer says, “For the time before records began, we have only ‘proxy records’ reconstructed largely from tree rings and ice cores, . … ..”

Here, For the time before records began = distant past,

So, the answers are: (in either order)

C (tree rings)

B (ice cores)

Question 20: We can deduce that the Little Ice Age was a time of ________, rather than of consistent freezing.

Keywords for this question: Little Ice Age, time of, rather than, consistent freezing,  

For this question, we need to go back a little bit to paragraph B first, in lines 6-7. Here, the author says, “. . . The little Ice Age was far from a deep freeze, however; rather an irregular seesaw of rapid climatic shifts, few lasting more than a quarter-century, . . ..”.

Now, in paragraph C, the writer says in the first line, “This book is a narrative history of climatic shifts during the past ten centuries, . . . .”

Here, far from a deep freeze = rather than of consistent freezing

So, the book shows that The Little Ice Age was, in fact, a time of climatic shifts.

So, the answer is: A (climatic shifts)

Questions 21 & 22: Within it there were some periods of very cold winters, others of 21. _________ and heavy rain, and yet others that saw 22. _________ with no rain at all.

Keywords for this question: some periods, very cold winters, others of, heavy rain,  

As paragraph B (lines 6-7) gave us the answer for question no. 20, we need look for the answer of this question in paragraph B. In lines 9-13, “The seesaw brought cycles of intensely cold winters and easterly winds; then switched abruptly to years of heavy spring and early summer rains, mild winters, and frequent Atlantic storms, or to periods of droughts, light northeasterly winds, and summer heat waves.”

So, the answers are:

• H (storms)
• G (heat waves)

Questions 23-26 (Classifying events to periods)

[In this kind of questions, candidates are asked to classify different events to their occurring periods and write the correct letters corresponding to the answers.]

Question 23: Many Europeans started farming abroad.

Keywords for this question: Many Europeans, farming, abroad,  

In paragraph F The author explains in the very beginning, “Global temperature began to rise slowly after 1850, with the beginning of the Modern Warm Period. There was a vast migration from Europe by land-hungry farmers and others, to which the famine caused by the Irish potato blight contributed. . .. .” 

Here, a vast migration from Europe by land-hungry farmers and others = Europeans started farming abroad,

So, the answer is: C (Modern Warm Period)

Question 24: The cutting down of trees began to affect the climate.

Keywords for this question: cutting down of trees, affect the climate,  

In paragraph F, the writer explains in lines 5-7, “. . . Millions of hectares of forest and woodland fell before the newcomers’ axes between 1850 and 1890, as intensive European farming methods expanded across the world. The unprecedented land clearance released vast quantities of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, triggering for the first time humanly caused global warming.”

Here, Millions of hectares of forest and woodland fell and unprecedented land clearance = the cutting down of trees,

So, the answer is: C (Modern Warm Period)

Question 25: Europeans discovered other lands.

Keywords for this question: Europeans, discovered, other lands, 

In paragraph D, the author says in lines 2-5, “.. .. . Part one describes the Medieval Warm Period, roughly 900 to 1200. During these three centuries, Norse voyagers from Northern Europe explored northern seas, settled Greenland, and visited North America.”

So, the answer is: A (Medieval Warm Period)

Question 26: Changes took place in fishing patterns.

Keywords for this question: Changes, fishing patterns, 

Have a careful look at lines 9-12 of paragraph E, which talks about the Little Ice Age, “Dried cod and herring were already staples of the European fish trade, but changes in water temperature forced fishing fleets to work further offshore. The Basques, Dutch and English developed the first offshore fishing boats adapted to a colder and stormier Atlantic…”

This means the boats were redesigned for the change in fishing practice in the Atlantic.

So, the answer is: B (Little Ice Age)

Reading Passage 3: The meaning and power of smell

Questions 27-32 (List of headings):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph which will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence. ]

Question 27: Paragraph A   

The third and last lines of paragraph A give us the answer,

Third line: “… It became apparent that smell can evoke strong emotional responses.”

Last lines: “. . . The perception of smell, therefore, consists not only of the sensation of the odours themselves, but of the experiences and emotions associated with them”.

Here, strong emotional responses and experiences and emotions = feelings, associated with them = relationship,

So, the answer is: viii (The relationship between smell and feelings)

Question 28: Paragraph B  

Take a look at lines no. 1-4, “Odours are also essential cues in social bonding. One respondent to the survey believed that there is no true emotional bonding without touching and smelling a loved one. In fact, infants recognise the odours of their mothers soon after birth and adults can often identify their children or spouses by scent.. . .. .. . .”

Here, infants recognise the odours of their mothers soon after birth = personal relationship

So, the answer is: ii (The role of smell in personal relationship)

Question 29: Paragraph C

The first few lines give us the answer, “In spite of its importance to our emotional and sensory lives, smell is probably the most undervalued sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the low regard in which smell is held is that, in comparison with its importance among animals, the human sense of smell is feeble and undeveloped.”

Here, smell is probably the most undervalued sense = sense of smell is not appreciated

So, the answer is: vi (Why our sense of smell is not appreciated)

Question 30: Paragraph D  

In paragraph D, again, the first few lines provide us with the answer, “Odours, unlike colours, for instance, cannot be named in many languages because the specific vocabulary simply doesn’t exist.”

The lines suggest that there are difficulties to describe smell verbally.

Here, the specific vocabulary simply doesn’t exist = difficulties of talking about smells

So, the answer is: i (The difficulties of talking about smells)

Question 31: Paragraph E

Lines 3-5 of paragraph E give a hint to our answer, “ . . . .. but many fundamental questions have yet to be answered. Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense or two – one responding to odours proper and the other registering odourless chemicals in the air.”

Here, Researchers have still to decide = Future studies

So, the answer is: iii (Future studies into smell)

Question 32: Paragraph F

In paragraph F, we can find out that the author provides a link between cultures and smell in lines 8-9, “Importantly,  our commonly held feelings about smells can help distinguish us from other cultures”.

This line suggests that smell or odour can be exercised as a factor to define one person/culture from another.

Here, define = distinguish, groups = other cultures,

So, the answer is: v (The interpretation of smells as a factor in defining groups)

Questions 33-36: Multiple-choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers for previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

Question 33: According to the introduction, we become aware of the importance of smell when –

Keywords for this question: introduction, aware, importance of smell, when,

The last lines of the introduction give us the answer for this question, “It is only when the faculty of smell is impaired for some reason that we begin to realise the essential role the sense of smell plays in our sense of well-being.”

This means we become aware of the importance of smell when this faculty is impaired or damaged.

So, the answer is: C (our ability to smell is damaged)

Question 34: The experiment described in paragraph B –

Keywords for this question: experiment, paragraph B, 

Read the last half part of paragraph B, “ . .. In one well-known test, women and men were able to distinguish by smell alone clothing worn by their marriage partners from similar clothing worn by other people. Most of the subjects would probably never have given much thought to odour as a cue for identifying family members before being involved in the test, but as the experiment revealed, even when not consciously considered, smells register.”

This means the experiment shows how our sense of smell is in use even though we don’t realise it.

So, the answer is: A (shows how we make use of smell without realising it)

Question 35: What is the writer doing in paragraph C?

Keywords for this question: writer doing, paragraph C, 

The common belief is given in lines 1-4, “.. . .. . smell is probably the most undervalued sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the low regard in which smell is held is that, in comparison with its importance among animals, the human sense of smell is feeble and undeveloped.” This means smell is extremely undervalued.

Then, in the next few lines, “.. . .. While it is true that the olfactory powers of humans are nothing like as fine as those possessed by certain animals, they are still remarkably acute. Our noses are able to recognise thousands of smells, and to perceive odours which are present only in extremely small quantities.” Here, the writer discards the common belief about the undervalued sense of smell.  

So, the answer is: C (rejecting a common belief)

Question 36: What does the writer suggest about the study of smell in the atmosphere in paragraph E?

Keywords for this question: writer suggest, study of smell, atmosphere, paragraph E,

In lines 3-4, we have our answer for this question, “ . . . but many fundamental questions have yet to be answered. Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense or two – . . ..”

This means the definition of smell is yet to come to light.

So, the answer is: D (Smell is yet to be defined)  

Questions 37-40 (Completing sentences with ONE WORD ONLY)

[For this type of question, candidates need to complete the sentences with ONE WORD ONLY from the passage. Candidates need to look for keywords in the sentence-beginnings and find the relative paragraphs and then sentences in the passage. Skimming and scanning, both reading skills are essential for this question type.]

Question 37: Tests have shown that odours can help people recognise the _______ belonging to their husbands and wives.

Keywords for this question: can help, recognise, belonging to, husbands and wives, 

In paragraph B, take a look at lines, “In one well-known test, women and men were able to distinguish by smell alone clothing worn by their marriage partners from similar clothing worn by other people”. This means that the special smell in clothing worn by husbands or wives can be used to recognize their marriage partners.

Here, odours = smell, recognize = distinguish, their husbands and wives = their marriage partners,

So, the answer is: clothing  

Question 38: Certain linguistic groups may have difficulty describing smell because they lack the appropriate __________.

Keywords for this question: Certain linguistic groups, have difficulty, describing smell, lack, appropriate,  

In paragraph D, lines 1-4 say, “Odours, unlike colors, for instance, cannot be named in many languages because the specific vocabulary simply does not exist. “It smells like . . .” we have to say when describing an odour, struggling to express our olfactory experience”.

The lines suggest that it is quite hard for people to talk about smells because of the lack of specific vocabulary in their languages.

Here, linguistic groups = languages, lack = does not exist,

So, the answer is: vocabulary  

Question 39: The sense of smell may involve response to _________ which do not smell, in addition to obvious odours.

Keywords for this question: sense of smell, involve, and do not smell,

Take a look at paragraph E. In lines 4-5 the writer says, “Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense or two  – one responding to odours proper and the other registering odourless chemicals in the air.”

Therefore, it can be understood that chemicals are the things which do not smell in the air.

Here, do not smell = odourless,

So, the answer is: chemicals

Question 40: Odours regarded as unpleasant in certain ________ are not regarded as unpleasant in others.

Keywords for this question: unpleasant, regarded as, not unpleasant in others,

In paragraph F, read the following lines, “Odours are invested with cultural values: smells that are considered to be offensive in some cultures may be perfectly acceptable in others”.

The lines suggest that certain smells may be acceptable in some cultures, but in other cultures they are not acceptable.

Here, unpleasant = offensive, regarded as = considered, not unpleasant = acceptable,

So, the answer is: cultures

Reading Passage 1: A Chronicle of Timekeeping

Questions 1-4: (Identifying information):

[This question asks you to find information from the passage and write the number of the paragraph (A, B, C or D … .. ) in the answer sheet. Now, if the question is given in the very first part of the question set, I’d request you not to answer them. It’s mainly because this question will not follow any sequence, and so it will surely kill your time. Rather, you should answer all the other questions first. And just like List of Headings, only read the first two lines or last two lines of the expected paragraph initially. If you find the answers, you need not read the middle part. If you don’t find answers yet, you can skim the middle part of the paragraph. Keywords will be a useful matter here.]

Question 1: a description of an early timekeeping invention affected by cold temperatures

Keywords for the question: early, timekeeping, affected by, cold temperatures,

In paragraph D, the author says in lines 3-7, “One of the first water clocks was a basin. . .. .. . Although these devices performed satisfactorily around the Mediterranean; they could not always be depended on in the cloudy and freezing weather of northern Europe.”

Here, early means one of the first, cold means freezing,

So, the answer is: D

Question 2: an explanation of the importance of geography in the development of the calendar in farming communities

Keywords for the question: importance of geography, development, calendar, farming communities

In paragraph B, the author mentions, “Before the invention of artificial light, the moon had greater social impact. And, for those living near the equator in particular, its waxing and waning was more conspicuous than the passing of the seasons. Hence, the calendars that were developed at the lower latitudes were influenced more by the lunar cycle than by the solar year. In more northern climes, however, where seasonal agriculture was practised, the solar year became more crucial.”

Here, the moon had greater social impact means the importance of geography, agriculture means farming,

So, the answer is: B

Question 3:  a description of the origins of the pendulum clock

Keywords for the question: origins, pendulum clock,   

We have to skim paragraphs for ‘pendulum clock’. In paragraph F we find the mention of ‘pendulum clock’. In this paragraph, the author says in lines 7-8, “By the 16th century, a pendulum clock had been devised, but the pendulum swung in a large arc and thus was not very efficient.”

The lines suggest that ‘pendulum clock’ originated (devised) in the 16th century.

So, the answer is: F    

Question 4:  details of the simultaneous efforts of different societies to calculate time using uniform hours

Keywords for the question: simultaneous efforts, different societies, calculate time, uniform hours,    

In paragraph E, the writer indicates in lines 3-7, “…. in the early14th century, a number of systems evolved.  The schemes that divided the day into 24 equal parts varied according to the start of the count: Italian hours began at sunset, Babylonian hours at sunrise, astronomical hours at midday and ‘great clock’ hours, used for some large public clocks in Germany, at midnight. Eventually these were superseded by ‘small clock’, or French, hours, which split the day into two 12-hour periods commencing at midnight.”

Here, these efforts all occurred at around the same time means simultaneously, based on 24 equal parts means uniform hours, in different countries means different societies,

So, the answer is: E

Questions 5-8: (Matching statements with correct nationality):

(The rules for finding answers to this sort of question are simple. Just find the keywords and read around different nationalities carefully. Then, give a quick look to check whether there is another statement or idea provided by the same nationality in the text. If there is, check the reference carefully and decide your answer. Remember, the questions may not follow any sequential order. )

Question 5: They devised a civil calendar in which the months were equal in length.

Keywords for the question: civil calendar, months, equal in length,

In paragraph C, the writer describes in the beginning, “Centuries before the Roman Empire, the Egyptians had formulated a municipal calendar having 12 months of 30 days, with five days added to approximate the solar year.”

Here, devised means formulated, civil means municipal, the months were equal in length means 12 months of 30 days,

This means the Egyptians devised a civil calendar in which the months were equal.

So, the answer is: B (Egyptians)

Question 6:  They divided the day into two equal halves.

Keywords for the question: divided, two equal halves,    

In paragraph E, the writer indicates in the last lines, “Eventually, these were superseded by ‘small clock’, or French, hours, which split the day into two 12-hour periods commencing at midnight.”

Here, divided means split, two equal halves means two 12-hour periods,

So, it was the French, who divided the day into 12-hour periods.

So, the answer is: F (French)

Question 7:  They developed a new cabinet shape for a type of timekeeper.

Keywords for the question: new, cabinet shape, timekeeper,

In paragraph G, the writer explains that the anchor escapement was invented in England in 1670 allowed the pendulum to travel in a very small arc. “. . . . It was called the anchor escapement, which was lever-based device shaped like a ship’s anchor.” “…. and thus led to the development of a new floor-standing case design, which became known as the grandfather clock.”

Here, new floor-standing case design means cabinet shape,

So, it was the English who designed this cabinet shape for this kind of timekeeper.

So, the answer is: D (English)

Question 8: They created a calendar to organize public events and work schedules.

Keywords for the question: calendar, organize public events, work schedules,

In the first paragraph, in lines 2-3, the author says, “ .. . … the Babylonians began to measure time, introducing calendars to co-ordinate communal activities, to plan the shipment of goods and, in particular, to regulate planting and harvesting.”

Here, organize public events means co-ordinate communal activities,

So, the answer is: A (Babylonians)

Questions 9-13: (Labeling a diagram)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to label a diagram with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Title of the diagram: How the 1670 lever-based device worked

How the 1670 lever-based device worked

The title indicates that all the answers can be found in Paragraph G.

Questions 9-11:

• escapement (resembling _____________)
• the __________
• the __________

Keywords for the question: escapement, resembling,  

In paragraph G, the writer says in lines 2-3, “.. . . . It was called the anchor escapement, which was a lever-based device shaped like a ship’s anchor.. . .”

So, the answer to question no. 9 is: (ship’s) anchor

Again, in the same paragraph, in lines 3-4, “The motion of a pendulum rocks this device (escapement) so that it catches and releases each tooth of the escape wheel …  …  . .”

So, the answer for question no. 10 is: (escape) wheel (the big second bracket indicates the whole shape)

And the answer for question no. 11 is: tooth (each of the pointy edge which looks like tooth)

Question 12 & 13: a _________ which beats each __________

Keywords for the question: beats each,      

Once again, in paragraph G, the writer says, “Moreover, this invention allowed the use of a long pendulum which could beat once a second and thus led to the development of a new floor-standing case design.”

Here, beat once means beats each

So, the answer to question no. 12 is: (long) pendulum

So, the answer for question no. 13 is: second   

Reading Passage 2: Air traffic control in the USA

Questions 14-17 (List of headings):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph which will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence. ]

Question 14: Paragraph A

In the first lines of paragraph A the writer says, “An accident that occurred in the skies over the Grand Canyon in 1956 resulted in the establishment of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) to regulate and oversee the operation of aircraft in the skies over the United States.”

Here, the lines suggest that the accident (disaster) in 1956 resulted (prompts) in the establishment of FAA.

So, the answer is: ii (Aviation disaster prompts action)

Question 15: Paragraph C

In paragraph C, take a look at lines 3-5 where the author says, “.. .. .. It was only after the creation of the FAA that full-scale regulation of America’s airspace took place, and this was fortuitous, for the advent of the jet engine suddenly resulted in a large number of very fast planes… .”

Here, fortuitous means chance, accidental or coincidental.

So, the answer is: iii (Two coincidental developments)

Question 16: Paragraph D   

Take a close look at lines no. 3 and read this sentence, “. . .This is a very incomplete part of the picture.”

The line suggests that the role of ATC, as in many people’s thoughts, is a very incomplete picture/ oversimplified view.

So, the answer is: v (An oversimplified view)

Question 17: Paragraph E

In paragraph E, the writer details about setting a controlled airspace which is commonly known as altitude zones: “In general, from 365m above the ground and higher, the entire country is blanketed by controlled airspace. In certain areas, mainly near airports, controlled airspace extends down to 215m above the ground . . . … .  In this way, the recreational pilot who simply wishes to go flying for a while without all the restrictions composed by the FAA has only to stay in uncontrolled airspace, below 365m, . .. ..”

Here, the lines clearly indicate that the writer is discussing here about setting altitude zones.

So, the answer is: iv (Setting altitude zones)

Question 18: Paragraph F   

It is very easy to find out what the writer discusses in Paragraph F if we study the first few lines, “In good meteorological conditions, flying would be permitted under Visual Flight Rules (VFR), which suggests a strong reliance on visual cues to maintain an acceptable level of safety. Poor visibility necessitated a set of Instrumental Flight Rules (IFR)…”

Here, meteorological conditions = weather conditions,

So, the answer is: viii (Setting rules to weather conditions)

Question 19: Paragraph G

The first 3-4 lines of paragraph G indicates that the writer categorises open airspace in this paragraph. “Controlled airspace is divided into several types, designated by letters of the alphabet. Uncontrolled airspace is designated Class F, while controlled airspace below 5,490m above sea level and not in the vicinity of an airport is Class E. All airspace above 5,490m is designated Class A. .. . ..”

Here, Class F, Class E, and Class A are the different airspace categories.

So, the answer is: vii (Defining airspace categories)

Questions 20-26 (YES, NO, NOT GIVEN)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question matches the claim of the writer in the text- YESThe statement in the question contradicts the claim of the writer in the text- NOThe statement in the question has no clear connection with the account in the text- NOT GIVEN

[TIPS: For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 20: The FAA was created as a result of the introduction of the jet engine.

Keywords for this question: FAA, created, jet engine

The first lines of paragraph A give us the answer to this question. The writer says here, “An accident that occurred in the skies over the Grand Canyon in 1956 resulted in the establishment of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).”

This means the FAA was created as a result of an accident, not as a result of the introduction of the jet engine.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 21: Air Traffic Control started after the Grand Canyon crash in 1956.

Keywords for this question: ATC, started, after Grand Canyon crash, 1956,

Paragraph B starts with this line, “Rudimentary air traffic control (ATC) existed well before the Grand Canyon disaster.”

The line clearly contradicts the question.  

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 22: Beacons and flashing lights are still used by ATC today.   

Keywords for this question: Beacons, flashing lights, still used,

In this passage, we find no mention of whether beacons and flashing lights are still used by ATC today. Beacons and flashing lights are referred to in paragraph B, but whether this system has been abandoned completely or is still used is not mentioned anywhere. 

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 23: Some improvements were made in radio communication during World War II.    

Keywords for this question: improvements, radio communication, World War II,

In paragraph C, the writer describes in lines 1-3 “In the 1940s, ATC centres could and did take advantage of the newly developed radar and improved radio communication brought about by the Second World War.”

The lines mean that there had been some improvements in radio communication during World War II.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 24: Class F airspace is airspace which is below 365m and not near airports.

Keywords for this question: Class F, below 365m, not near airports,

First, take a look at these lines from Paragraph E, “Elsewhere, in uncontrolled airspace, pilots are bound by fewer regulations. In this way, the recreational pilot who simply wishes to go flying for a while without all the restrictions composed by the FAA has only to stay in uncontrolled airspace, below 365m.”

The last paragraph details the categorisation of different airspace. Here in line no. 2 the writer says, “Uncontrolled airspace is designated Class F.”

So, this is clear that uncontrolled airspace is Class F which is below 365m and it is elsewhere, not in airports.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 25: All aircraft in Class E airspace must use IFR.

Keywords for this question: All, Class E, must use IFR,

In the last paragraph, Paragraph G, the writer says in lines 9-10, “The difference between Class E and A airspace is that in Class A, all operations are IFR . .  …”

This means that aircraft in Class A airspace must use IFR, not Class E.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 26: A pilot entering Class C airspace is flying over an average-sized city.

Keywords for this question: Class C, an average-sized city,

In the last paragraph, the writer states that in lines 13-15, “Three other types of airspace, Classes D, C and B, govern the vicinity of airports. These correspond roughly to small municipal, medium-sized metropolitan and major metropolitan airports respectively.” This means that Class C airspace indicates to medium-sized metropolitan airport areas.

Here, city = metropolitan and average-sized = medium-sized

So, the answer is: TRUE

Reading Passage 3: Telepathy

Questions 27-30 (Completing sentences/sentence completion)

[Here, candidates have to complete sentences by matching one part of the sentence with the other. Candidates need to check the keywords from the question parts and try to match those keywords with the information given in the passage.]

Question 27: Researchers with differing attitudes towards telepathy agree on   

Keywords for this question: differing attitudes, agree on,

The author mentions in lines 1-5 of paragraph no. 2, “Some researchers say the results constitute compelling evidence that telepathy is genuine. Other parapsychologists believe the field is on the brink of collapse, having tried to produce definitive scientific proof and failed. Sceptics and advocates alike do concur on one issue, however: that the most impressive evidence so far has come from the so-called ‘ganzfeld experiments’, a German term that means ‘whole field’.”

Here, Researchers with differing attitudes = Sceptics and advocates, agree on = concur on,

So, the answer is: E (the significance of the ganzfeld experiments.)

Question 28: Reports of experiences during meditation indicated  

Keywords for this question: experiences, during, meditation,   

The answer is found in paragraph no. 2. Here in lines 5-10, the author says, “. . . . Reports of telepathic experiences had by people during meditation led parapsychologists to suspect that telepathy might involve ‘signals’ passing between people that were so faint that they were usually swamped by normal brain activity. In this case, such signals might be more easily detected by those experiencing meditation-like tranquility in a relaxing ‘whole- field’ of light, sound and warmth.”

The lines suggest that a suitable environment such as tranquility in a relaxing ‘whole- field’ of light, sound and warmth needs to be created for telepathy.

So, the answer is: B (the need to create a suitable environment for telepathy.)

Question 29: Attitudes to parapsychology would alter drastically with

Keywords for this question: Attitudes to parapsychology, alter drastically,

The answer lies in the first few lines of the final paragraph. Here, in lines 4-6 the writer says, “While physicists have demonstrated entanglement with specially prepared atoms, no-one knows if it also exists between atoms making up human minds. Answering such questions would transform parapsychology.”  

Here, transform = alter drastically

The lines suggest that attitudes to parapsychology would completely change if any results can be found on whether specially prepared atoms are making up human minds or not.

So, the answer is: A (the discovery of a mechanism for telepathy.)

Question 30: Recent autoganzfeld trials suggest that success rates will improve with  

Keywords for this question: Recent autoganzfeld trials, success rates, improve with,

In the final paragraph, in lines 8-13, the answer can be found. Here, the author writes, “Some work has begun already, with researchers trying to identify people who are particularly successful in autoganzfeld trials. Early results show that creative and artistic people do much better than average: in one study at the University of Edinburgh, musicians achieved a hit-rate of 56 percent. Perhaps more tests like these will eventually give the researchers the evidence they are seeking and strengthen the case for the existence of telepathy.”

Here, hit rate = success rate, creative and artistic people or musicians = careful selection of subjects,

So, the answer is: F (a more careful selection of subjects.)

Questions 31-40: (Completing table)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to complete different gaps in a table with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage. Keywords are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. However, we should not be surprised if the sequence is not maintained. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Here is the table with the title: Telepathy Experiments

Question 31, 32 & 33:

Description:

Involved a person acting as a 31. ________ who picked out one 32. ________ from a random selection of four, and a 33. _________ , who then tried to identify it.

Keywords for this question: Ganzfeld studies 1982, person acting as,

In paragraph 3, in the paragraph where the writer explains the early Ganzfeld experiments in 1982, in lines 3-6, the writer says, “In early ganzfeld experiments, the telepathy test involved identification of a picture chosen from a random selection of four taken from a large image bank. The idea was that a person acting as a ‘sender’ would attempt to beam the image over to the ‘receiver’ relaxing in the sealed room.”

The lines indicate that the 1982 Ganzfeld studies involved a person, who acted as a ‘sender’, picked out one picture from a random selection of four pictures, and a receiver tried to identify it.

So, the answers are:

• sender
• picture/image
• receiver

Question 34 & 35:

Flaw:

Positive results could be produced by factors such as 34. __________  or 35. __________ .

Keywords for this question: flaw, positive results could be produced, factors,    

In lines 4-6 of paragraph 4, the writer explains the flaw of the experiments, “ . . .. . . . there were many other ways of getting positive results. These ranged from ‘sensory leakage’ – where clues about the pictures accidentally reach the receiver – to outright fraud.”

Here, sensory leakage and outright fraud are the factors the range is explained here using the prepositions ‘from’ and ‘to’.

So, the answers are:

• sensory leakage
• (outright) fraud

Question 36 & 37:

Description:

• ________ were used for key tasks to limit the amount of 37. _________ in carrying out the tests.

Keywords for this question: Autoganzfeld studies 1987, key tasks, limit the amount of,    

In paragraph 5, the writer says in the beginning, “After this, many researchers switched to autoganzfeld tests – an automated variant of the technique which used computers to perform many of the key tasks such as random selection of images. By minimising human involvement, the idea was to minimise the risk of flawed results.”

Here, limit = minimise,

So, they used computers to limit the amount of human involvement.

So, the answers are:

• computers
• human involvement

Question 38:

Results:

The results were then subjected to ________.

Keywords for this question: results, subjected to,

The answer lies in lines 4-6 of paragraph 5, the writer says, “In 1987, results from hundreds of autoganzfeld tests were studied by Honorton in a ‘meta-analysis’, a statistical technique for finding the overall results from a set of studies.”

Here, tests were studied by Honorton in = the results were then subjected to,

So, the answer is: meta-analysis

Question 39 & 40:

Flaw:

• ________ between different test results was put down to the fact that sample groups were not 40. ________ (as with most ganzfeld studies)

Keywords for this question: different test results, put down, sample groups were not,   

In paragraph 6, the writer says in lines 1-6, “Yet some parapsychologists remain disturbed by the lack of consistency between individual ganzfeld tests. Defenders of telepathy point out that demanding impressive evidence from every study ignores one basic statistical fact: it takes large samples to detect small effects. If, as current results suggest, telepathy produces hit-rates only marginally above the 25 percent expected by chance, it’s unlikely to be detected by a typical ganzfeld study involving around 40 people: the group is just not big enough.”

Here, different test results = individual ganzfeld tests,

So, the answer is:

• lack of consistency
• big enough

Reading Passage 1: Pulling strings to build pyramids

Questions 1-7: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question matches with the account in the text- TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the account in the text- FALSE
The statement in the question has no clear connection with the account in the text- NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 1: It is generally believed that large numbers of people were needed to build the pyramids.

Keywords for the question: generally believed, large numbers of people, needed, build the pyramids,   

At the beginning of paragraph no. 1 the writer says, “The pyramids of Egypt were built more than three thousand years ago, and no one knows how. The conventional picture is that tens of thousands of slavesdragged stones on sledges.”

Here, the conventional picture = generally believed, tens of thousands of slaves = large numbers of people,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 2: Clemmons found a strange hieroglyph on the wall of an Egyptian monument.

Keywords for the question: Clemmons, found, strange hieroglyph, wall, Egyptian monument,  

In paragraph no. 1, lines 7-9, the writer mentions, “While perusing a book on the monuments of Egypt, she noticed a hieroglyph that showed a row of men standing in odd postures.” 

Here, odd postures = strange postures, noticed = found,

So, the hieroglyph was found in a book, not in a wall.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 3:  Gharib had previously done experiments on bird flight.

Keywords for the question: Gharib, previously, experiments, bird flight,    

The reference to Morteza Gharib is found in paragraph no. 2. However, there is no mention of whether he previously did experiments on bird flight or not.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN       

Question 4:  Gharib and Graff tested their theory before applying it.

Keywords for the question: Gharib and Graff, tested, theory, before, applying,

Paragraph no. 3 presents details about how Gharib and Graff prepared for some experiments to test their theory and paragraph no. 4 shows the results of those experiments. Here, in paragraph no. 3, take a look at lines 2-4, “Their initial calculations and scale-model wind-tunnel experiments convinced them they wouldn’t need a strong wind to lift the 33.5-tonne column.”

This means they did experiments on their theory before applying it.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 5:  The success of the actual experiment was due to the high speed of the wind.

Keywords for the question: success, actual experiment, due to, high speed, wind,      

The answer can be found in lines 1-2 of paragraph no. 5. The writer says here, “The wind was blowing at a gentle 16 to 20 kilometres an hour, little more than half what they thought would be needed.”

Here, little more than half what they thought would be needed means the wind had a speed of a little more than half of what they thought would be needed.

So, it was the low speed of wind, not the high speed of wind what gave the experiment a success.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 6: They found that, as the kite flew higher, the wind force got stronger.

Keywords for the question: kite, flew, higher, wind force, got stronger,        

The result of the experiment with kites can be found in paragraph no. 5. There is no information about what happened when the kite flew higher or lower.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 7: The team decided that it was possible to use kites to raise very heavy stones.

Keywords for the question: team, decided, was possible, use kites, to raise, very heavy stones,        

Take a look at this line from paragraph no. 5, “ . .. . So Clemmons was right: the pyramid, builders could have used kites to lift massive stones into place.”

So, the researchers decided that it was possible to use kites to raise very heavy stones.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Questions 7-13: (Summary completion)

(In this kind of questions candidates are given a summary for one, two or three paragraphs with some fill in the blanks questions. Candidates need to find out the related paragraphs by correctly studying the keywords form the questions. Then, they should follow the similar steps of finding answers to fill in the gaps and write the correct answer.)

The title of the summary: Additional evidence for theory of kite-lifting

All the answers are found in paragraph no. 7 as the title of the summary says ‘Additional evidence’ and paragraph no. 7 starts with the sentence, “Others feel there is more of a case for the theory.”

Here, more of a case = additional evidence,  

Questions 8, 9 & 10: The Egyptians had 8. _________ which could lift large pieces of 9. _________ and they knew how to use the energy of the wind from their skill as 10. __________. 

Keywords for the question: Egyptians, had, could lift, large pieces of, knew, how to use, energy of the wind, their skill as,  

In paragraph no. 7, in lines 1-4, the author says, “ . .. .. Harnessing the wind would not have been a problem for accomplished sailors like the Egyptians. And they are known to have used wooden pulleys, which could have been made strong enough to bear the weight of massive blocks of stone.”

Here, massive blocks of = large pieces of,   

So, wooden pulleys were used to lift large pieces of stone.

Also, from their skill as indicates to the skill of the Egyptians as sailors.

So, the answers are:

• (wooden) pulleys
• stone
• (accomplished) sailors

Questions 11 & 12: The discovery on one pyramid of an object which resembled a 11. ___________ suggests they may have experimented with 12. _________.  

Keywords for the question: discovery, one pyramid, an object, resembled, suggests, may have, experimented with,  

In lines 5-8 of the same paragraph, the author writes, “ . . .. A wooden artefact found on the step pyramid at Saqqara looks uncannily like a modern glider. Although it dates from several hundred years after the building of the pyramids, its sophistication suggests that the Egyptians might have been developing ideas of flight for a long time.”

Here, looks uncannily like = resembled, might have been developing ideas = may have experimented,

So, the answers are:

1. (modern) glider
2. flight

Questions 13: In addition, over two thousand years ago kites were used in China as weapons, as well as for sending 13. _________.

Keywords for the question: over two thousand years ago, kites, used, China, weapons, as well as, sending,   

In the last lines of this paragraph, the writer says, “ .. .. . And other ancient civilisations certainly knew about kites; as early as 1250 BC, the Chinese were using them to deliver messages and dump flaming debris on their foes.”  

Here, as early as 1250 BC = over two thousand years ago, kites were used … . as weapons = dump flaming debris on their foes, deliver = sending,

So, the answer is: messages

Reading Passage 2: Endless Harvest

Questions 14-20: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question matches with the account in the text- TRUEThe statement in the question contradicts the account in the text- FALSEThe statement in the question has no clear connection with the account in the text- NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 14: The inhabitants of the Aleutian islands renamed their islands ‘Aleyska’.

Keywords for the question: inhabitants, Aleutian islands, renamed, ‘Aleyska’,

Let’s take a look at the very beginning of the passage. In paragraph no. 1 we find some information about naming the islands. The author says here, “More than two hundred years ago, Russian explorers and fur hunters landed on the Aleutian Islands, a volcanic archipelago in the North Pacific, and learned of a land mass that lay farther to the north. ‘The islands’ native inhabitants called this land mass Aleyska, the ‘Great Land’; today, we know it as Alaska.”

From these lines, we can realise that native inhabitants of the islands named it (called) ‘Aleyska’. They did not rename it. Nowadays, we know it as ‘Alaska’, it’s newly named (renamed).

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 15: Alaska’s fisheries are owned by some of the world’s largest companies.

Keywords for the question: Alaska’s fisheries, owned by, world’s largest companies,

Paragraph no. 2 talks about fisheries in Alaska; however, there is no information on the ownership of Alaska’s fisheries. The last lines of this paragraph only say, “ . .. Taking advantage of this rich bounty, Alaska’s commercial fisheries have developed into some of the largest in the world.”

So, it talks about the size of the commercial fisheries, not the ownership.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 16: Life in Alaska is dependent on salmon.

Keywords for the question: life, Alaska, dependent on, salmon,  

The answer lies in paragraph no. 3, lines 3-6, “ . . .. The true cultural heart and soul of Alaska’s fisheries, however, is salmon. ‘Salmon,’ notes writer Susan Ewing in The Great Alaska Nature Factbook, ‘pump through Alaska like blood through a heart, bringing rhythmic, circulating nourishment to land, animals, and people.”

The lines clearly match the statement in question no. 16.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 17: Ninety percent of all Pacific salmon caught are sockeye or pink salmon.

Keywords for the question: Ninety percent, all Pacific salmon caught, sockeye, pink salmon,

In paragraph no. 3, take a look at lines 8-10. The writer mentions, “ . . . . All five species of Pacific salmon – chinook, or king; chum, or dog; coho, or silver; sockeye, or red; and pink, or humpback – spawn** in Alaskan waters, and 90% of all Pacific salmon commercially caught in North America are produced there.”

Here, the writer says that 90% of all salmon caught commercially in North America comes from Alaska. It doesn’t mention about the percentage of particular types.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 18: More than 320,000 tonnes of salmon were caught in Alaska in 2000.

Keywords for the question: More than, 320,000 tonnes of salmon, caught, Alaska, 2000,

The last lines of paragraph no. 3 gives us information about the total weight of salmon caught in 2000 in Alaska, “ . … . During 2000, commercial catches of Pacific salmon in Alaska exceeded 320,000 tonnes, with an ex-vessel value of over $US 260 million.”

Here, exceeded = more than,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 19: Between 1940 and 1959, there was a sharp decrease in Alaska’s salmon population.

Keywords for the question: between 1940 and 1959, sharp decrease, Alaska’s, salmon population,

In the very beginning of paragraph no. 4, the writer says, “.. .. . Between 1940 and 1959, overfishing led to crashes in salmon populations so severe that in 1953 Alaska was declared a federal disaster area.”

Here, crashes in salmon populations so severe = there was a sharp decrease in Alaska’s salmon populations.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 20: During the 1990s, the average number of salmon caught each year was 100 million.

Keywords for the question: During, 1990s, average number of salmon, caught each year, 100 million,  

Take a look at the last few lines of paragraph no. 4, “ . . .. . . until, during the 1990s, annual harvests were well in excess of 100 million, and on several occasions over 200 million fish.”

Here, well in excess of = way over / way more than,

So, the answer is: FALSE

Questions 21-26 (Completing sentences with correct endings)

[For this type of question, candidates need to match the beginning and ending of sentences. Candidates need to look for keywords in the sentence-beginnings and find the relative paragraphs and then sentences in the passage. Skimming and scanning, both reading skills are essential for this question-type.]

Question 21: In Alaska, biologists keep a check on adult fish –

Keywords for the question: Alaska, biologists, check on, adult fish, 

In paragraph no. 5 the writer says, “.. … . There are biologists throughout the state constantly monitoring adult fish as they show up to spawn. The biologists sit in streamside counting towers, study sonar, watch from aeroplanes, and talk to fishermen. The salmon season in Alaska is not pre-set. The fishermen know the approximate time of year when they will be allowed to fish, but on any given day, one or more field biologists in a particular area can put a halt to fishing. Even sport fishing can be brought to a halt. It is this management mechanism that has allowed Alaska salmon stocks – and, accordingly, Alaska salmon fisheries — to prosper, . . .. .. .”

Here, the writer indicates that biologists keep monitoring adult salmons so that fish numbers can improve and fishing can be permitted on a large scale.  

So, the answer is: G (to ensure that fish numbers are sufficient to permit fishing.)

Question 22: Biologists have the authority –            

Keywords for this question: Biologists, authority,  

In paragraph no. 5, we can see the authority that biologists can apply on fishing. Take a look at lines 5-7, “ . .. but on any given day, one or more field biologists in a particular area can put a halt to fishing. Even sport fishing can be brought to a halt.”

Here, put a halt / can be brought to halt = to stop,

So, the answer is: E (to stop people fishing for sports.)

Question 23: In-Season Abundance-Based Management has allowed the Alaska salmon fisheries –

Keywords for this question: In-season, Abundance-Based Management, allowed, Alaska salmon fisheries,  

Paragraph no. 5 starts citing about In-Season Abundance-Based Management. Then, in lines 7-8, the author says, “. . ..  .. It is this management mechanism that has allowed Alaska salmon stocks – and, accordingly, Alaska salmon fisheries — to prosper, .. . .”

Here, to prosper = to be successful,

So, the answer is: B (to be successful.)

Question 24: The Marine Stewardship Council (MSC) was established –

Keywords for this question: Marine Stewardship Council (MSC), established,   

In paragraph no. 6, lines 1-3 says, “In 1999, the Marine Stewardship Council (MSC)*** commissioned a review of the Alaska salmon fishery. The Council, which was founded in 1996, certifies fisheries that meet high environmental standards, enabling them to use a label that recognises their environmental responsibility.”

Here, founded = established, certifies = to recognise, recognises their environmental responsibility = care for the environment,

So, the answer is: A (to recognise fisheries that care for the environment.)

Question 25: As a result of the collapse of the salmon runs in 1999, the state decided –

Keywords for this question: As a result of, collapse, salmon, runs, 1999, state decided,   

In paragraph no. 7 we find the reference to the collapse of the salmon number in 1999, “Some observers thought the Alaska salmon fisheries would not have any chance of certification when, in the months leading up to MSC’s final decision, salmon runs throughout western Alaska completely collapsed.”  

Then in the next paragraph, the writer explained what happened as a result of this collapse, and in the last lines of this paragraph, the writer mentions, “. .. . However, the state reacted quickly, closing down all fisheries, even those necessary for subsistence purposes.”

So, the answer is: K (to close down all fisheries.)

Question 26: In September 2000, the MSC allowed seven Alaska salmon companies –

Keywords for this question: September 2000, MSC, allowed, seven Alaska salmon companies,   

In the last paragraph, the first lines say, “In September 2000, MSC announced that the Alaska salmon fisheries qualified for certification. Seven companies producing Alaska salmon were immediately granted permission to display the MSC logo on their products.”

Here, granted permission = allowed, display = label,

So, the answer is: F (to label their products using the MSC logo.)

Reading Passage 3: EFFECTS OF NOISE

Questions 27-29: Multiple choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers to previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

Question 27: The writer suggests that people may have difficulty sleeping in the mountains because –

Keywords for this question: may have difficulty, sleeping, mountains, because,   

The writer says in lines 1-4 of paragraph no. 2-4, “ . . . . And yet most of us have had the experience of having to adjust to sleeping in the mountains or the countryside because it was initially ‘too quiet’, an experience that suggests that humans are capable of adapting to a wide range of noise levels.”

Here, humans = they, wide range of noise levels = higher noise level,

So, the answer is: D (they may have adapted to a higher noise level in the city.)

Question 28: In noise experiments, Glass and Singer found that –

Keywords for this question: noise experiments, Glass and Singer, 

In lines 7-8 of paragraph no. 1 the writer states, “The noise was quite disruptive at first, but after about four minutes the subjects were doing just as well on their tasks as control subjects who were not exposed to noise.”

This means that bursts of noise do not disrupt problem-solving ultimately (subjects were doing just as well on their tasks).

So, the answer is: C (bursts of noise do not seriously disrupt problem-solving in the long run.)

Question 29: Researchers discovered that high noise levels are not likely to interfere with the –

Keywords for this question: Researchers, discovered, high noise levels, not likely, interfere with,

Take a look at paragraph no. 2, line no. 1-2 where the writer states, “But there are limits to adaptation and loud noise becomes more troublesome if the person is required to concentrate on more than one task.”

The lines suggest that there is a low chance of interference by high noise levels if a person is required to do one task. But if there is more than one task, the chance of interference becomes higher.

So, the answer is: A (successful performance of a single task.)

Questions 30-34: (Completing summary with a list of words)

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to complete a summary with a list of words taken from the passage. Candidates must write the correct letter (not the words) as the answers. Keywords and synonyms are important to find answers correctly. Generally, this type of question maintains a sequence. Find the keywords in the passage and you are most likely to find the answers.]

Question 30: Glass and Singer (1972) showed that situations in which there is intense noise have less effect on performance than circumstances in which _____________ noise occurs.

Keywords for this question: Glass and Singer (1972), situations, intense noise, less effect, performance, than circumstances, noise occurs,

In lines 2-4 of paragraph no. 3, the writer describes, “. . . . . We are much more able to ‘tune out’ chronic background noise, even if it is quite loud, than to work under circumstances with unexpected intrusions of noise.”

Here, quite loud = intense,

So, the answer is: B (unexpected)

Question 31: Subjects were divided into groups to perform a task. Some heard loud bursts of noise, others sort. For some subjects, the noise was predictable, while for others its occurrence was random. All groups were exposed to __________  noise. 

Keywords for this question: subjects, divided, perform a task, loud burst of noise, predictable, occurrence was random, all groups, exposed to,

In paragraph no. 3, the writer states in lines 6-8, “.. .. . For some subjects, the bursts were spaced exactly one minute apart (predictable noise); others heard the same amount of noise overall, but the bursts occurred at random intervals (unpredictable noise).”

The lines suggest that though for some subjects the bursts of noise were exactly at one-minute intervals and for others the intervals were random, the amount of noise was the same.

So, the answer is: D (the same amount of)

Question 32: The predictable noise group ___________ the unpredictable noise group on this task.

Keywords for this question: predictable noise group, unpredictable noise group,

Again, in paragraph no. 3, the author states in lines 8-10, “ . . . Subjects reported finding the predictable and unpredictable noise equally annoying, and all subjects performed at about the same level during the noise portion of the experiment . .. .”  

So, the answer is: F (performed at about the same level as)

Question 33: In the second part of the experiment, the four groups were given a proofreading task to complete under conditions of no noise. They were required to check written material for errors. The group which had been exposed to unpredictable noise ___________ the group which had been exposed to predictable noise. 

Keywords for this question: second part of the experiment, four groups, proofreading task, under conditions of no noise, check written material, errors, exposed to, unpredictable noise, predictable noise,

In paragraph no. 3, the writer talks about the second part of the experiment in lines 10-14, “. . . . But the different noise conditions had quite different after-effects when the subjects were required to proofread written material under conditions of no noise. As shown in Table 1 the unpredictable noise produced more errors in the later proofreading task than predictable noise; and soft, unpredictable noise actually produced slightly more errors on this task than the loud, predictable noise.”

Here, produced .. .. more errors = make more mistakes,  

So, the answer is: I (made more mistakes than)

Question 34: The group which had been exposed to loud predictable noise performed better than those who had heard soft, unpredictable bursts. The results suggest that __________ noise produces fatigue but that this manifests itself later.

Keywords for this question: results suggest, noise, produces fatigue, manifests itself later,

In paragraph no. 4, the writer discusses the results found from the experiments in paragraph no. 3, “Apparently, unpredictable noise produces more fatigue than predictable noise, but it takes a while for this fatigue to take its toll on performance.”

Here, unpredictable = unexpected,

So, the answer is: B (unexpected)

Questions 35-40 (Matching statements with the correct researchers)

(In this type of question, candidates need to relate statements which are given by or links to some researchers in the passage. The rules for finding answers to this sort of question are simple. Just find the name of the researchers and read around them carefully. Then, give a quick look to check whether there is another statement or idea provided by the same researchers in the text. If there is, check the reference carefully and decide your answer. Remember, the questions may not follow any sequential order.)

Question 35: Subjects exposed to noise find it difficult at first to concentrate on problem-solving tasks.

Keywords for this question: subjects, exposed to noise, difficult, concentrate, problem-solving tasks,

Have a look at paragraph no. 1 where the writer says in lines 5-7, “ . .. .. For example, Glass and Singer (1972) exposed people to short bursts of very loud noise and then measured their ability to work out problems and their physiological reactions to the noise. The noise was quite disruptive at first,. . .”

Here, disruptive = difficult to concentrate,

So, the answer is: A (Glass and Singer)

Question 36: Long-term exposure to noise can produce changes in behaviour which can still be observed a year later.

Keywords for this question: long-term exposure, changes, behaviour, still be observed, a year later,

In the final paragraph the writer explains, “A follow-up study showed that children who were moved to less noisy classrooms still showed greater distractibility one year later than students who had always been in the quiet schools (Cohen et al, 1981).”

Here, one year = long-term exposure,

So, the answer is: D (Cohen et al.)

Question 37: The problems associated with exposure to noise do not arise if the subject knows they can make it stop.

Keywords for this question: problems, exposure to noise, do not arise, if, subject knows, can make it stop,

In paragraph no. 5, we find the writer arguing that, “ .. . If the individual knows that he or she can control the noise, this seems to eliminate both its negative effect at the time and its after-effects. This is true even if the individual never actually exercises his or her option to turn the noise off (Glass and Singer, 1972).”

Here, control = stop,

So, the answer is: A (Glass and Singer)

Question 38: Exposure to high-pitched noise results in more errors than exposure to low-pitched noise.

Keywords for this question: exposure to high-pitched noise, result in more errors, than, low-pitched noise,   

In paragraph no. 2, the writer explains the fact that it was found by Broadbent that loud noise becomes a problem, and we make more mistakes, when a person has to concentrate on more than one task. However, this gives us idea about the limit on how bad or how well we can adapt to exposure to loud noise.

We find no reference of any researchers about high-pitched noise gives birth to more noise.

So, the answer is: E (None of the above)

Question 39: Subjects find it difficult to perform three tasks at the same time when exposed to noise.

Keywords for this question: subjects, difficult to perform, three tasks, same time, when, exposed to noise,

We can find this answer in paragraph no. 2. Here, in lines 2-4, the writer states, “ . .. . For example, high noise levels interfered with the performance of subjects who were required to monitor three dials at a time, a task not unlike that of an aeroplane pilot or an air-traffic controller (Broadbent, 1957).”

Here, required to monitor three dials at a time = perform three tasks at the same time,

So, the answer is: B (Broadbent)

Question 40: Noise affects a subject’s capacity to repeat numbers while carrying out another task.

Keywords for this question: noise affects, subject’s capacity, to repeat numbers, while, another task,  

Again, in paragraph no. 2, the author writes in lines 5-7, “ . .. . Similarly, noise did not affect a subject’s ability to track a moving line with a steering wheel, but it did interfere with the subject’s ability to repeat numbers while tracking (Finkelman and Glass, 1970).”

Here, tracking = carrying out another task,

So, the answer is: C (Finkelman and Glass)

Reading Passage 1: Ant Intelligence

Questions 1-6: TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question matches with the account in the text- TRUE
The statement in the question contradicts the account in the text- FALSE
The statement in the question has no clear connection with the account in the text- NOT GIVEN

[For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 1: Ants use the same channels of communication as humans do.

Keywords for the question: ants use, same channels of communication, as humans, 

At the beginning of paragraph no. 2 the writer says, “Ant store food, repel attackers and use chemical signals to contact one another in case of attack. Such chemical communication can be compared to the human use of visual and auditory channels (as in religious chants, advertising images and jingles, political slogans and martial music) to arouse and propagate moods and attitudes.”

This means ants use chemical signals while humans use visual and auditory channels which are not similar but they can be compared.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 2: City life is one factor that encourages the development of intelligence.

Keywords for the question: city life, factor, encourages, development of intelligence,

In paragraph no. 7, the writer mentions about the impact of city life in developing intelligence, “Whereas prehistoric man had no exposure to urban lifestyles – the forcing house of intelligence – the evidence suggests that ants have lived in urban settings for close on a hundred million years … .  . . .” 

Here, urban lifestyles = city life, the forcing house = factor that encourages the development,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 3:  Ants can build large cities more quickly than humans do.

Keywords for the question: ants, can build, large cities, more quickly, than humans,    

In paragraphs no. 7 and 8, the author talks about building cities by ants and humans. However, there is no comparison on whether ants build large cities more quickly than humans or not.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN       

Question 4:  Some ants can find their way by making calculations based on distance and position.

Keywords for the question: some ants, find, way, making calculations, based on, distance, position,     

In paragraph no. 11, the author mentions in lines 1-6, “Research conducted at Oxford, Sussex and Zurich Universities has shown that when desert ants return from a foraging trip, they navigate by integrating bearings and distances, which they continuously update in their heads.”

Here, navigate = find their way, integrating = assimilate/making calculations, bearings and distances = distance and position,

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 5:  In one experiment, foraging teams were able to use their sense of smell to find food.

Keywords for the question: one experiment, foraging teams, able to use, sense of smell, find food,      

In paragraph no. 12, we can find the mention of ‘the experiment’. Here, in lines 11-12, the writer mentions, “. . . Elaborate precautions were taken to prevent the foraging team using odour clues.”

The line suggests that necessary actions were taken before to stop the foraging team to use odour (sense of smell).

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 6: The essay, ‘In the company of ants’, explores ant communication.

Keywords for the question: essay, In the company of ants, explores, ant communication,      

The last paragraph gives reference to the essay ‘In the company of ants’. The writer says here, in lines 5-9, “It’s no surprise that Edward Wilson, in his essay, ‘In the company of ants’, advises readers who ask what to do with the ants in their kitchen to: ‘Watch where you step. Be careful of little lives.’”

Here, the writer of the essay ‘In the company of ants’ advises us to be careful and not to step on the little creatures. However, the line doesn’t indicate anything about the subject of the essay.

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Questions 7-13: (Summary completion with list of words)

(In this kind of questions candidates are given a summary for one, two or three paragraphs with some fill in the blanks questions form a list of words given in a box. Candidates need to find out the related paragraphs by correctly studying the keywords form the questions. Then, they should follow the steps of finding answers for fill in the gaps and write the correct letter corresponding to the answer.)

The title of the summary: Ants as farmers  

All the answers are found in paragraph D.

Question 7: Ants have sophisticated methods of farming, including herding livestock and growing crops, which are in many ways similar to those used in human agriculture. The ants cultivate a large number of different species of edible fungi which convert ________ into a form which they can digest.

Keywords for the question: sophisticated methods of farming, herding livestock, growing crops, similar, human agriculture, cultivate, large number, different species, edible fungi, convert, can digest,   

In paragraph no. 5, the author states in lines 2-6, “Ants can’t digest the cellulose in leaves- but some fungi can. The ants, therefore, cultivate these fungi in their nests, bringing them leaves to feed on, and then use them as a source of food.”

So, the answer is: C (cellulose)

Questions 8 and 9: They use their own natural 8. ___________ as weed-killers and also use unwanted materials as 9. _________. 

Keywords for the question: use, own, natural, weed-killers, unwanted materials,

Again, in paragraph no. 5, in lines 6-9, the author says, “ . .. Farmer ants secrete antibiotics to control other fungi that might act as ‘weeds’, and spread waste to fertilise the crop.”

Here, to control other fungi that might act as ‘weeds’ means weed killers, unwanted materials = waste,   

Now, the word ‘use’ before question no. 8 and the word ‘spread’ before question no. 9 restrict us to use the word ‘secrete’ and ‘fertilise’, because they don’t fit here grammatically.

So, the answers are:

• M (secretions)
• F (fertilizers)

Question 10: Genetic analysis shows they constantly upgrade these fungi by developing new species and by ________ species with neighbouring ant colonies.

Keywords for the question: genetic analysis, constantly upgrade, fungi, developing, new species, neighbouring ant colonies,  

In paragraph no. 6 line no. 6 we find the word ‘genetically’ that matches with keywords ‘genetic analysis’. So, we need to scan this paragraph carefully.

In lines 7-13, the writer says, “. . . . These turned out to be highly diverse: it seems that ants are continually domesticating new species. Even more impressively, DNA analysis of the fungi suggests that the ants improve or modify the fungi by regularly swapping and sharing strains with neighbouring ant colonies.”

Here, upgrade = improve or modify, exchange = swapping and sharing,

So, the answer is: D (exchanging)

Questions 11, 12 & 13: In fact, the farming methods of ants could be said to be more advanced than human agribusiness, since they use 11. ________ methods, they do not affect the 12. _______ and do not waste 13. ________.

Keywords for the question: farming methods of ants, more advance than, human agribusiness, they use, methods, do not affect, do not waste,

These questions give a clear hint to the comparison of farming methods between humans and ants. So, we need to go to paragraph no. 4, where the comparison of farming methods between humans and ants can be found. In lines 1-4 of this paragraph, the writer says, “The farming methods of ants are at least sustainable. They do not ruin environments or use enormous amounts of energy.”  

Here, The farming methods of ants are least sustainable = they use sustainable farming methods,  do not ruin = do not affect/do not waste,

So, the answers are:

1. N (sustainable)
2. O (environment)
3. E (energy)

Reading Passage 2: Population movements and genetics

Questions 14-19 (List of headings):

[In this question type, IELTS candidates are provided with a list of headings, usually identified with lower-case Roman numerals (i, ii, iii, etc,). A heading will refer to the main idea of the paragraph or section of the text. Candidates must find out the equivalent heading to the correct paragraphs or sections, which are marked with alphabets A, B, C and so forth. Candidates need to write the appropriate Roman numerals in the boxes on their answer sheets. There will always be two or three more headings than there are paragraphs or sections. So, some of the headings will not be used. It is also likely that some paragraphs or sections may not be included in the task. Generally, the first paragraph is an example paragraph that will be done for the candidates for their understanding of the task.

TIPS: Skimming is the best reading technique. You need not understand every word here. Just try to gather the gist of the sentences. That’s all. Read quickly and don’t stop until you finish each sentence. ]

Question 14: Section A

We should quickly read the whole paragraph because it is a very short one.

The first sentence deals with how the study of human population movements was in the past (based on archaeological and fossil evidence).

Then in lines 4-7, the writer mentions, “A number of techniques developed since the 1950s, however, have placed the study of these subjects on a sounder and more objective footing.”

After that in lines 8-11, the writer mentions how the study of human population movements is done in the present time using genetic material.

So, the answer is: iv (Developments in the methods used to study early population movements)

Question 15: Section B

Section B raises some questions about migration to America and they are found in the middle of the section.

In lines 8-12 the author asks, “… .. . But was there one major wave of migration across the Bering Strait into the Americas, or several? And when did this event, or events, take place?”

So, the answer is: vii (Long-standing questions about prehistoric migration to America)

Question 16: Section C

Have a look at the first and last few lines of section C.

In lines 1-6 the writer mentions, “An important project, led by the biological anthropologist Robert Williams, focused on the variants (called Gm allotypes) of one particular protein -immunoglobin G – found in the fluid portion of human blood. .”

Then in lines 11-16 the writer mentions, “ . . . . . Thus, by comparing the Gm allotypes of two different populations (e.g. two Indian tribes), one can establish their genetic ‘distance’, which itself can be calibrated to give an indication of the length of time since these populations last interbred.”

Here, blood-variants = the variants found in human blood, measure corresponds to = give an indication of the length of, closeness of the relationship = interbred,

So, the lines suggest that the project was an analysis of blood variants and it measures the distance (closeness) of the link between different populations.

So, the answer is: x (How analysis of blood-variants measures the closeness of the relationship between different populations)

Question 17: Section D

Section D shows the outcomes of the project by Robert Williams and his colleagues.

In the first lines the writer says, “Williams and his colleagues sampled the blood of over 5,000 American Indians in western North America during a twenty-year period.”

Then in lines 4-7 the writer mentions, “ .. . . They found that their Gm allotypes could be divided into two groups, one of which also corresponded to the genetic typing of Central and South American Indians. Other tests showed that the Inuit (or Eskimo) and Aleut³ formed a third group.”

Therefore, we can guess that section D talks about the results of the research into blood-variants.

So, the answer is: i (The results of the research into blood-variants)

Question 18: Section E

In section E, the first lines say, “How far does other research support these conclusions?”

The lines suggest that other research has been done on blood-variants.

Then, in lines 2-9, the writer says, “ . .. Geneticist Douglas Wallace has studied mitochondrial DNA⁴ in blood samples from three widely separated Native American groups: Pima-Papago Indians in Arizona, Maya Indians on the Yucatán peninsula, Mexico, and Ticuna Indians in the Upper Amazon region of Brazil.”

These lines mean that Douglas Wallace is a scientist who works with genes and other genetic matters. He has studied the DNA in blood samples of three groups of people; Pima-Papago, Maya Indians and Ticuna Indians.

So, the answer is: vi (Further genetic evidence relating to the three-wave theory)

Question 19: Section F

Section F opens with these lines, “There are two other kinds of research that have thrown some light on the origins of the Native American population; they involve the study of teeth and of languages.”

Then, in the next few lines we find words like teeth, tooth crown and roots, single-rooted, triple-rooted etc.

So, the answer is: ii (Dental evidence)

Questions 20 and 21: (Completing Table)

(In this type of question candidates need to fill in the gaps in a table. For this table candidates need to write the letter that corresponds to the correct migration routes out of six routes.)

These questions are related to Robert Williams’ research results which can be traced in Section D.

Question 20: Route _____________

Keywords for the question: 15,000 or more, years ago,

In section D, the author says in lines 10-16, “ .. . . From this evidence, it was deduced that there had been three major waves of migration across the Bering Strait. The first, Paleo-lndian, wave more than 15,000 years ago was ancestral to all Central and South American Indians.”

Now, if we look closely at the given picture, we can find out that only route E (marked with red arrows) starts somewhere from Asia, crossing the Bering Strait and then continues to Central and South America.

So, the answer is: E

Question 21: Route _____________

Keywords for the question: 600 to 700, years ago,

In section D, the author says in lines 16-21, “ . .. . The second wave, about 14,000-12,000 years ago, brought Na-Dene hunters, ancestors of the Navajo and Apache (who only migrated south from Canada about 600 or 700 years ago).”

Again, if we look closely at the given picture, we can find out that route C (marked with pink arrows) starts from Asia, crossing the Bering Strait and then stops in South Canada (first period – 14,000-12,000 years ago). Then, in the second period (600 to 700 years ago) they took route D (marked with blue arrows) to the south from Canada.

So, the answer is: D

Questions 22-25 (Classifying groups)

[This type of question asks candidates to classify information from the given reading text. Candidates are given some groups from the text, and a list of options, which are listed as A, B, C etc. They must match the correct groups with the correct options.

N.B.: This question doesn’t follow any sequence. So, they should be answered after all other questions in the passage.]

Question 22: Name of group: Inuit                 Wave number: ________

Keywords for this question: Inuit,

Take a close look at section D, where we find the reference of the three waves for the first time. Here, in the last lines, the writer says, “ . . . The third wave, perhaps 10,000 or 9,000 years ago, saw the migration from North-east Asia of groups ancestral to the modern Eskimo and Aleut.”

So, the group name is Eskimo and Aleut. But, Eskimo and Aleut is not an option in the question.

What should we do now?

In section D, take a look at lines 8-10, “… .. . Other tests showed that the Inuit (or Eskimo) and Aleut³ formed a third group.”

Therefore, Eskimo means Inuit.

So, the answer is: C (the third wave)

Question 23: Name of group: Apache           Wave number: ________

Keywords for this question: Apache,

Again, in section D, the author writes in lines 16-21, “ . .. The second wave, about 14,000-12,000 years ago, brought Na-Dene hunters, ancestors of the Navajo and Apache (who only migrated south from Canada about 600 or 700 years ago).”

So, the answer is: B (the second wave)

Question 24: Name of group: Pima-Papago   Wave number: ________

Keywords for this question: Pima-Papago, 

Question 25: Name of group: Ticuna Wave number: ________

Keywords for this question: Ticuna, 

First, take a look at lines 13-16 in section D, “.. . .. The first, Paleo-lndian, wave more than 15,000 years ago was ancestral to all Central and South American Indians.”

This means Paleo-Indians were originated from the first wave (A).

Now, in section E, read lines 2-13, the writer explains the Paleo-Indian group, “Geneticist Douglas Wallace has studied mitochondrial DNA⁴ in blood samples from three widely separated Native American groups: Pima-Papago Indians in Arizona, Maya Indians on the Yucatán peninsula, Mexico, and Ticuna Indians in the Upper Amazon region of Brazil. As would have been predicted by Robert Williams’ work, all three groups appear to be descended from the same ancestral (Paleo-lndian) population.”

These lines suggest that Pima-Papago Indians, Maya Indians and Ticuna Indians are all descendants of Paleo-Indian population.

So, the answers are:

• A (the first wave)
• A (the first wave)

Question 26: Multiple choice questions

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers to previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

Question 26: Christy Turner’s research involved the examination of –

Keywords for this question: Christy Turner’s research, examination of, 

We find the reference of Christy Turner’s research in section F.
Here, in lines 10-14, the writer says, “ . . . Studies carried out by Turner of many thousands of New and Old World specimens, both ancient and modern, . .. . .. .”

Therefore, it can be understood from these lines that Christy Turner’s research involved the examination of teeth from both ancient (prehistoric) and modern Americans and Asians.

So, the answer is: A (teeth from both prehistoric and modern Americans and Asians)

Reading Passage 3: Saving European forests

Questions 27-33:  TRUE, FALSE, NOT GIVEN

[In this type of question, candidates are asked to find out whether:

The statement in the question agrees with the information in the passage – TRUEThe statement in the question contradicts the information in the passage – FALSEIf there is no information on this  – NOT GIVEN

For this type of question, you can divide each statement into three independent pieces and make your way through with the answer.]

Question 27: Forest problems of Mediterranean countries are to be discussed at the next meeting of experts.

Keywords for this question: forest problems, Mediterranean countries, to be discussed, next meeting of experts,   

The reference of the Mediterranean countries is found in the last lines of paragraph no. 1. Let’s read the line, “Those confined to particular geographical areas, such as countries bordering the Mediterranean or the Nordic countries therefore had to be discarded. However, this does not mean that in future they will be ignored.”

These lines suggest that the first two meetings of experts had no chance to discuss the problems of the Mediterranean or the Nordic countries. However, they are hopeful that they might discuss it in the future but they are not sure when exactly that is going to happen. 

So, the answer is: NOT GIVEN

Question 28: Problems in Nordic countries were excluded because they are outside the European Economic Community.

Keywords for this question: problems, Nordic countries, excluded, because, outside, European Economic Community,  

Take a look at paragraph no. 1, lines 16-19 where the writer states, “ . .. . Their initial task was to decide which of the many forest problems of concern to Europe involved the largest number of countries and might be the subject of joint action. Those confined to particular geographical areas, such as countries bordering the Mediterranean or the Nordic countries, therefore, had to be discarded.”

This means the reason is to involve countries of Europe that involved largest number of countries and share the same issue. So, the action can be linked easily. The reason is not that Nordic countries are outside the European Economic Community.

Here, excluded = discarded,

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 29: Forests are a renewable source of raw material.

Keywords for this question: forests, renewable source, raw material,  

Take a look at paragraph no. 2, line no. 4-5 where the writer states, “.. . .. At the same time, forests provide raw materials for human activities through their constantly renewed production of wood.”

Here, the lines clearly and easily match the question.

So, the answer is: TRUE

Question 30: The biological functions of forests were recognised only in the twentieth century.

Keywords for this question: biological functions, forests, recognised, only, twentieth century,   

Paragraph no. 2 starts with this line, “As a whole, European countries see forests as performing a triple function: biological, economic and recreational.”

Then the author goes on to explain the time of recognising the functions in lines 8-10, “ . .. . The economic importance of forests has been understood since the dawn of man – wood was the first fuel. The other aspects have been recognised only for a few centuries. . . . .”

Here, other aspects = biological and recreational aspects of forests,

This means the biological functions of forests were recognised for a few centuries, not in the twentieth century only.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 31: Natural forests still exist in parts of Europe.

Keywords for this question: natural forests, still, exist, parts of Europe,

The answer can be traced at the beginning of paragraph no. 3. The writer says here, “The myth of the ‘natural’ forest has survived, yet there are effectively no remaining ‘primary’ forests in Europe. All European forests are artificial. . . .. ”

Here, myth = falsehood, primary forests = natural forests, artificial = not natural,

This means there are no primary or natural forests in Europe. All of them are artificial.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 32: Forest policy should be limited by national boundaries.

Keywords for this question: forest policy, should be limited, national boundaries,

In paragraph no. 3, the writer explains in lines 3-4, “ . . . This means that a forest policy is vital, that it must transcend national frontiers and generations of people, . .. .”

Here, transcend = rise above / go beyond, national frontiers = national boundaries,

The lines indicate that forest policy should not be limited by national frontiers or boundaries; it must transcend national boundaries.

So, the answer is: FALSE

Question 33: The Strasbourg conference decided that a forest policy must allow for the possibility of change.

Keywords for this question: Strasbourg conference, decided, forest policy, must allow, possibility of change,  

In paragraph no. 3, the writer explains, “. . . . a forest policy is vital, that it must transcend national frontiers and generations of people, and that it must allow for the inevitable changes that take place in the forests, in needs, and hence in policy. The Strasbourg conference was one of the first events on such a scale to reach this conclusion.”

Therefore, the Strasbourg conference decided/ reached the conclusion that a forest policy must allow for the inevitable changes (the possibility of change).

So, the answer is: TRUE

Questions 34-39: (Matching statements with appropriate information)

[In this type of question candidates are asked to match some statements with some information given from the passage. This type of question generally appears in passage 3. These questions will not follow any sequential order. So, skimming first for the keywords and then scanning to match the information is the best option to find answers to these questions.]

All the answers will be in the last paragraph because this paragraph talks about all the six resolutions.

Question 34: Resolution 1

Keywords for this question: Resolution 1,  

In the first line, the writer introduces the resolutions, “That general declaration was accompanied by six detailed resolutions to assist national policymaking.”

Then, in the next lines, the writer says, “ .. . The first proposes the extension and systematisation of surveillance sites to monitor forest decline.” Then in the next few lines, the author describes how forests are declining fast without proper monitoring.

Here, the extension and systematisation of surveillance sites = information is to be systematically gathered, forest decline = decline in the condition of forests,

So, the answer is: J (Information is to be systematically gathered on any decline in the condition of forests.)

Question 35: Resolution 2

Keywords for this question: Resolution 2, 

In lines 10-12 of paragraph no. 4, the writer says, “ . . . The second resolution concentrates on the need to preserve the genetic diversity of European forests. The aim is to reverse the decline in the number of tree species or at least to preserve the ‘genetic material’ of all of them.”

The lines suggest that the genetic material of all kinds of tree species need to be preserved.

So, the answer is: A (All kinds of species of trees should be preserved.)

Question 36: Resolution 3

Keywords for this question: Resolution 3, 

We find the mention of Resolution 3 in lines 11-15 which deals with forest fires, “ .. .. . Although forest fires do not affect all of Europe to the same extent, the amount of damage caused the experts to propose as the third resolution that the Strasbourg conference consider the establishment of a European databank on the subject. All information used in the development of national preventative policies would become generally available.”

Here, establishment of a European databank = information on forest fires should be preserved, all information . . . .would become generally available  = all information should be shared,

So, the answer is: E (Information on forest fires should be collected and shared.)

Question 37: Resolution 4

Keywords for this question: Resolution 4,   

In lines 15-19, the author talks about the fourth resolution on mountain forests, “ . .. .. The subject of the fourth resolution discussed by the ministers was mountain forests. In Europe, it is undoubtedly the mountain ecosystem which has changed most rapidly and is most at risk. A thinly scattered permanent population and development of leisure activities, particularly skiing, have resulted in significant long-term changes to the local ecosystems. Proposed developments include a preferential research program on mountain forests.”

So, the answer is: B (Fragile mountain forests should be given priority in research programs.)

Question 38: Resolution 5

Keywords for this question: Resolution 5, 

Lines 19-21 talk about the fifth resolution that discusses research into tree diseases, “ . . .. The fifth resolution  relaunched the European research network on the physiology of trees, called Eurosilva. Eurosilva should support joint European research on tree diseases and their physiological and biochemical aspects.”

Therefore, the statement indicates that necessary resources should be allocated to research into tree diseases and their physiological and biochemical matters.

So, the answer is: G (Resources should be allocated to research into tree diseases.)

Question 39: Resolution 6

Keywords for this question: Resolution 6, 

Lines 23-25 of paragraph no. 4 says, “ . . . . Finally, the conference established the framework for a European research network on forest ecosystems. This would also involve harmonising activities in individual countries as well as identifying a number of priority research topics relating to the protection of forests.”

Here, harmonising = co-ordinating,

The lines indicate that a research network is a much better way if harmonized or co-ordinated throughout Europe.

 So, the answer is: D (Research is to be better co-ordinated throughout Europe.)

Question 40: Multiple choice questions (Identifying the main purpose/aim of the passage)

[This type of question asks you to choose a suitable answer from the options that shows the main aim/purpose using the knowledge you gained from the passage. Generally, this question is found as the last question so you should not worry much about it. Finding all the answers to previous questions gives you a good idea about the title.]

What is the best title for Reading Passage 3?

Keywords for this question: best title, Reading Passage 3, 

If we closely look at the main ideas for all four paragraphs, we can find out the followings:

Paragraph no. 1 deals with the need for new policies by European nations to save their forests.

Paragraph no. 2 talks about the main work or function of forests.

Paragraph no. 3 describes the importance of policies that are coordinated.

Paragraph no. 4 talks about the six resolutions proposed in the Strasbourg conference to protect European forests.

Therefore, we can come to the conclusion that the purpose or aim of the passage is to provide plans to protect European forests.

So, the answer is: B (Plans to protect the forests of Europe)