Author: theieltsbridge

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 7

    A CHRONICLE OF TIMEKEEPING

    A According to archaeological evidence, at least 5,000 years ago, and long before the advent of the Roman Empire, the Babylonians began to measure time, introducing calendars to co-ordinate communal activities, to plan the shipment of goods and, in particular, to regulate planting and harvesting. They based their calendars on three natural cycles: the solar day, marked by the successive periods of light and darkness as the earth rotates on its axis; the lunar month, following the phases of the moon as it orbits the earth; and the solar year, defined by the changing seasons that accompany our planet’s revolution around the sun.

    B Before the invention of artificial light, the moon had greater social impact. And, for those living near the equator in particular, its waxing and waning was more conspicuous than the passing of the seasons. Hence, the calendars that were developed at the lower latitudes were influenced more by the lunar cycle than by the solar year. In more northern climes, however, where seasonal agriculture was practised, the solar year became more crucial. As the Roman Empire expanded northward, it organised its activity chart for the most part around the solar year.

    C Centuries before the Roman Empire, the Egyptians had formulated a municipal calendar having 12 months of 30 days, with five days added to approximate the solar year. Each period of ten days was marked by the appearance of special groups of stars called decans. At the rise of the star Sirius just before sunrise, which occurred around the all-important annual flooding of the Nile, 12 decans could be seen spanning the heavens. The cosmic significance the Egyptians placed in the 12 decans led them to develop a system in which each interval of darkness (and later, each interval of daylight) was divided into a dozen equal parts. These periods became known as temporal hours because their duration varied according to the changing length of days and nights with the passing of the seasons. Summer hours were long, winter ones short; only at the spring and autumn equinoxes were the hours of daylight and darkness equal. Temporal hours, which were first adopted by the Greeks and then the Romans, who disseminated them through Europe, remained in use for more than 2,500 years.

    D In order to track temporal hours during the day, inventors created sundials, which indicate time by the length or direction of the sun’s shadow. The sundial’s counterpart, the water clock, was designed to measure temporal hours at night. One of the first water clocks was a basin with a small hole near the bottom through which the water dripped out. The falling water level denoted the passing hour as it dipped below hour lines inscribed on the inner surface. Although these devices performed satisfactorily around the Mediterranean, they could not always be depended on in the cloudy and often freezing weather of northern Europe.

    E The advent of the mechanical clock meant that although it could be adjusted to maintain temporal hours, it was naturally suited to keeping equal ones. With these, however, arose the question of when to begin counting, and so, in the early 14th century, a number of systems evolved. The schemes that divided the day into 24 equal parts varied according to the start of the count: Italian hours began at sunset, Babylonian hours at sunrise, astronomical hours at midday and ‘great clock’ hours, used for some large public clocks in Germany, at midnight. Eventually these were superseded by ‘small clock’, or French, hours, which split the day into two 12-hour periods commencing at midnight.

    F The earliest recorded weight-driven mechanical clock was built in 1283 in Bedfordshire in England. The revolutionary aspect of this new timekeeper was neither the descending weight that provided its motive force nor the gear wheels (which had been around for at least 1,300 years) that transferred the power; it was the part called the escapement. In the early 1400s came the invention of the coiled spring or fusee which maintained constant force to the gear wheels of the timekeeper despite the changing tension of its mainspring. By the 16th century, a pendulum clock had been devised, but the pendulum swung in a large arc and thus was not very efficient.

    G To address this, a variation on the original escapement was invented in 1670, in England. It was called the anchor escapement, which was a lever-based device shaped like a ship’s anchor. The motion of a pendulum rocks this device so that it catches and then releases each tooth of the escape wheel, in turn allowing it to turn a precise amount. Unlike the original form used in early pendulum clocks, the anchor escapement permitted the pendulum to travel in a very small arc. Moreover, this invention allowed the use of a long pendulum which could beat once a second and thus led to the development of a new floor standing case design, which became known as the grandfather clock.

    H Today, highly accurate timekeeping instruments set the beat for most electronic devices. Nearly all computers contain a quartz-crystal clock to regulate their operation. Moreover, not only do time signals beamed down from Global Positioning System satellites calibrate the functions of precision navigation equipment, they do so as well for mobile phones, instant stock-trading systems and nationwide power-distribution grids. So integral have these time-based technologies become to day-to-day existence that our dependency on them is recognised only when they fail to work.

    Questions 1-4
    Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs, A-H. Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 1- 4 on your answer sheet.

    1 a description of an early timekeeping invention affected by cold temperatures
    2 an explanation of the importance of geography in the development of the calendar in farming communities
    3 a description of the origins of the pendulum clock
    4 details of the simultaneous efforts of different societies to calculate time using uniform hours

    Questions 5-8
    Look at the following events (Questions 5-8) and the list of nationalities below. Match each event with the correct nationality, A-F. Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet.

    5 They devised a civil calendar in which the months were equal in length.
    6 They divided the day into two equal halves.
    7 They developed a new cabinet shape for a type of timekeeper.
    8 They created a calendar to organise public events and work schedules.

    A Babylonians
    B Egyptians
    C Greeks
    D English
    E Germans
    F French

    Questions 9-13
    Label the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

    AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL IN THE USA

    A An accident that occurred in the skies over the Grand Canyon in 1956 resulted in the establishment of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) to regulate and oversee the operation of aircraft in the skies over the United States, which were becoming quite congested. The resulting structure of air traffic control has greatly increased the safety of flight in the United States, and similar air traffic control procedures are also in place over much of the rest of the world.

    B Rudimentary air traffic control (АТС) existed well before the Grand Canyon disaster. As early as the 1920s, the earliest air traffic controllers manually guided aircraft in the vicinity of the airports, using lights and flags, while beacons and flashing lights were placed along cross-country routes to establish the earliest airways. However, this purely visual system was useless in bad weather, and, by the 1930s, radio communication was coming into use for АТС. The first region to have something approximating today’s АТС was New York City, with other major metropolitan areas following soon after.

    C In the 1940s, АТС centres could and did take advantage of the newly developed radar and improved radio communication brought about by the Second World War, but the system remained rudimentary. It was only after the creation of the FAA that full-scale regulation of America’s airspace took place, and this was fortuitous, for the advent of the jet engine suddenly resulted in a large number of very fast planes, reducing pilots’ margin of error and practically demanding some set of rules to keep everyone well separated and operating safely in the air.

    D Many people think that АТС consists of a row of controllers sitting in front of their radar screens at the nation’s airports, telling arriving and departing traffic what to do. This is a very incomplete part of the picture. The FAA realised that the airspace over the United States would at any time have many different kinds of planes, flying for many different purposes, in a variety of weather conditions, and the same kind of structure was needed to accommodate all of them.

    E To meet this challenge, the following elements were put into effect. First, АТС extends over virtually the entire United States. In general, from 365m above the ground and higher, the entire country is blanketed by controlled airspace. In certain areas, mainly near airports, controlled airspace extends down to 215m above the ground, and, in the immediate vicinity of an airport, all the way down to the surface. Controlled airspace is that airspace in which FAA regulations apply. Elsewhere, in uncontrolled airspace, pilots are bound by fewer regulations. In this way, the recreational pilot who simply wishes to go flying for a while without all the restrictions imposed by the FAA has only to stay in uncontrolled airspace, below 365m, while the pilot who does want the protection afforded by АТС can easily enter the controlled airspace.

    F The FAA then recognised two types of operating environments. In good meteorological conditions, flying would be permitted under Visual Flight Rules (VFR), which suggests a strong reliance on visual cues to maintain an acceptable level of safety. Poor visibility necessitated a set of Instrumental Flight Rules (IFR), under which the pilot relied on altitude and navigational information provided by the plane’s instrument panel to fly safely. On a clear day, a pilot in controlled airspace can choose a VFR or IFR flight plan, and the FAA regulations were devised in a way which accommodates both VFR and IFR operations in the same airspace. However, a pilot can only choose to fly IFR if they possess an instrument rating which is above and beyond the basic pilot’s license that must also be held.

    G Controlled airspace is divided into several different types, designated by letters of the alphabet. Uncontrolled airspace is designated Class F, while controlled airspace below 5,490m above sea level and not in the vicinity of an airport is Class E. All airspace above 5,490m is designated Class A. The reason for the division of Class E and Class A airspace stems from the type of planes operating in them. Generally, Class E airspace is where one finds general aviation aircraft (few of which can climb above 5,490m anyway), and commercial turboprop aircraft. Above 5,490m is the realm of the heavy jets, since jet engines operate more efficiently at higher altitudes. The difference between Class E and A airspace is that in Class A, all operations are IFR, and pilots must be instrument-rated, that is, skilled and licensed in aircraft instrumentation. This is because АТС control of the entire space is essential. Three other types of airspace, Classes D, С and B, govern the vicinity of airports. These correspond roughly to small municipal, medium-sized metropolitan and major metropolitan airports respectively, and encompass an increasingly rigorous set of regulations. For example, all a VFR pilot has to do to enter Class С airspace is establish two-way radio contact with АТС. No explicit permission from АТС to enter is needed, although the pilot must continue to obey all regulations governing VFR flight. To enter Class В airspace, such as on approach to a major metropolitan airport, an explicit АТС clearance is required. The private pilot who cruises without permission into this airspace risks losing their license.

    Questions 14-19
    Reading passage 2 has seven paragraphs A-G. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A and C-G from the list below. Write the correct number i-x in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings

    i Disobeying FAA Regulations
    ii Aviation disaster prompts action
    iii Two coincidental developments
    iv Setting Altitude Zones
    v An oversimplified view
    vi Controlling pilots’ licence
    vii Defining airspace categories
    viii Setting rules to weather conditions
    ix Taking of Safety
    x First step towards ATC

    Example – Paragraph B                 x
    14 Paragraph A
    15 Paragraph C
    16 Paragraph D
    17 Paragraph E
    18 Paragraph F
    19 Paragraph G

    Questions 20-26
    Do the following statements agree with the given information of the reading passage? In boxes 20-26 on your answer sheet, write:

    TRUE                          if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE                        if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

    20 The FAA was created as a result of the introduction of the jet engine.
    21 Air traffic control started after the Grand Canyon crash in 1956.
    22 Beacons and flashing lights are still used by the ATC today.
    23 Some improvements were made in radio communication during World War II.
    24 Class F airspace is airspace which is below 365m and not near airports.
    25 All aircraft in class E airspace must use IFR.
    26 A pilot entering class C airspace is flying over an average-sized city.

    TELEPATHY

    Since the 1970s, parapsychologists at leading universities and research institutes around the world have risked the derision of sceptical colleagues by putting the various claims for telepathy to the test in dozens of rigorous scientific studies. The results and their implications are dividing even the researchers who uncovered them.

    Some researchers say the results constitute compelling evidence that telepathy is genuine. Other parapsychologists believe the field is on the brink of collapse, having tried to produce definitive scientific proof and failed. Sceptics and advocates alike do concur on one issue, however: that the most impressive evidence so far has come from the so-called ‘ganzfeld’ experiments, a German term that means ‘whole field’. Reports of telepathic experiences had by people during meditation led parapsychologists to suspect that telepathy might involve ‘signals’ passing between people that were so faint that they were usually swamped by normal brain activity. In this case, such signals might be more easily detected by those experiencing meditation-like tranquility in a relaxing ‘whole field’ of light, sound and warmth.

    The ganzfeld experiment tries to recreate these conditions with participants sitting in soft reclining chairs in a sealed room, listening to relaxing sounds while their eyes are covered with special filters letting in only soft pink light. In early ganzfeld experiments, the telepathy test involved identification of a picture chosen from a random selection of four taken from a large image bank. The idea was that a person acting as a ‘sender’ would attempt to beam the image over to the ‘receiver’ relaxing in the sealed room. Once the session was over, this person was asked to identify which of the four images had been used. Random guessing would give a hit-rate of 25 per cent; if telepathy is real, however, the hit-rate would be higher. In 1982, the results from the first ganzfeld studies were analysed by one of its pioneers, the American parapsychologist Charles Honorton. They pointed to typical hit-rates of better than 30 per cent – a small effect, but one which statistical tests suggested could not be put down to chance.

    The implication was that the ganzfeld method had revealed real evidence for telepathy. But there was a crucial flaw in this argument – one routinely overlooked in more conventional areas of science. Just because chance had been ruled out as an explanation did not prove telepathy must exist; there were many other ways of getting positive results. These ranged from ‘sensory leakage’ – where clues about the pictures accidentally reach the receiver – to outright fraud. In response, the researchers issued a review of all the ganzfeld studies done up to 1985 to show that 80 per cent had found statistically significant evidence. However, they also agreed that there were still too many problems in the experiments which could lead to positive results, and they drew up a list demanding new standards for future research.

    After this, many researchers switched to autoganzfeld tests – an automated variant of the technique which used computers to perform many of the key tasks such as the random selection of images. By minimising human involvement, the idea was to minimise the risk of flawed results. In 1987, results from hundreds of autoganzfeld tests were studied by Honorton in a ‘meta-analysis’, a statistical technique for finding the overall results from a set of studies. Though less compelling than before, the outcome was still impressive.

    Yet some parapsychologists remain disturbed by the lack of consistency between individual ganzfeld studies. Defenders of telepathy point out that demanding impressive evidence from every study ignores one basic statistical fact: it takes large samples to detect small effects. If, as current results suggest, telepathy produces hit-rates only marginally above the 25 per cent expected by chance, it’s unlikely to be detected by a typical ganzfeld study involving around 40 people: the group is just not big enough. Only when many studies are combined in a meta-analysis will the faint signal of telepathy really become apparent. And that is what researchers do seem to be finding.

    What they are certainly not finding, however, is any change in attitude of mainstream scientists: most still totally reject the very idea of telepathy. The problem stems at least in part from the lack of any plausible mechanism for telepathy.

    Various theories have been put forward, many focusing on esoteric ideas from theoretical physics. They include ‘quantum entanglement’, in which events affecting one group of atoms instantly affect another group, no matter how far apart they may be. While physicists have demonstrated entanglement with specially prepared atoms, no-one knows if it also exists between atoms making up human minds. Answering such questions would transform parapsychology. This has prompted some researchers to argue that the future lies not in collecting more evidence for telepathy, but in probing possible mechanisms. Some work has begun already, with researchers trying to identify people who are particularly successful in autoganzfeld trials. Early results show that creative and artistic people do much better than average: in one study at the University of Edinburgh, musicians achieved a hit-rate of 56 per cent. Perhaps more tests like these will eventually give the researchers the evidence they are seeking and strengthen the case for the existence of telepathy.

    Questions 27-30
    Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A —G, below. Write the correct letter, A—G, in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

    27 Researchers with differing attitudes towards telepathy agree on
    28 Reports of experiences during meditation indicated
    29 Attitudes to parapsychology would alter drastically with
    30 Recent autoganzfeld trials suggest that success rates will improve with

    A the discovery of a mechanism for telepathy.
    B the need to create a suitable environment for telepathy.
    C their claims of a high success rate.
    D a solution to the problem posed by random guessing.
    E the significance of the ganzfeld experiments.
    F a more careful selection of subjects.
    G a need to keep altering conditions.

    Questions 31-40
    Complete the table below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
    Write your answers in boxes 31-40 on your answer sheet.

    TELEPATHY EXPERIMENTS
    Name/ DateDescriptionResultFlas
    Ganzfeld studies 1982involved a person acting as a (31)……………….who picked out one (32)……………. from a random selection of four and a (33)………………. who then tried to identify ithit rates were higher than with random guessingpositive results could be produced by factors such as (34)…………. or (35)…………..
    Autoganzfeld studies 1987(36)…………….were used for key tasks to limit the amount of (37)…………. in carrying out the teststhe results were then subjected to a (38)………….the (39)………….. between different test results were put down to the fact that sample groups were not (40)…………. (as with most ganzfled studies)
  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 6

    Sheet Glass Manufacture: the Float Process

    Glass, which has been made since the time of the Mesopotamians and Egyptians, is little more than a mixture of sand, soda ash and lime. When heated to about 1500 degrees Celsius (°C) this becomes a molten mass that hardens when slowly cooled. The first successful method for making clear, flat glass involved spinning. This method was very effective as the glass had not touched any surfaces between being soft and becoming hard, so it stayed perfectly unblemished, with a ‘fire finish’. However, the process took a long time and was labour intensive.

    evertheless, demand for flat glass was very high and glassmakers across the world were looking for a method of making it continuously. The first continuous ribbon process involved squeezing molten glass through two hot rollers, similar to an old mangle. This allowed glass of virtually any thickness to be made non-stop, but the rollers would leave both sides of the glass marked, and these would then need to be ground and polished. This part of the process rubbed away around 20 per cent of the glass, and the machines were very expensive.

    The float process for making flat glass was invented by Alistair Pilkington. This process allows the manufacture of clear, tinted and coated glass for buildings, and clear and tinted glass for vehicles. Pilkington had been experimenting with improving the melting process, and in 1952 he had the idea of using a bed of molten metal to form the flat glass, eliminating altogether the need for rollers within the float bath. The metal had to melt at a temperature less than the hardening point of glass (about 600°C), but could net boil at a temperature below the temperature of the molten glass (about 1500°C). The best metal for the job was tin.

    The rest of the concept relied on gravity, which guaranteed that the surface of the molten metal was perfectly flat and horizontal. Consequently, when pouring molten glass onto the molten tin, the underside of the glass would also be perfectly flat. If the glass were kept hot enough, it would flow over the molten tin until the top surface was also flat, horizontal and perfectly parallel to the bottom surface. Once the glass cooled to 604°C or less it was too hard to mark and could be transported out of the cooling zone by rollers. The glass settled to a thickness of six millimetres because of surface tension interactions between the glass and the tin. By fortunate coincidence, 60 per cent of the flat glass market at that time was for six- millimetre glass.

    Pilkington built a pilot plant in 1953 and by 1955 he had convinced his company to build a full-scale plant. However, it took 14 months of non-stop production, costing the company £100,000 a month, before the plant produced any usable glass. Furthermore, once they succeeded in making marketable flat glass, the machine was turned off for a service to prepare it for years of continuous production. When it started up again it took another four months to get the process right again. They finally succeeded in 1959 and there are now float plants all over the world, with each able to produce around 1000 tons of glass every day, non-stop for around 15 years.

    Float plants today make glass of near optical quality. Several processes – melting, refining, homogenising – take place simultaneously in the 2000 tonnes of molten glass in the furnace. They occur in separate zones in a complex glass flow driven by high temperatures. It adds up to a continuous melting process, lasting as long as 50 hours, that delivers glass smoothly and continuously to the float bath, and from there to a coating zone and finally a heat treatment zone, where stresses formed during cooling are relieved.

    The principle of float glass is unchanged since the 1950s. However, the product has changed dramatically, from a single thickness of 6.8 mm to a range from sub-millimetre to 25 mm, from a ribbon frequently marred by inclusions and bubbles to almost optical perfection. To ensure the highest quality, inspection takes place at every stage. Occasionally, a bubble is not removed during refining, a sand grain refuses to melt, a tremor in the tin puts ripples into the glass ribbon. Automated on-line inspection does two things. Firstly, it reveals process faults upstream that can be corrected. Inspection technology allows more than 100 million measurements a second to be made across the ribbon, locating flaws the unaided eye would be unable to see. Secondly, it enables computers downstream to steer cutters around flaws.

    Float glass is sold by the square metre, and at the final stage computers translate customer requirements into patterns of cuts designed to minimise waste.

    Questions 1-8
    Complete the table and diagram below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
    Write your answers in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.

    Questions 9-13
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet, write:

    TRUE                          if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE                        if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN             if there is no information on this

    9 The metal used in the float process had to have specific properties.
    10 Pilkington invested some of his own money in his float plant.
    11 Pilkington’s first full-scale plant was an instant commercial success.
    12 The process invented by Pilkington has now been improved.
    13 Computers are better than humans at detecting faults in glass.

    The Little Ice Age

    A This book will provide a detailed examination of the Little Ice Age and other climatic shifts, but, before I embark on that, let me provide a historical context. We tend to think of climate – as opposed to weather – as something unchanging, yet humanity has been at the mercy of climate change for its entire existence, with at least eight glacial episodes in the past 730,000 years. Our ancestors adapted to the universal but irregular global warming since the end of the last great Ice Age, around 10,000 years ago, with dazzling opportunism. They developed strategies for surviving harsh drought cycles, decades of heavy rainfall or unaccustomed cold; adopted agriculture and stock-raising, which revolutionised human life; and founded the world’s first pre-industrial civilisations in Egypt, Mesopotamia and the Americas. But the price of sudden climate change, in famine, disease and suffering, was often high.

    B The Little Ice Age lasted from roughly 1300 until the middle of the nineteenth century. Only two centuries ago, Europe experienced a cycle of bitterly cold winters; mountain glaciers in the Swiss Alps were the lowest in recorded memory, and pack ice surrounded Iceland for much of the year. The climatic events of the Little Ice Age did more than help shape the modern world. They are the deeply important context for the current unprecedented global warming. The Little Ice Age was far from a deep freeze, however; rather an irregular seesaw of rapid climatic shifts, few lasting more than a quarter-century, driven by complex and still little understood interactions between the atmosphere and the ocean. The seesaw brought cycles of intensely cold winters and easterly winds, then switched abruptly to years of heavy spring and early summer rains, mild winters, and frequent Atlantic storms, or to periods of droughts, light northeasterly winds, and summer heat waves.

    C Reconstructing the climate changes of the past is extremely difficult, because systematic weather observations began only a few centuries ago, in Europe and North America. Records from India and tropical Africa are even more recent.

    For the time before records began, we have only ‘proxy records’ reconstructed largely from tree rings and ice cores, supplemented by a few incomplete written accounts. We now have hundreds of tree-ring records from throughout the northern hemisphere, and many from south of the equator, too, amplified with a growing body of temperature data from ice cores drilled in Antarctica, Greenland, the Peruvian Andes, and other locations. We are close to a knowledge of annual summer and winter temperature variations over much of the northern hemisphere going back 600 years.

    D This book is a narrative history of climatic shifts during the past ten centuries, and some of the ways in which people in Europe adapted to them. Part One describes the Medieval Warm Period, roughly 900 to 1200. During these three centuries, Norse voyagers from Northern Europe explored northern seas, settled Greenland, and visited North America. It was not a time of uniform warmth, for then, as always since the Great Ice Age, there were constant shifts in rainfall and temperature. Mean European temperatures were about the same as today, perhaps slightly cooler.

    E It is known that the Little Ice Age cooling began in Greenland and the Arctic in about 1200. As the Arctic ice pack spread southward, Norse voyages to the west were rerouted into the open Atlantic, then ended altogether. Storminess increased in the North Atlantic and North Sea. Colder, much wetter weather descended on Europe between 1315 and 1319, when thousands perished in a continent-wide famine. By 1400, the weather had become decidedly more unpredictable and stormier, with sudden shifts and lower temperatures that culminated in the cold decades of the late sixteenth century. Fish were a vital commodity in growing towns and cities, where food supplies were a constant concern. Dried cod and herring were already the staples of the European fish trade, but changes in water temperatures forced fishing fleets to work further offshore. The Basques, Dutch, and English developed the first offshore fishing boats adapted to a colder and stormier Atlantic. A gradual agricultural revolution in northern Europe stemmed from concerns over food supplies at a time of rising populations. The revolution involved intensive commercial farming and the growing of animal fodder on land not previously used for crops. The increased productivity from farmland made some countries self-sufficient in grain and livestock and offered effective protection against famine.

    F Global temperatures began to rise slowly after 1850, with the beginning of the Modern Warm Period. There was a vast migration from Europe by land-hungry farmers and others, to which the famine caused by the Irish potato blight contributed, to North America, Australia, New Zealand, and southern Africa. Millions of hectares of forest and woodland fell before the newcomers’ axes between 1850 and 1890, as intensive European farming methods expanded across the world. The unprecedented land clearance released vast quantities of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, triggering for the first time humanly caused global warming. Temperatures climbed more rapidly in the twentieth century as the use of fossil fuels proliferated and greenhouse gas levels continued to soar. The rise has been even steeper since the early 1980s. The Little Ice Age has given way to a new climatic regime, marked by prolonged and steady warming. At the same time, extreme weather events like Category 5 hurricanes are becoming more frequent.

    Questions 14-17
    Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A—F. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B and D—F from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i—ix, in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings

    i Predicting climatic changes
    ii The relevance of the Little Ice Age today
    iii How cities contribute to climate change
    iv Human impact on the climate
    v How past climatic conditions can be determined
    vi A growing need for weather records
    vii A study covering a thousand years
    viii People have always responded to climate change
    ix Enough food at last

    Example Answer           Paragraph A                viii
    14. Paragraph B
    Example Answer           Paragraph C                 v
    15 Paragraph D
    16 Paragraph E
    17 Paragraph F

    Questions 18-22
    Complete the summary using the list of words, A—I, below. Write the correct letter, A—I, in boxes 18-22 on your answer sheet.

    Weather during the Little Ice Age
    Documentation of past weather condition is limited: our main sources of knowledge of conditions in the distant past are (18)………………. and (19)………………… . We can deduce that the Little Ice Age was a time of (20)…………… , rather than of consistent freezing. Within it there were some periods of very cold winters, others of (21)…………. and heavy rain, and yet others that saw (22)…………. with no rain at all.

    A climatic shifts                    B ice cores                      C tree rings

    D glaciers                             E interactions                  F weather observations

    G heat waves                       H storms                         I written accounts

    Questions 23-26
    Classify the following events as occurring during the

    A Medieval Warm Period
    B Little Ice Age
    C Modem Warm Period

    Write the correct letter, A, B or C, in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

    23 Many Europeans started farming abroad.
    24 The cutting down of trees began to affect the climate.
    25 Europeans discovered other lands.
    26 Changes took place in fishing patterns.

    The meaning and power of smell

    A A survey conducted by Anthony Synott at Montreal’s Concordia University asked participants to comment on how important smell was to them in their lives. It became apparent that smell can evoke strong emotional responses. A scent associated with a good experience can bring a rush of joy, while a foul odour or one associated with a bad memory may make us grimace with disgust. Respondents to the survey noted that many of their olfactory likes and dislikes were based on emotional associations. Such associations can be powerful enough so that odours that we would generally label unpleasant become agreeable, and those that we would generally consider fragrant become disagreeable for particular individuals. The perception of smell, therefore, consists not only of the sensation of the odours themselves, but of the experiences and emotions associated with them.

    B Odours are also essential cues in social bonding. One respondent to the survey believed that there is no true emotional bonding without touching and smelling a loved one. In fact, infants recognise the odours of their mothers soon after birth and adults can often identify their children or spouses by scent. In one well-known test, women and men were able to distinguish by smell alone clothing worn by their marriage partners from similar clothing worn by other people. Most of the subjects would probably never have given much thought to odour as a cue for identifying family members before being involved in the test, but as the experiment revealed, even when not consciously considered, smells register.

    C In spite of its importance to our emotional and sensory lives, smell is probably the most undervalued sense in many cultures. The reason often given for the low regard in which smell is held is that, in comparison with its importance among animals, the human sense of smell is feeble and undeveloped. While it is true that the olfactory powers of humans are nothing like as fine as those possessed by certain animals, they are still remarkably acute. Our noses are able to recognise thousands of smells, and to perceive odours which are present only in extremely small quantities.

    D Smell, however, is a highly elusive phenomenon. Odours, unlike colours, for instance, cannot be named in many languages because the specific vocabulary simply doesn’t exist. ‘It smells like . . .,’ we have to say when describing an odour, struggling to express our olfactory experience. Nor can odours be recorded: there is no effective way to either capture or store them over time. In the realm of olfaction, we must make do with descriptions and recollections. This has implications for olfactory research.

    E Most of the research on smell undertaken to date has been of a physical scientific nature. Significant advances have been made in the understanding of the biological and chemical nature of olfaction, but many fundamental questions have yet to be answered. Researchers have still to decide whether smell is one sense or two – one responding to odours proper and the other registering odourless chemicals in the air. Other unanswered questions are whether the nose is the only part of the body affected by odours, and how smells can be measured objectively given the nonphysical components. Questions like these mean that interest in the psychology of smell is inevitably set to play an increasingly important role for researchers.

    F However, smell is not simply a biological and psychological phenomenon. Smell is cultural, hence it is a social and historical phenomenon. Odours are invested with cultural values: smells that are considered to be offensive in some cultures may be perfectly acceptable in others. Therefore, our sense of smell is a means of, and model for, interacting with the world. Different smells can provide us with intimate and emotionally charged experiences and the value that we attach to these experiences is interiorised by the members of society in a deeply personal way. Importantly, our commonly held feelings about smells can help distinguish us from other cultures. The study of the cultural history of smell is, therefore, in a very real sense, an investigation into the essence of human culture.

    Questions 27-32
    Reading Passage 3 has six paragraphs, A—F. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

    Write the correct number, i—viii, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings

    i The difficulties of talking about smells
    ii The role of smell in personal relationships
    iii Future studies into smell
    iv The relationship between the brain and the nose
    v The interpretation of smells as a factor in defining groups
    vi Why our sense of smell is not appreciated
    vii Smell is our superior sense
    viii The relationship between smell and feelings

    27 Paragraph A
    28 Paragraph B
    29 Paragraph C
    30 Paragraph D
    31 Paragraph E
    32 Paragraph F

    Questions 33-36
    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. Write the correct letter in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.

    33 According to the introduction, we become aware of the importance of smell when
    A we discover a new smell
    B we experience a powerful smell
    C our ability to smell is damaged
    D we are surrounded by odours

    34 The experiment described in paragraph B
    A shows how we make use of smell without realising it
    B demonstrates that family members have a similar smell
    C proves that a sense of smell is learnt
    D compares the sense of smell in males and females

    35 What is the writer doing in paragraph C?
    A supporting other research
    B making a proposal
    C rejecting a common belief
    D describing limitations

    36 What does the writer suggest about the study of smell in the atmosphere in paragraph E?
    A The measurement of smell is becoming more accurate
    B Researchers believe smell is a purely physical reaction
    C Most smells are inoffensive
    D Smell is yet to be defined

    Questions 37-40
    Complete the sentences below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

    37 Tests have shown that odours can help people recognise the………………..belonging to their husbands and wives.
    38 Certain linguistic groups may have difficulty describing smell because they lack the appropriate……………
    39 The sense of smell may involve response to…………………which do not smell, in addition to obvious odours.
    40 Odours regarded as unpleasant in certain……………………….are not regarded as unpleasant in others.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 20

    Part 1: Question 1
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. Mr. Jones moved to Los Angeles
     A two weeks ago
     B three weeks ago
     C two days ago

    Question 2
    Answer the question with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    2. When does Mr. Jones have to go to his office? 

    Question 3
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    3. Mr. Jones for a(n)
     A insurance company
     B medical company
     C real estate company

    Questions 4 and 5
    Complete the following sentences with ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Mr. Jones’ appointment with the doctor is at (4)  am on
    (5)
     

    Question 6-8
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    List any THREE medical tests that the insurance company requires Mr. Jones to have
    (6) 
    (7) 
    (8) 

    Questions 9 and 10
    Answer the following questions. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    9 What is Mr. Jones’ home telephone number including the area code? 
    10 What is secretary’s first name? 

    Part 2: Questions 11-13
    Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    11. Mr. Smith manages group tours to Australia, New Zealand and the 
    12. Morning Sun Travel did some  and developed their new tour.
    13. From the Five Seasons Hotel Sydney, one can clearly see a harbor, a bridge and 

    Question 14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    14. Mr. Smith says that to get used to the time difference it is best to
     A have a rest
     B visit a harbor
     C go outside

    Question 15
    Complete the following sentence WITH ONE WORD only.

    15. A wombat looks like a  with two short legs.

    Question 16
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    16. After the visit to the Sydney Olympic Site the tour group will return to downtown Sydney by
     A bus
     B boat
     C seaplane

    Question 17
    Answer the question with ONE WORD OR A NUMBER only.

    17. How high will the seaplane fly over Bondi Beach? 

    Questions 18 and 19
    Complete the sentence below with ONE WORD only.

    Mr. Smith says that in addition to Italian and Chinese food, in Australian cities one can find
    (18)  and (19)  cuisine.

    Question 20
    Answer the question with ONE WORD only.

    20. After Sydney, what is the destination on the tour itinerary? 

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Choose THREE letters from A-E.

    Why is Ann late preparing her talk?
     A her mother is ill
     B the doctor says Ann should do all the cooking and cleaning for her mother
     C Ann and her mother cannot pay for extra help
     D the neighbours are all too busy to help her mother
     E she spends too much time playing computer games

    Questions 24 and 25
    Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    When studying (24)  in high school, Bill read about an experiment on how wearing a uniform can change people’s (25) 

    Questions 26 and 27
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    26. Bill thinks that the professor is from
     A University of America
     B University of California
     C University of Los Angeles

    27. The police took the students to a
     A school
     B prison
     C police station

    Questions 28 and 29
    Choose TWO letters from A-E.

    Why does Bill say the arrested students did not know the other students?
     A they had not been introduced
     B they went to different schools
     C to prevent them realizing they were there for the experiment they had signed up for
     D the other students were in uniform
     E the professor did not want them to know each other

    Question 30
    Complete the following sentence with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    30. Bill says the ‘prisons’ started having 

    Part 4: Questions 31 and 32
    Choose TWO letter from A-E.

    The lecturer will talk about
     A the media
     B the internet
     C types of message
     D Yahoo
     E advertising

    Questions 34 and 33
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    The speaker says effective advertising depends on the right (33)  and the
    (34) 

    Question 35
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    35. Advertisers always want to change people’s
     A buying habits
     B life
     C working habits

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    People usually buy (36)  because they recognize the name of the manufacture. The speaker says that Shell has purchased a (37)  and marketed a beer they called (38)  San Fran Video Store handed out cards with a (39)  and a (40)  Of the store locations of them.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 19

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Health club customer research
    Name: Selina Thompson

    Occupation: (1) 
    Age group: (2) 
    Type of membership: (3) 
    Length of membership: (4)  years
    Why joined: recommended by a (5) 
    Visits to club per month: Eight (on average)
    Facility used most: (6) 
    Facility not used (if any): tennis courts (because reluctant to (7)  )
    Suggestions for improvements: have more (8) 
    Install (9)  in the gym
    Open (10)  later at weekends

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Complete the flow chart below. Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to questions 11-16.

    A air
    B ash
    C earth
    D grass
    E sticks
    F stones
    G water

    Making a steam pit
    • Dig a pit
    • Arrange a row of (11)  over the pit
    • Place (12)  on top
    • Light the wood and let it burn out
    • Remove (13) 
    • Insert a stick
    • Cover the pit with (14) 
    • Place wrapped food on top and cover it with (15) 
    • Remove the stick and put (16)  into the hole

    Questions 17-18
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO characteristics apply to the bamboo oven?

     A It’s suitable for windy weather.
     B The fire is lit below the bottom end of the bamboo.
     C The bamboo is cut into equal lengths.
     D The oven hangs from a stick.
     E It cooks food by steaming it.

    Questions 19-20
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about eating wild fungi?

     A Cooking doesn’t make poisonous fungi edible.
     B Edible wild fungi can be eaten without cooking.
     C Wild fungi are highly nutritious.
     D Some edible fungi look very similar to poisonous varieties.
     E Fungi which cannot be identified should only be eaten in small quantities.

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

    Research project on attitudes towards study

    21. Phoebe’s main reason for choosing her topic was that
     A her classmates had been very interested in it.
     B it would help prepare her for her first teaching post.
     C she had been inspired by a particular book.

    22. Phoebe’s main research question related to
     A the effect of teacher discipline.
     B the variety of learning activities.
     C levels of pupil confidence.

    23. Phoebe was most surprised by her finding that
     A gender did not influence behaviour significantly.
     B girls were more negative about school than boys.
     C boys were more talkative than girls in class.

    24. Regarding teaching, Phoebe says she has learned that
     A teachers should be flexible in their lesson planning.
     B brighter children learn from supporting weaker ones.
     C children vary from each other in unpredictable ways.

    25. Tony is particularly impressed by Phoebe’s ability to
     A recognise the limitations of such small-scale research.
     B reflect on her own research experience in an interesting way.
     C design her research in such a way as to minimise difficulties.

    Questions 26-30
    What did Phoebe find difficult about the different research techniques she used?

    Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G, next to questions 26-30.

    Difficulties
    A Obtaining permission
    B Deciding on a suitable focus
    C Concentrating while gathering data
    D Working collaboratively
    E Processing data she had gathered
    F Finding a suitable time to conduct the research
    G Getting hold of suitable equipment

    Research techniques
    26. Observing lessons 
    27. Interviewing teachers 
    28. Interviewing pupils 
    29. Using questionnaires 
    30. Taking photographs 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Saving the juniper plant

    Background

    31. Juniper was one of the first plants to colonise Britain after the last 
    32. Its smoke is virtually  so juniper wood was used as fuel in illegal activities.
    33. Oils from the plant were used to prevent  spreading.
    34. Nowadays, its berries are widely used to  food and drink

    Ecology

    35. Juniper plants also support several species of insects and 

    Problems

    36. In current juniper populations, ratios of the  are poor.
    37. Many of the bushes in each group are of the same age so  of whole populations is rapid.

    Solutions

    38. Plantlife is trialling novel techniques across  areas of England.
    39. One measure is to introduce  for seedlings.
    40. A further step is to plant  from healthy bushes.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 18

    Part 1: Questions 1-8
    Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    People interested in sharing the flat

    NameJobDescriptionSpecial Requirements
    Phil Parrott(1)……………teacher– (2)……………….
    -Too health-conscious?
    (3)…………….because of equipment
    David (4)……………Lawyer– Older
    – Quiet
    – (5)…………….
    To pay less for gas and electricity
    Leo Norris(6)………………….– Funny
    – Lazy
    – Not (7)…………or…………
    – Outdoor type
    Somewhere to keep his (8)………………..

    (1)                  (2) 
    (3)                 (4) 
    (5)                 (6) 
    (7)                 (8) 

    Questions 9 and 10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Leo’s phone number (mobile) (9)  
    Leo would like to move in on (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. Refreshments will be served
     A at the front counter
     B in the lobby
     C at the back of the hall

    12. Nick Noble advertised
     A on the radio
     B on a billboard
     C in the newspaper

    13. The original number of founding members was about
     A 12
     B 20
     C 200

    14. The club provides activities primarily for reasonable fit
     A males up to 75
     B females with young children
     C males and females of any age

    Questions 15-20
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    ActivityDay(s)DurationContact Person
    (15)……………….Tuesday and SaturdayAbout 3-5 hoursCoordinator
    (16)………………….Thursday and SundayUp to 3 hours(17)………………..
    WanderersSunday(18)……………Leader
    (19)…………….weekendsSaturday and SundayAll weekend(20)………………..

    (15)                   (16)  
    (17)                   (18)  
    (19)                   (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. What is the main topic of assignment?
     A the historical development of television
     B the development of new media
     C the cultural future of television

    22. According to Emilie which new technology will become the biggest competition for television?
     A iPods
     B mobile phones
     C video games

    23. According to the tutor the average length of a television become
     A 45 minutes
     B 4 to 5 minutes
     C 10 minutes

    24. What part of the library is going to be closed for one week?
     A the sociology section
     B the media studies section
     C the journals section

    25. Which body do they decide to complain to?
     A Premises committee
     B Students’ Union
     C the library

    26. What will the reprographics office do?
     A send emails to your tutor
     B send your dissertation to you
     C send your dissertation to your tutor

    Questions 27-30
    Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    27. What does the tutor compare homemade videos with? 
    28. What is the title of Mrs Jone’s lecture? 
    29. Where is the lecture? 
    30. When is the final date for the assignment? 

    Part 4: Questions 31-37
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    31. Samuel Wells  before Scholastic House opened in 1903.
    32. There were  original students.
    33. Scholastic House became  in 1963.
    34. One of these students became a prominent 
    35. Scholastic House experienced difficulties during 
    36. The college has a tradition of learning and 
    37. Since 1972, controversial  have been discussed.

    Questions 38-40
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    38. The college discusses controversial issues because it
     A informs the debate
     B reduces tension
     C encourages argument

    39. The principal believes that
     A science is less advanced than medicine
     B philosophy is more useful than science
     C science is ahead of philosophy

    40. The principal urges the students to
     A accept what they are told
     B ask questions at all times
     C think only about their studies

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 17

    Part 1: Questions 1-4
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. A TFN is a number used
     A exclusively for tax administration
     B exclusively by individual tax payers
     C for managing several government services

    2. Without a TFN, the applicant would be
     A taxed at a higher rate
     B unable to work
     C liable for medicare contributions

    3. What kind of visa does the applicant have?
     A a visa granting indefinite stay
     B a visa with work rights
     C a student visa

    4. A TFN is issued
     A if you change your name
     B only once in a lifetime
     C when you claim a government benefit

    Questions 5-10
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Passport:(5)……………..
    NationalitySpanish
    Postal Address1339 (6)……………………Hollywell 1517
    Contact DetailsPhone: 09-55775076
    Preferred Contact PersonMartha (7)…………………..(landlady)
    Family NameFarina
    First Given Name(8)……………………….Maria
    Any Other NamesMary = (9)………………….
    Date of Brith(10)…………./……………../…………………(dd/mm/yy)
    GenderFemale
    Name of SpouseNA

    (5)                    (6)   
    (7)                   (8)    
    (9)                  (10)  

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Keeping kids safe on Internet

    • Internet for children-scary but educational
    • ‘Online Family Norris’ blocks (11)  and social sites
    • But still important to watch children and (12)  them
    • Keep computer in family room where you can see it
    • Children should never use their own name nor give out (13) 
    • Online friends stay online
    • No personal email address for youngsters
    • Teach teenagers that (14)  on the Internet always stay there – and may ruin job prospects
    • Watch out for (15) 
    • Teenagers use internet: to socialize or do (16) 
    • Young kids: find help with school subjects

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    WebsiteContentActivityAge Group
    www.mathtutor.comMathematicsPractice and (17)………………….All levels
    www.spellcity.comSpelling(18)………………………Primary school
    www.bee.co/typingTyping(19)……………………….All levels
    www.coolresource.com(20)………………….Extra practiceMiddle school

    (17)                  (18) 
    (19)                 (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Ted and Cleo’s research results will be presented as a
     A poster
     B survey
     C graph

    22. They will select foreign students
     A from the language school
     B from the business school
     C randomly on campus

    23. The foreign students will have to
     A collate the answers
     B rank the answers
     C know a lot about the answers.

    Questions 24-28
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Reasons for studying abroad
    Study abroad
    • Is the best way to learn a language
    • Provides a (24) 
    • Allows you to experience another culture first hand
    • Helps you (25) 
    • Give you opportunity to make new friends
    • Helps you (26) 
    • Enables you to (27) 
    • Increase the value of your degree
    • Improves (28) 

    • Expands your world view

    Questions 29 and 30
    Label the diagram below. Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 29-30.

    (29) 
    (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-36
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Charles William Peale

    SlidePaintingDateNotes
    1Pitt as a Roman Senator(31)……………….Elaborate , symbolical portrait of British parliamentarian
    2George Washington1772(32)……………….of many Washington portraits
    3The Peale Family1773Family portrait – shows exuberance & (33)…………………
    4The (34)………….1795‘trompe l’oeil’ style – double portraits of sons – Raphaelle & Titian
    5Rachel Weeping1772Wife and dead (35)……………..
    6James(36)……………….Brother James – in darkness but face illuminated

    (31) 
    (32) 
    (33) 
    (34) 
    (35) 
    (36) 

    Questions 37-40
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    Primarily, Peale was a painter but he was also a politician, scientist and (37)  with many successful patents. He worked with Thomas Jefferson on the polygraph which was a desk that could be used for copying a (38)  He wrote academic papers on different subjects and tried to make movies, spectacles and a velocipede (a kind of (39)  ) Peale was also a naturalist and taxidermist and he helped unearth the skeleton of mastodon which was the best (40)  in his museum.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 16

    Section 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Name of libraryLocationOpening timesOther information
    Bailey LibraryParkville campus8.30 am to (1)………….pm weekdaysPopular with students
    Brown LibraryNear Stratton Street and (2)……………..7 am to 2 am dailyOpen to (3)…………students only
    RMIT LibraryLevel 5, building 8, (4)………………Swan Street10 am – 12 midnight Monday to Friday
    10 am – (5)………………..pm Saturdays and Sundays
    Good internet facilites

    (1)                   (2) 
    (3)                  (4) 
    (5) 

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.
    Process of booking a computer
    • Step 1: log in to (6)  using your student number and
    (7)
     
    • Step 2: choose the resource type you would like to use
    • Step 3: select (8)  of computer
    • Step 4: select date of booking using (9)  options
    • Step 5: complete your booking. Your name should appear on the booking
    (10)
     

    Section 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose TWO answers for each question.

    11. Doors Open
     A is an annual event
     B lasts for one week
     C is a free event
     D happens in spring
     E is more than 100 years old

    12. The Observatory
     A is situated in Edinburgh
     B was built 20 years ago
     C regularly participates in the Doors Open event
     D is 120 years old
     E is open to visitors every day of the year

    13. Planetarium Shows
     A take place twice a day
     B are more popular on Saturday
     C run on Saturday and Sunday
     D run four times a day
     E finish at half past ten

    14. All tickets
     A must be booked in advance
     B are already sold out
     C are on sale at the information point
     D must be booked online
     E are available for from midday

    Questions 15-20
    Complete the sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    15. The tour of the telescope dome includes access to the  of the building
    16. Tour participants are advised to have suitable 
    17. Visitors to the Crawford Collection can see items from the astronomical  on display
    18. The children’s craft workshops take place in the 
    19. During the craft workshops children can construct a model of a 
    20. Children also have the opportunity to colour a 

    Section 3: Questions 21-23
    Choose THREE letters A-G.

    Which THREE examples of space junk are mentioned by the speaker?

    (21) 
    (22) 
    (23) 

    A cans
    B cooling tanks
    C metal plates
    D metal screws
    E paint
    F satellites
    G whole rackets

    Questions 24-26
    Which country is responsible for depositing the following percentages of space junk?

    (24)  28% 
    (25)  29% 
    (26)  37% 

    A China
    B Europe
    C India
    D Russia
    E United States

    Questions 27-30
    Complete the table below. Choose the answers from the options and write the appropriate letter A-I next to questions 27-30.
    Space Junk – Satellites

    Name of SatelliteCountry of originNotes
    UARSUnited States– Size and weight of (27)……………..
    – Was in space for two decades
    SkylabUnited States– Ended up in (28)……………..
    – Weight of (29)………………
    MirRussia– Larger than UARS
    – Ended up in (30)………………….

    (27) 
    (28) 
    (29) 
    (30) 

    A a grown up gorilla
    B a double decker bus
    C the desert
    D Eastern Australia
    E the 1980s
    F 2001
    G 100 tonnes
    H the South Pacific

    Section 4: Questions 31-35
    Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Supermarket Layout

    Name of areaLocation of areaPurpose of area
    Decompression zone (sometimes called the (31)………………zone)Situated immediately inside the entrance and is generally free of (32)……………………..To encourage the customer to (33)………………to the supermarket
    (34)………………………zoneSituated on the right side near the front doorTo encourage customers to relax before they start shopping
    Power aisleThe central route through the supermarketTo display (35)……………..

    (31)                     (32) 
    (33)                    (34) 
    (35) 

    Questions 36-40
    Which items do the following sentences apply to?

    Write correct letter A, B, C, D or E next to questions 36-40.

    A fruit and vegetables
    B bread and milk
    C cheap tinned foods
    D flowers
    E sunglasses

    36. They are referred to as distress goods 
    37. They are always located at the front of the supermarket 
    38. They are referred to as destination goods 
    39. They are normally located below eye level 
    40. They are often located at the check-out 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 15

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Sunshine tours

    Type of holiday:      Cruise

    Customers’ names: Keith Waters       Age: 32

    (1)  Waters                  Age: (2) 

    Interests and hobbies:    travelling, swimming, jogging, (3)  history, reading

    Budget: $7000 – $(4) 

    Dates: 1st July – 16th July

    Cruise duration: at least (5) 

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Maria Cristina
    • Spanish boat
    • Starts in Barcelona
    • Cost – $10,500 (not including (6) )
    • All foods and drinks included
    • Inside cabin (upgrade to sea view for $800)
    • On board cinema (different films every night)
    • (7) on destinations
    • Classes (ie. Painting, cooking, art appreciation and others)
    • (8) included

    Sea Queen
    • Spanish boat
    • Starts in Marseille
    • Length – 2.5 week cruise
    • Cost – $(9)  (including flights)
    • Sea view cabin
    • Food included but not drinks
    • Cinema
    • (10)  + gym

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    11. The Read for All charity especially targets  parents.
    12. The Read for All charity mainly tries to contact parents at 
    13. Parents who want help with finding books can go to the Read for All charity’s centre or visit their 
    14. The Read for All charity’s app costs  to download to a smartphone.
    15.  families can also benefit the Read for All charity in terms of improving English for the whole family.

    Questions 16-18
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    16. The Read for All charity gets most of its operating funds from
     A the government
     B one individual
     C the general public

    17. Jake suggests radio listeners can make a donation to the Read for All charity
     A online
     B by dropping into one of the charity’s centres
     C by post

    18. The Read for All charity can sometimes pay
     A a modest hourly rate for people who work for them
     B for some overnight accommodation if volunteers live far from a centre
     C for workers’ expenses if they provide a receipt

    Questions 19 and 20
    Below is a basic map used to show where the Read for All charity’s offices are. The map has 12 locations marked A-L. Match the locations in questions 19-20 with the correct locations on the map.

    19. Cinema 
    20. Main town post office 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    SubjectProblemsRecommendations
    AMYWorld (21)………………..and the car industry(22)………………..of her sourcesCheck the (23)………………on the department website
    WILLIAMHow (24)…………………..affects employment in northern territoryWritten too muchFocus on the (25)……………..of his essay – going through the essay

    (21)                  (22) 
    (23)                  (24) 
    (25) 

    Questions 26-30
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    26. Why was Anna delayed starting her essay this month?
     A she was sick
     B she had other work to prepare
     C her parents were visiting

    27. Where does Mr. Stevenson recommend that Anna study?
     A library
     B Mr. Stevenson’s dedicated study periods
     C quietly at home

    28. What does Mr. Stevenson ask Anna to provide him with for an extension?
     A a copy of the department rules
     B a paper from her doctor
     C an application form for the extension

    29. What was Anna’s first possible topic to write about?
     A foreign investment helped by reduces tax deals offered by the Australian government
     B Australian taxes invested in overseas investment
     C how foreign governments’ tax deals help Australian business investment overseas

    30. What was Anna’s second possible topic to write about?
     A the travel business in Australia and New Zealand
     B taxation issues between Australia and New Zealand
     C a history of trade between Australia and New Zealand

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Match the person with their actions (A-G).

    31. The Sumerians 
    32. The Roman Emperor Valentinian 
    33. Camilo Baldi 
    34. Jean Michon 
    35. Wilheim Preyer 

    A stressed the importance of the link between handwriting and brain functions
    B was the first paid for his autograph
    C wrote the first signature in handwriting that we still have
    D used seals to identify ownership
    E started a social graphology
    F first wrote about the science that was to be called graphology
    G interpreted handwriting for police

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    The development of e-signature

    E-signatures have made the hand-writing signature (36)  Technologies such as fax and internet created a need for contracts and agreements to be signed without the presence of the signer. E-signatures did not satisfy previous basic law requirements for handwritten signatures as they did not create a (37)  The UN created a (38)  in 1996 that set out rules that allowed electronic business to go ahead as e-contracts and paper contracts would meet with (39)  in law. Although online businesses can use click-to-agree there is still demand for an electronic hand written signature as it can help (40)  in law and create human touch. This kind of hand written signature is available on software used to create electronic signatures.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 14

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    NEW PASSWORD

    Call taken by: Natasha

    Customer’s full name: Michael (1) 
    Date of birth: 27 March 1988
    Previous address: 319 (2)  East providence
    Phone number: 049248002
    Data allowance: (3) 
    Current plan: (4) 
    Mother’s maiden name: (5) 
    First pet: (6) 
    New password sent on: (7) 
    Extra services required: new (8) 
    Cancel (9) 
    (10)  pack

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Where can each of the following items be found?

    Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter A-I next to questions 11-16.

    Locations
    A on washing machine
    B in hallway cupboard
    C in hot water cupboard
    D next to back door
    E in bathroom
    F on top of television
    G in bedroom
    H under kitchen sink
    I above front door

    11. Alarm 
    12. Garage key 
    13. Laundry detergent 
    14. Beach towels 
    15. Bath towels 
    16. Light bulbs 

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Difficult parking in town at the weekend because of so many (17) 
    Museum is closed on (18) 
    Recommended places to eat:
    • (19)  for Chinese food
    • Pizzeria for Italian food
    Phone number for takeaway pizza (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Why did Joanne accept the offer from Gregory Associates?
     A it covered her travel expenses
     B it was from a well-known company
     C it was the only offer she received

    22. Joanne was disappointed because
     A she found the work routine repetitive
     B the staff were not very helpful
     C the work was not related to her studies

    23. What did Joanne like best about her internship?
     A observing how the workplace operates
     B being responsible for completing projects
     C working closely with the project managers

    24. What was the hardest part of the internship?
     A combining it with her studies
     B living on so little money
     C working such long hours

    25. During the internship Joanne
     A changed her mind about her career
     B received a job offer from the company
     C decided not to continue her studies

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    How to apply for an internship
    (26) 
    (27) 
    (28) 
    (29) 
    (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    DEVELOPMENT STUDIES
    Development studies attempts to understand:
    • How societies change and progress over time
    • What (31) help to make these changes

    Two approaches
    • Theoretical (understand how change occurs)
    • Applied (examine (32)  and how they can be applied) Areas of focus: Asia Pacific region; urbanizing (including employment and (33)  ); migration, trade

    You will develop skills to:
    • Understand key development issue in detail
    • Gather data (both (34)  and textual data)
    • Carefully (35)  findings
    • (36)  on a research project

    Brief history of development studies:
    • 1950s – the discipline emerges
    • (37)  issues are the major consideration
    • 1970s – development studies became more (38)  of the establishment. Questions were raised about power, environmental sustainability and (39)  issues.
    • 1980s – today – national governments were no longer as important. Growing interests in small scale practices such as remittances and (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 13

    Part 1: Questions 1-6
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Budget accommodation in Queenstown, New Zealand

    AccommodationPrice (dormitory)Comments
    Travellers’ LodgeFully booked
    Bingley’s(1) $…………………– In town centre
    – Cafe with regular (2)………………nights
    – Sundeck
    Chalet Lodge$18.00– Located in a (3)………………..alpine setting
    – 10 mins from town centre
    – (4)……………………….are welcome
    Globetrotters$18.50– In town centre
    – (5)………………………included
    – Chance to win a (6)…………………


    (1)                     (2) 
    (3)                    (4) 
    (5)                    (6) 

    Questions 7-10
    Who wants to do each of the activities below?

    A only Jacinta
    B only Lewis
    C both Jacinta and Lewis

    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 7-10

    7. bungee jump 
    8. white-water rafting 
    9. jet-boat ride 
    10. trekking on wilderness trail 

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. Jack says that in London these days many people
     A see cycling as a foolish activity
     B have on experience of cycling
     C take too many risks when cycling

    12. If people want to cycle to school or work, CitiCyclist helps them by
     A giving cycling lessons on the route they take.
     B advising them on the safest route to choose.
     C teaching them basic skills on quiet roads first.

    13 Jack works with some advanced cyclists who want to develop
     A international competitive riding skills.
     B knowledge of advanced equipment.
     C confidence in complex road systems.

    14 CitiCyclist supports the view that cyclists should
     A have separate sections of the road from motor traffic.
     B always wear protective clothing when cycling.
     C know how to ride confidently on busy roads.

    Questions 15-17
    List THREE types of organizations for which CitiCyclist provides services.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    (15) 
    (16) 
    (17) 

    Questions 18-20
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Website address: citicyclist.co.uk
    Phone: (18) 
    Cost (single person): (19)  per person
    Usual length of course: (20)  except complete beginners)

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    21. What do Sharon and Xiao Li agree was the strongest aspect of their presentation? 
    22. Which part of their presentation was Xiao Li least happy with? 
    23. Which section does Sharon feel they should have discussed in more depth? 

    Questions 24-27
    Choose the correct letters A-C.

    24. Sharon and Xiao Li were surprised when the class said
     A they spoke too quickly.
     B they included too much information.
     C their talk was not well organised.

    25. The class gave Sharon and Xiao Li conflicting feedback on their
     A timing.
     B use of visuals.
     C use of eye contact.

    26. The class thought that the presentation was different from the others because
     A the analysis was more detailed.
     B the data collection was more wide-ranging.
     C the background reading was more extensive

    27. Which bar chart represents the marks given by the tutor?

     A
     B
     C

    Questions 28-30
    Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The tutor says that the (28)  of the presentation seemed rather sudden.

    The tutor praises the students’ discussion of the (29)  of their results.

    The tutor suggests that they could extend the (30)  review in their report.

    Part 4: Questions 31-33
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    The World Health Organisation says a healthy city must
    • have a (31)  and environment.
    • meet the (32)  of all its inhabitants.
    • provide easily accessible health services.
    • encourage ordinary people to take part in (33) 

    Questions 34-40
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Place/ projectAimMethodAchievement
    Sri Lanka

    Community contracts system
    To upgrade squatter settlementsThe (34)……………….. constructed infrastructures e.g. drains, paths– Better housing and infrastructure
    – Provided better (35)………….opportunities
    Mali

    Cooperative
    To improve sanitation on city– (36)………………graduates organizing garbage collection
    – Public education campaign via (37)……………..and discussion group
    – Greater environmental awareness
    – Improved living conditions
    Egypt (Mokattam) (38)………………To support disadvantages womenWomen provided with the (39)…………………..and equipment for sewing and weaving-Rise in the (40)……………..and quality of life of young women

    (34)                  (35) 
    (36)                  (37) 
    (38)                 (39) 
    (40)