Author: theieltsbridge

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 70

    Part 1: Questions 1-6
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Small claims tribunal – Claim form
    Claimant’s name: Emily-Jane Appleby

    Address: 1 Yeronga Street, (1) 
    Postcode: 4105
    Telephone No. (home): (2) 
    Respondent: (3) 
    Trading name: ABC appliances ltd
    Address: (4)  avenue, Bardon
    Postcode: (5) 
    Telephone no. (work): 72324681
    Date (of transaction): 3/2/2011
    Warranty: (6) 

    Questions 7-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Full particulars of claim
    Good: (7)  – (‘Mallard’ brand, ‘Whisper’ model, serial no. XY303)

    Agreed to pay: (8) £ 

    Good delivered on 5/3/2011

    ABC appliances picked up the trade in on the same date.

    Salesman said: Mallard Whisper model
    • Uses less energy because it has shorter cycle
    • Reduces the amount of (9)  used
    • Whisper quiet

    Complaint: the cycle is longer and the appliance is very (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    11. The coach is comfortable because it is 
    12. After all passengers are aboard, the coach will make its first stop at  Island
    13. The ‘Tree top walk’ is above a 
    14. Passengers will have a  with the alpacas before boarding the bus for home.

    Questions 15-20
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    (15)                   (16) 
    (17)                   (18) 
    (19)                  (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    21. According to the liaison officer, what do volunteers help provide? 
    22. What can volunteers help students check and correct? 
    23. What aspects of students’ self-management can volunteers assist greatly with improving? 
    24. What will volunteers try to develop in the students so that they exert themselves more? 
    25. What is it that teachers have that allows them to respond to individual student requirements?

    Many different 

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the summary below using the phrases from the box.

    Sharon and Lester have different (26)  Sharon studied business while Lester studied science. They are volunteering to help out at a school which is increasing its students’ (27)  in a number of subject areas. The (28)  programme is well underway. It’s a well equipped school and the liaison officer is particularly impressed by the (29)  The school offers many things to do outside the curriculum and students are encouraged to take part in (30) 

    A vocational learning experiences
    B practical components
    C self learning software
    D academic backgrounds
    E marine studies
    F interesting developments
    G scholastic competitions
    H building and construction

    Part 4: Questions 31-33
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    31. Someone in an anxiety state has worse  than normal.
    32. A phobia may stem from heredity or 
    33. The reason for the final breakdown is generally linked with  like the loss of a loved one or a health crisis.

    Questions 34-40
    Match the phobic state in the box to the symptoms below.

    Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-D next to questions 34-40.

    Phobic States
    A Single Phobia
    B Agoraphobia
    C Claustrophobia
    D Social phobia

    The sufferer:

    34. Feels extremely shy in company 
    35. Likes to sleep with the lights on 
    36. Fears leaving the house 
    37. Gets sweaty hands 
    38. Fears a particular creature 
    39. Fears small spaces 
    40. Has difficulty speaking in front of other people 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 69

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Celebrating 20 years

    Budget for meal: (1) $ 

    Meal C: cost – $50 per head
    Consists of prawns, and seafood platter with (2)  and oysters

    Meal D: cost – (3) $ 
    Consists of (4)  with (5)  soup, dessert and coffee

    Questions 6-10
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    6. The function will take place on the
     A 14th
     B 18th
     C 20th

    7. It will start at
     A 7 pm
     B 7.30 pm
     C 8 pm

    8. The dress code will be
     A smart casual
     B formal
     C casual

    9. Guests can
     A smoke freely
     B not smoke
     C smoke in special places

    10. Guests should bring a
     A card
     B gift
     C large box

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Fill in the timeline.

    Choose FIVE answers from the list and write the correct letter A-F next to questions 11-15.

    (11)                   (12) 
    (13)                  (14) 
    (15) 

    Questions 16-20
    Complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Changes to University Plaza
    16. Instead of concrete, the paths will be 
    17. The rear corner will have 
    18. The left hand strip will have a 
    19. In the middle, there will be 
    20. The walls will have 

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    PhysicistName of significant workReason for significance
    Galileo(21)………………..It (22)…………………..
    Newton(23)…………………..It (24)…………………..
    Einstein(25)…………………..It (26)…………………..

    (21)                (22) 
    (23)                (24) 
    (25)                (26) 

    Questions 27-30
    Choose the correct letter G, N or E. NB you may use a letter more than once.

    Which scientist does each person think was the greatest?
    27. Steve 
    28. David 
    29. Susan 
    30. Peter 

    G Galileo
    N Newton
    E Einstein

    Part 4: Questions 31 and 32
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. ‘Echo’ is an example of a
     A brand name
     B model name
     C symbol

    32. Calvin Klein and Sara Lee
     A are very popular
     B are nice sounding names
     C have many products

    Questions 33-35
    Choose THREE answers from the list and write the correct letter A-F next to questions 33-35.

    What type of name does each company use?

    33. Amazon 
    34. Safe and Sleek 
    35. Kodak 

    Type of name
    A Acronym
    B Descriptive
    C Evocative
    D Founders’ names
    E Neologism
    F Rhyming

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    ProductLogo/ symbolImage
    Marlboroa cowboysponsorship of (36)………………..
    Nike (37)…………….a single tickpower, speed, (38)………………….
    Rolex watchesa (39)………………….solid, smart, reliable
    Calvin Klein jeanthe nameput forward by a series of (40)……………advertisements

    (36)                  (37) 
    (38)                  (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 68

    Part 1: Questions 1-4
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Types of membership – 2

    1. How much is the life-time membership of the Society?
     A £1,535
     B £1,935
     C £1,537

    2. How much does the ordinary membership cost per year?
     A £293
     B £396
     C £193

    3. What are the opening times on week-days?
     A 9 am to 10 pm
     B 10 am to 9 pm
     C 10 am to 5 pm

    4. What is the arts programme at the Society like?
     A limited
     B wide
     C interesting

    Questions 5-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.

    Name Margaret (5) 
    Address 55 (6) 
    Postcode (7) 
    Work number 0207 895 2220 Extension (8) 
    Payment terms by (9) 
    Guest restrictions one per (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11 and 12
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO changes to the organization of this year’s festival are mentioned?
     A free parking
     B free refreshments
     C new uniforms
     D free concert
     E large tents

    Questions 13-15
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    TeamsPurposeMeeting pointTime
    Beach timepick up litterbeach (13)…………..8 am
    Town teamarrange (14)………………village hall(15)…………….am

    (13) 
    (14) 
    (15) 

    Questions 16-20
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    16. What does the speaker say about the judges in the competitions?
     A Most people judging will have some experience
     B None of the judges will have experience
     C Every judge will be experienced

    17. The winner in each of the competitions will
     A be given vouchers
     B be awarded a cash prize
     C receive book-tokens

    18. The profits from the marathon will be given to the Children’s Hospital to help
     A buy new specialist equipment
     B decorate the hospital wards
     C provide books for the children

    19. Wardens will be needed at the car park because
     A they helped organize the parking well last year
     B the parking last year was disorganized
     C they will be needed to collect parking fees

    20. Bags will be provided by the council
     A for all the rubbish
     B only for food rubbish
     C only for material that can be recycled

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. In the practice exams, the students did
     A two exams altogether
     B seven exams in total
     C eleven exams in total

    22. Adam thinks that essay papers are
     A inappropriate for assessing theoretical medical knowledge
     B not good for assessing practical medical knowledge
     C suitable for testing theoretical medical knowledge

    23. Mary criticizes multiple-choice questions, because
     A they require detailed instructions
     B they benefit women more than men
     C they favour men rather than women

    Questions 24 and 25
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO aspects of the role-play examination are mentioned?
     A the rest stations
     B 24 test stations
     C the recording
     D the examiners
     E the simulated patients

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    In the problem-solving tests, students had to work in groups of four people and (26)  to solve a problem. As they discussed the problem, (27)  watched them. As well as assessing the ability to speak, the problem-solving tested if people can (28)  , organize their thoughts and demonstrate they can be part of a (29)  Re-sits of the final exams are held in September. After that any problems are dealt with by (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-33
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. The Indian Ocean differs from the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans
     A by being closed in to the north
     B by being warmer than both
     C by extending into cold regions

    32. Approximately how much of the world’s total ocean area does the Indian Ocean constitute?
     A 7%
     B 20%
     C 25%

    33. The island of Madagascar is
     A the tip of a submerged ridge
     B the result of a volcanic eruption
     C structurally part of the continent of Africa

    Questions 34 and 35
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    34. Oceanographers and meteorologists are monitoring changes in the Indian ocean’s temperature and 
    35. An assessment is being made of the impact of the changes on low-lying  and 

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the flow-chart below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer .

    Data Processing

    Step 1: Ship off Antarctica

    Step 2: Buoys anchored at sea

    Step 3: Five buoys off Antarctica which are (36)………….and icebergs

    Step 4: Satellites recording the (37)……………of icebergs

    Step 5: (38)……………data received at institute

    Step 6: Constantly processed by a (39)…………of computers

    Step 7: Data collated

    Step 8: Then analysed by (40)……………around the world

    (36)                   (37) 
    (38)                   (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 67

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Hotel Armitage Booking Form
    Name: Kelvin Jones

    Booking number: (1) 
    Vehicle registration ID: (2) 
    Date of arrival: 21 May
    Room number: 501
    Type of room:
    Standard? Deluxe? Suite?: (3) 
    Extra requirements: (4) 
    Identification: driver’s licence
    Length of stay: (5) 

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the map below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    (6)                         (7) 
    (8)                         (9) 
    (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-13
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. The SIS is
     A a non-profit making organization
     B owned by an international corporation
     C a collective owned by ordinary people

    12. The SIS
     A has no fees
     B has low fees
     C avoids paying fees

    13. SIS accounts with the same customer number
     A will be charged for setting up automatic payments
     B attract no service charges
     C must have a minimum balance

    Questions 14-20
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    (14)                   (15) 
    (16)                   (17) 
    (18)                   (19) 
    (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    21. What period of English Literature will the conference cover? 
    22. How many panel discussions have been arranged? 
    23. What is the aim of a panel discussion? To present 

    Questions 24-30
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY.

    Procedure (dealt with by prof.)
    • Identify topic of interest involving some (24) 
    • Invite penalties
    • Select a (25) 
    • Decide on (26) 

    Guidelines
    • Introduction of topic and speakers-get (27)  information form prof.
    • Each panelist speaks for 2 mins-make a hand (28)  to show time is up
    • Primary function = panel discussion (about 40 mins)
    • Close discussion and give (29) 
    • Secondary function = question time (about 15-20 mins)
    • At end of question time panel is thanked and audience shows appreciation by (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Hydropower
    • Renewable-constant source of (31)  from natural hydrologic cycle
    • (32)  -90% of hydro energy-electric
    • Clean-no air or (33)  pollution
    • (34)  and durable-simple to operate
    • Flexible-can start and adapt quickly to meet demand-leads to (35)  of power supply

    Questions 36-38
    Label the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (36) 
    (37) 
    (38) 

    Questions 39-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    39. To be effective, hydroelectric dams should be built across rivers with both sufficient head and 

    40. There needs to be a balance between the needs of  living in developed environments and the preservation of natural habitat.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 66

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Things to do before we go
    Collect the currency
    Cancel appointment with the (1)  (Monday)
    Begin taking the (2)  (Tuesday)
    Buy (3)  , a small bag, a spare (4)  , an electrical (5) 
    Book a (6) 
    Instructions for Laura’s mum
    Feed the cat
    Vet’s details: Name: Colin (7) 
    Tel: (8) 
    Address: Fore street (opposite the (9)  )
    Water the plants
    Meet the heating engineer on (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Choose the correct answer A, B or C.

    Adbourne Film Festival

    11. Why was the Film Festival started?
     A To encourage local people to make films.
     B To bring more tourists to the town.
     C To use money released from another project.

    12. What is the price range for tickets?
     A £1.00-£2.50
     B 50p – £2.00
     C £1.50-£2.50

    13. As well as online, tickets for the films can be obtained
     A from the local library.
     B from several different shops.
     C from the two festival cinemas.

    14. Last year’s winning film was about
     A farms of the future.
     B schools and the environment.
     C green transport options.

    15. This year the competition prize is
     A a stay in a hotel.
     B film-making equipment.
     C a sum of money.

    16. The deadline for entering a film in the competition is the end of
     A May.
     B June.
     C July.

    Questions 17 and 18
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    What TWO main criteria are used to judge the film competition?

     A Ability to persuade.
     B Quality of the story.
     C Memorable characters.
     D Quality of photography.
     E Originality.

    Questions 19 and 20
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    What TWO changes will be made to the competition next year?

     A A new way of judging
     B A different length of time
     C An additional age category
     D Different performance times
     E New locations for performances

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Research on web-based crosswords

    21. Leela and Jake chose this article because
     A it was on a topic familiar to most students.
     B it covered both IT and education issues.
     C it dealt with a very straightforward concept.

    22. How did Leela and Jake persuade students to take part in their research?
     A They convinced them they would enjoy the experience.
     B They said it would help them do a particular test.
     C They offered to help them with their own research later on.

    23. Leela and Jake changed the design of the original questionnaire because
     A it was too short for their purposes.
     B it asked misleading questions.
     C it contained out-of-date points.

    24. Leela was surprised by the fact that
     A it is normal for questionnaire returns to be low.
     B so many students sent back their questionnaires.
     C the questionnaire responses were of such high quality.

    Questions 25-26
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    What TWO things did respondents say they liked most about doing the crossword?

     A It helped them spell complex technical terms.
     B It was an enjoyable experience.
     C It helped them concentrate effectively.
     D It increased their general motivation to study.
     E It showed what they still needed to study.

    Questions 27-28
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    In which TWO areas did these research findings differ from those of the original study?

     A Students’ interest in doing similar exercises.
     B How much students liked doing the crossword.
     C Time taken to do the crossword.
     D Gender differences in appreciation.
     E Opinions about using crosswords for formal assessment.

    Questions 29-30
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    What TWO skills did Leela and Jake agree they had learned from the project?

     A How to manage their time effectively.
     B How to process numerical data.
     C How to design research tools.
     D How to reference other people’s work.
     E How to collaborate in research

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Job satisfaction study
    Workers involved in the study were employed at a (31) 

    Despite some apparent differences between groups of workers, the survey results were statistically (32) 

    The speaker analysed the study’s (33)  to identify any problems with it.

    The various sub-groups were (34)  in size.

    Workers in the part-time group were mainly (35) 

    The (36)  of workers who agreed to take part in the study was disappointing.

    Researchers were unable to (37)  the circumstances in which workers filled out the questionnaire.

    In future, the overall size of the (38)  should be increased.

    In future studies, workers should be prevented from having discussions with (39) 

    Workers should be reassured that their responses to questions are (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 65

    Part 1: Questions 1-4
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    The customer is going to France for: 1 week

    Traveller’s cheques can be replace within (1) 
    Having a little cash is useful for things like (2) 
    The bank charges for ATM withdrawals with a (3) 

    Questions 4-7
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    OrderCollect in branchHome delivery
    Monday-Thursdaynext daynext day
    Before (4)……………….pm10 am(5)……………..pm
    Friday-SaturdayTuesdayTuesday
    (6)……………………..10 am(7)……………pm

    (4)                       (5) 
    (6)                       (7) 

    Questions 8-10
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    8. The bank will buy back unused traveller’s cheques
     A free of charge
     B for a small fee
     C if they are returned in good condition

    9. Sandra does not want Euros because she
     A already has some
     B will be given some
    C will be buying some at the airport

    10. On Tuesday Sandra will
     A collect the cheques from the branch
     B be at work
     C sign for the cheques at home

    Part 2: Question 11

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. NUS extra cards
     A are offered free to all students
     B are recongnised internationally
     C give you a year’s worth of discounts

    Questions 12-15
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Student Railcards
    • For young people between 16 and 25
    • Mature students 25+ studying in (12) 
    • Get (13)  train fares in the UK
    • 1 year (14) £ 
    • 3 years (15) 

    Questions 16-17
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Local bus operators offer bus passes

     A especially for students
     B for various lengths of time
     C that are cheaper the longer the period
     D for use only for commuting
     E that can be used by your friends

    Questions 18-20
    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to 18-20

    Which places are useful for the following?

    A Household items
    B Vintage clothes
    C Second-hand textbooks

    18. the university campus 
    19. charity shops 
    20. car boot sales 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.Autumn term: Key dates

    Term starts15th September
    Release timetables15th September
    Release (21)……………….14th October
    All assignments onlineby (22)…………………
    Release grades of first assignment(23)…………………
    Release (24)………………..for Belgium trip29th October
    Belgium trip(25)…………………

    (21)                       (22) 
    (23)                      (24) 
    (25) 

    Questions 26-30
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    26. The college is trying to
     A significantly reduce the amount of paper it uses
     B be careful about the amount of documents it produces
     C discover why students keep losing their work

    27. According to the text, students at the college
     A are not allowed to print documents
     B have restrictions on how many pages they can print
     C have to pay to do any printing

    28. The college
     A has permission to reproduce the quizzes
     B wants the students to give them feedback about the quizzes
     C thinks the online quizzes are more effective than the paper ones

    29. The tutor explains that
     A the quizzes are easy to find on the intranet
     B the quizzes will be online for a few weeks only
     C the majority of the quizzes are online

    30. The online quiz system
     A occasionally does not work
     B keeps the quiz results confidential
     C allows tutors to identify areas where the students many be having difficulties

    Part 4: Questions 31-34
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    31.  times are less common within the family
    32. We may eat more than we need due to our 
    33. Eating habits can be affected by both  emotions.
    34. People who are  are more likely to eat more due to negative emotions.

    Questions 35-39
    Answer the questions below.

    Which type of hunger relates to the points below?

    Write E for emotional hunger. Write P for physical hunger.

    35. Experiences a sudden urge to eat 
    36. Hungers for any type of food 
    37. Need to satisfy the hunger as soon as possible 
    38. Will stop eating once full 
    39. Will feel no sense of guilt after eating 

    Question 40
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    40. People suffering from obesity can be helped by
     A taking the pressure off them about feeling guilty
     B understanding why they have negative feelings
     C pinpointing stressful moments that can cause emotional hunger

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 64

    Part 1: Questions 1-4
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Name:Barbara Hill
    Location:(1)……………………..London
    Postcode:SW105
    Rooms:Two (2)………………….bedrooms
    The other room used as:An (3)…………………….
    Downstairs:Kitchen-diner, conservatory and (4)……………….
    Pets:2 dogs and 3 cats

    (1)                    (2) 
    (3)                   (4) 

    Questions 5-7
    Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

    5. Which of these extra services does the customer agree to do?
     A Change the bed linen
     B Do some gardening work
     C Clean the glass

    6. What does the customer want cleaned every three months?
     A Curtains
     B Carpets
     C Mats

    7. What does the customer want done with clothes?
     A Wash and iron the clothes
     B Iron the clothes
     C Clean and dry the clothes

    Questions 8-10
    Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    The agent’s address is 12 (8)  Road.
    Her house will get cleaned next (9) 
    The maximum time of cleaning service is (10)  hours

    Part 2: Questions 11-17
    Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

    11. The main purpose of the service is to
     A educate people.
     B persuade people to fly.
     C provide people with comfort.

    12. The number of people working at Sydney Airport is
     A 200
     B 360
     C 440

    13. Dogs are chosen according to
     A their ability to stay calm.
     B their friendliness.
     C their skill at locating narcotics.

    14. The number of postal items processed last year amounted to
     A 4,400.
     B 52,000.
     C 72,000.

    15. People carrying items that are not allowed
     A will get arrested.
     B will be refused on board.
     C will be given a warning.

    16. Which of the following is NOT allowed to be taken on the flight?
     A Carry-on items
     B Plant seeds
     C Parcels

    17. What is the proper security protocol for a pocket knife found in a carry-on suitcase?
     A It is returned to the passenger after examination.
     B It is thrown away in a safe receptacle.
     C It is passed on to higher-level authorities.

    Questions 18-20
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    The acceptable material for packing goods in Australia is (18) 
    The belongings most of time are refused due to problems with the (19) 
    The customs must be given notice of the goods from (20)  days before it arrives in Australia.

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 21-26.

    (21)                    (22) 
    (23)                   (24) 
    (25)                   (26) 

    A Video resource centre
    B Reading room
    C Food service centre
    D Periodicals section
    E Enquiry desk
    F Satellite TV station

    Questions 27-30
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    If you need to find information on a certain book, you can use (27)  check-out cards.

    If you want to find information in a specific field, use the (28)  guides.

    Computers in some (29)  cannot be linked to the network.

    You can find more information in a (30)  on my desk.

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

    31. The student thought there were no crocodiles in Northern Africa because
     A North Africa contains very little wildlife for the crocodile to prey on.
     B she found no mention in the literature of their existence there.
     C there is very little water in North Africa.

    32. Generally, crocodiles live in groups of about
     A 20
     B 38
     C 46

    33. African crocodiles usually live in areas with
     A hot, dry climates.
     B hot, wet rainforests.
     C warm, wet climates.

    34. Crocodiles in dry areas live in caves located
     A underground.
     B in mountainsides.
     C underwater.

    35. What change caused changes in crocodile populations in North Africa?
     A They were driven away by a fierce predator.
     B Crocodiles evolved from desert creatures to wetland creatures.
     C North Africa used to be wetland but slowly turned to desert over time.

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Desert crocodiles sometimes live in places with dry periods that last up to (36)  months.

    A hole dug by a female crocodile in which to lay eggs can have a (37)  of up to 60 cm.

    Local people are not (38)  crocodiles.

    Crocodiles (39)  out of fear when humans populate their habitat.

    Researchers want to study more about population size, (40)  , and relations to other populations of crocodiles.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 63

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the information below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER.

    House Rental

    Name: Mary Collins
    Facility available: (1) 
    General layout: upstairs: living room
    Bedrooms
    Downstairs: (2) 
    Car park: availability of a large (3) 
    Shopping: at the (4) 
    Place for children playing: (5) 
    Education resources: a (6)  in the community
    Rent: $980 a month
    (including the maintenance fees of the (7)  )
    Date of house available: (8) 
    Viewing arrangement (time): meet at (9) 
    Postcode: GA58ER
    Address: 8 (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. What’s the new improvement about the zoo this time?
     A The zoo has built a new dog-walking area.
     B The zoo has brought a new batch of animals
     C The zoo has expanded its exhibition area.

    12. What is the change for the new regulation enacted in June?
     A The zoo is not open during the weekdays.
     B Visitors are allowed to feed the animals at night
     C Visitors are allowed to see the animals until the late night.

    13. While visiting the kangaroo, which behaviour is forbidden?
     A Photo-taking
     B Shouting
     C Feeding

    14. Why is the pye-dog zone temporarily closed?
     A Because the fence is broken.
     B Because the pye-dogs are in hibernation
     C Because the pye-dog zone is under construction.

    15. Where can the visitors buy the discounted ticket?
     A Gift shop
     B Photo shop
     C Reception desk

    Questions 16-20
    Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-H next to questions 16-20.

    16. Bird hide 
    17. Pye-dog zone 
    18. Rest area 
    19. Kangaroo visiting site 
    20. Photo shop 

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. The course has improved the environment since
     A it was regulated by law.
     B more students were involved.
     C more species were brought from other places.

    22. What is the biggest reason why the organisation improved greatly?
     A It was funded by a private investor
     B It sold out its shares.
     C It got the governmental fund in the first year.

    23. What is suggested from the reports?
     A Resources still need management.
     B Teachers and the students have benefitted from the field trips.
     C The environment has been terribly damaged.

    24. Who did obtain the special experience from the field trip carried out by the organisation?
     A students
     B teachers
     C researchers

    Questions 25 and 26
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO problems does the report focus on?

     A air pollution
     B soil erosion
     C overgrazing
     D forest exploitation
     E water pollution

    Questions 27 and 28
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO benefits of this activity to the students are mentioned by the professor?

     A they become more punctual
     B they feel more confident
     C they get practical experience
     D they learn how to collect data
     E they know the importance of environment protection

    Questions 29 and 30
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO things will the woman do in the rest of the time when no activities are going on?

     A read more reference books
     B study in library
     C interview some teachers
     D participate in one of fun hobbies
     E join in some tutorials

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    ROBERTS COMPANY
    Founding
    • The most important principal of the company is to improve the (31)  development of camera technology.

    Aim
    • It was founded by Dwayne Roberts in 1957 and mainly explore (32) 

    Potential applications
    • recording high-definition video
    • discovering (33) 
    • searching plants in the rainforest to experiment (34) 
    • distributing more across the road network to control (35) 

    At present
    • (36)  are the best sellers in the company.
    • They are designed to look like (37) 
    • The company is working on a tiny (38)  to change the way people see photography.

    Other applications
    • Surgeries could be faster and more (39) 

    Internship opportunity
    • To get it, the students can participate in the (40)  organised by the company every year.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 62

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Survey form
    Dealing with: exercise

    Time contacted: (1) 
    Suburb: (2) 
    Age group: (3) 
    Occupation: (4) 
    Family: (5) 

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the summary. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

    The subject undertakes exercise by regularly (6)  She does yoga in order to relax and (7)  her muscles. When she was younger she would (8)  , and in the future, she may (9)  , although that will depend on whether she has enough (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Label the floor plan. Write correct letter A-F for each answer.

    11. Quiet reading 
    12. Computers 
    13. Newspapers and magazines 
    14. Reference books 
    15. Audio section 
    16. Main library 

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the timetable. Write the correct letter A-J for each answer.

    17. Teacher-led discussion 
    18. Writing skills 
    19. On-call teacher 
    20. Language exchange 

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

    One of the basic strategies when listening to lectures is to use (21)  This saves time, but it is only effective if they can be (22)  later. More generally, it is necessary to (23)  the page in anticipation of the nature of the lecture. As an example, one can draw (24)  , tables and flowcharts, consistent with the way the subject matter is presented.

    Questions 25-30
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

    (25)                 (26) 
    (27)                 (28) 
    (29)                 (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (31)                    (32) 
    (33)                   (34) 
    (35) 

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the diagram. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    (36)                  (37) 
    (38)                  (39) 
    (40) 


  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 61

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Customer details:
    • They will be coming to London on (1) 
    • He’s going with his sister and his (2) 

    Tour details:
    • Bus tour
    o The cost is (3) £  for adults and (4) £  for children
    o Tours start at 7 am and finish at (5) 

    Questions 6-8
    Choose TWO letters A-G.

    Which three places does the tourist decide he’s likely to see?
     A Buckingham Palace
     B Big Ben
     C Harrods
     D Houses of Parliament
     E Hyde Park
     F St Paul’s Cathedral
     G London Eye

    Questions 9-10
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    9. How will the tourist buy the tickets?
     A By phone
     B Online
     C On the bus

    10. How long before he leaves should he buy his tickets?
     A 1 week
     B 6 weeks
     C 3 months

    Part 2: Questions 11-12
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. Each day, pandas need to eat:
     A Very little nutrition
     B 12-38 kg of bamboo
     C 330 pounds of bamboo

    12. If pandas are cared for away from the wild, they can live for approximately:
     A 6 months
     B 14-20 years
     C 30 years

    Questions 13-14
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Select two things that are endangering pandas:
     A Public awareness
     B Ecotourism
     C Poaching
     D Other wildlife
     E Building of roads and railroads

    Questions 15-16
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER.

    15. What proportion of the panda population in China is protected by reserves? 
    16. What did the WWF create which encouraged people to support pandas? 

    Questions 17 – 20
    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND / OR A NUMBER.

    Reasons that pandas may not be worth saving:
    • They are extremely (17)  to look after
    • They have a diet that is not (18) 
    • They get sick easily and are hard to breed

    Reasons that pandas should not be allowed to die out:
    • They are in danger because (19)  are damaging the forests
    • We should protect their homes because other animals live there
    • The number of pandas in the wild is (20)  so they will not become extinct

    Part 3: Questions 21 and 22
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. What is the problem that the students are having with the project?
     A The readings are too difficult
     B The readings are not interesting
     C The project is taking too long

    22. When can extensions be granted?
     A Problems with planning
     B Illness or accidents
     C Scheduling issues

    Questions 23-27
    Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A–G next to questions 23–27.

    A knowledge about their customers
    B long-term gain
    C competition
    D customer satisfaction
    E employees
    F external factors

    23. Princeton Windows 
    24. MK Cars 
    25. Lakeside Golf 
    26. Bryson’s Meats 
    27. Mojo’s Music Shop 

    Questions 28-30
    Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 28-30.

    A It has good managers
    B It has been operating for too long
    C There aren’t enough music shops
    D It needs more innovative marketing
    E It will close down in the end
    F It has a good long-term future

    28. Sarah 
    29. John 
    30. Neil 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Behavior or dolphins
    • almost 40 species of dolphin
    • found (31) 
    • usually in shallower seas
    • carnivores

    SOCIALISING
    • very sociable and live in pods
    • super-pods may have more than (32)  dolphins
    • have strong social bonds
    • help other animals – Moko helped a whale and calf escape from (33) 
    • have been known to assist swimmers

    CULTURE
    • discovered in May 2005 that young bottlenose dolphins learn to (34) 
    • dolphins pass knowledge from mothers to daughters, whereas primates pass to (35) 

    AGGRESSION
    • dolphins may be aggressive towards each other
    • Like humans, this is due to disagreements over (36)  and competition for females
    • Infanticide sometimes occurs and the killing of porpoises

    FOOD
    • dolphins have a variety of feeding methods, some of which are (37)  to one population
    • methods include:
    o herding
    o corralling
    (38)  or strand feeding
    o whacking fish with their flukes

    PLAYING
    • have a variety of playful activities
    • common behaviour with an object or small animal include:
    o carrying it along
    o passing it along
    (39)  away from another dolphin throwing it out the water
    • may harass other animals
    • playful behaviour may include other (40)  such as humans