Month: April 2024

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 65

    Part 1: Questions 1-4
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    The customer is going to France for: 1 week

    Traveller’s cheques can be replace within (1) 
    Having a little cash is useful for things like (2) 
    The bank charges for ATM withdrawals with a (3) 

    Questions 4-7
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    OrderCollect in branchHome delivery
    Monday-Thursdaynext daynext day
    Before (4)……………….pm10 am(5)……………..pm
    Friday-SaturdayTuesdayTuesday
    (6)……………………..10 am(7)……………pm

    (4)                       (5) 
    (6)                       (7) 

    Questions 8-10
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    8. The bank will buy back unused traveller’s cheques
     A free of charge
     B for a small fee
     C if they are returned in good condition

    9. Sandra does not want Euros because she
     A already has some
     B will be given some
    C will be buying some at the airport

    10. On Tuesday Sandra will
     A collect the cheques from the branch
     B be at work
     C sign for the cheques at home

    Part 2: Question 11

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. NUS extra cards
     A are offered free to all students
     B are recongnised internationally
     C give you a year’s worth of discounts

    Questions 12-15
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Student Railcards
    • For young people between 16 and 25
    • Mature students 25+ studying in (12) 
    • Get (13)  train fares in the UK
    • 1 year (14) £ 
    • 3 years (15) 

    Questions 16-17
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Local bus operators offer bus passes

     A especially for students
     B for various lengths of time
     C that are cheaper the longer the period
     D for use only for commuting
     E that can be used by your friends

    Questions 18-20
    Write the correct letter A, B or C next to 18-20

    Which places are useful for the following?

    A Household items
    B Vintage clothes
    C Second-hand textbooks

    18. the university campus 
    19. charity shops 
    20. car boot sales 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.Autumn term: Key dates

    Term starts15th September
    Release timetables15th September
    Release (21)……………….14th October
    All assignments onlineby (22)…………………
    Release grades of first assignment(23)…………………
    Release (24)………………..for Belgium trip29th October
    Belgium trip(25)…………………

    (21)                       (22) 
    (23)                      (24) 
    (25) 

    Questions 26-30
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    26. The college is trying to
     A significantly reduce the amount of paper it uses
     B be careful about the amount of documents it produces
     C discover why students keep losing their work

    27. According to the text, students at the college
     A are not allowed to print documents
     B have restrictions on how many pages they can print
     C have to pay to do any printing

    28. The college
     A has permission to reproduce the quizzes
     B wants the students to give them feedback about the quizzes
     C thinks the online quizzes are more effective than the paper ones

    29. The tutor explains that
     A the quizzes are easy to find on the intranet
     B the quizzes will be online for a few weeks only
     C the majority of the quizzes are online

    30. The online quiz system
     A occasionally does not work
     B keeps the quiz results confidential
     C allows tutors to identify areas where the students many be having difficulties

    Part 4: Questions 31-34
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    31.  times are less common within the family
    32. We may eat more than we need due to our 
    33. Eating habits can be affected by both  emotions.
    34. People who are  are more likely to eat more due to negative emotions.

    Questions 35-39
    Answer the questions below.

    Which type of hunger relates to the points below?

    Write E for emotional hunger. Write P for physical hunger.

    35. Experiences a sudden urge to eat 
    36. Hungers for any type of food 
    37. Need to satisfy the hunger as soon as possible 
    38. Will stop eating once full 
    39. Will feel no sense of guilt after eating 

    Question 40
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    40. People suffering from obesity can be helped by
     A taking the pressure off them about feeling guilty
     B understanding why they have negative feelings
     C pinpointing stressful moments that can cause emotional hunger

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 64

    Part 1: Questions 1-4
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Name:Barbara Hill
    Location:(1)……………………..London
    Postcode:SW105
    Rooms:Two (2)………………….bedrooms
    The other room used as:An (3)…………………….
    Downstairs:Kitchen-diner, conservatory and (4)……………….
    Pets:2 dogs and 3 cats

    (1)                    (2) 
    (3)                   (4) 

    Questions 5-7
    Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

    5. Which of these extra services does the customer agree to do?
     A Change the bed linen
     B Do some gardening work
     C Clean the glass

    6. What does the customer want cleaned every three months?
     A Curtains
     B Carpets
     C Mats

    7. What does the customer want done with clothes?
     A Wash and iron the clothes
     B Iron the clothes
     C Clean and dry the clothes

    Questions 8-10
    Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    The agent’s address is 12 (8)  Road.
    Her house will get cleaned next (9) 
    The maximum time of cleaning service is (10)  hours

    Part 2: Questions 11-17
    Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

    11. The main purpose of the service is to
     A educate people.
     B persuade people to fly.
     C provide people with comfort.

    12. The number of people working at Sydney Airport is
     A 200
     B 360
     C 440

    13. Dogs are chosen according to
     A their ability to stay calm.
     B their friendliness.
     C their skill at locating narcotics.

    14. The number of postal items processed last year amounted to
     A 4,400.
     B 52,000.
     C 72,000.

    15. People carrying items that are not allowed
     A will get arrested.
     B will be refused on board.
     C will be given a warning.

    16. Which of the following is NOT allowed to be taken on the flight?
     A Carry-on items
     B Plant seeds
     C Parcels

    17. What is the proper security protocol for a pocket knife found in a carry-on suitcase?
     A It is returned to the passenger after examination.
     B It is thrown away in a safe receptacle.
     C It is passed on to higher-level authorities.

    Questions 18-20
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    The acceptable material for packing goods in Australia is (18) 
    The belongings most of time are refused due to problems with the (19) 
    The customs must be given notice of the goods from (20)  days before it arrives in Australia.

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 21-26.

    (21)                    (22) 
    (23)                   (24) 
    (25)                   (26) 

    A Video resource centre
    B Reading room
    C Food service centre
    D Periodicals section
    E Enquiry desk
    F Satellite TV station

    Questions 27-30
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    If you need to find information on a certain book, you can use (27)  check-out cards.

    If you want to find information in a specific field, use the (28)  guides.

    Computers in some (29)  cannot be linked to the network.

    You can find more information in a (30)  on my desk.

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

    31. The student thought there were no crocodiles in Northern Africa because
     A North Africa contains very little wildlife for the crocodile to prey on.
     B she found no mention in the literature of their existence there.
     C there is very little water in North Africa.

    32. Generally, crocodiles live in groups of about
     A 20
     B 38
     C 46

    33. African crocodiles usually live in areas with
     A hot, dry climates.
     B hot, wet rainforests.
     C warm, wet climates.

    34. Crocodiles in dry areas live in caves located
     A underground.
     B in mountainsides.
     C underwater.

    35. What change caused changes in crocodile populations in North Africa?
     A They were driven away by a fierce predator.
     B Crocodiles evolved from desert creatures to wetland creatures.
     C North Africa used to be wetland but slowly turned to desert over time.

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Desert crocodiles sometimes live in places with dry periods that last up to (36)  months.

    A hole dug by a female crocodile in which to lay eggs can have a (37)  of up to 60 cm.

    Local people are not (38)  crocodiles.

    Crocodiles (39)  out of fear when humans populate their habitat.

    Researchers want to study more about population size, (40)  , and relations to other populations of crocodiles.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 63

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the information below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER.

    House Rental

    Name: Mary Collins
    Facility available: (1) 
    General layout: upstairs: living room
    Bedrooms
    Downstairs: (2) 
    Car park: availability of a large (3) 
    Shopping: at the (4) 
    Place for children playing: (5) 
    Education resources: a (6)  in the community
    Rent: $980 a month
    (including the maintenance fees of the (7)  )
    Date of house available: (8) 
    Viewing arrangement (time): meet at (9) 
    Postcode: GA58ER
    Address: 8 (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. What’s the new improvement about the zoo this time?
     A The zoo has built a new dog-walking area.
     B The zoo has brought a new batch of animals
     C The zoo has expanded its exhibition area.

    12. What is the change for the new regulation enacted in June?
     A The zoo is not open during the weekdays.
     B Visitors are allowed to feed the animals at night
     C Visitors are allowed to see the animals until the late night.

    13. While visiting the kangaroo, which behaviour is forbidden?
     A Photo-taking
     B Shouting
     C Feeding

    14. Why is the pye-dog zone temporarily closed?
     A Because the fence is broken.
     B Because the pye-dogs are in hibernation
     C Because the pye-dog zone is under construction.

    15. Where can the visitors buy the discounted ticket?
     A Gift shop
     B Photo shop
     C Reception desk

    Questions 16-20
    Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-H next to questions 16-20.

    16. Bird hide 
    17. Pye-dog zone 
    18. Rest area 
    19. Kangaroo visiting site 
    20. Photo shop 

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. The course has improved the environment since
     A it was regulated by law.
     B more students were involved.
     C more species were brought from other places.

    22. What is the biggest reason why the organisation improved greatly?
     A It was funded by a private investor
     B It sold out its shares.
     C It got the governmental fund in the first year.

    23. What is suggested from the reports?
     A Resources still need management.
     B Teachers and the students have benefitted from the field trips.
     C The environment has been terribly damaged.

    24. Who did obtain the special experience from the field trip carried out by the organisation?
     A students
     B teachers
     C researchers

    Questions 25 and 26
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO problems does the report focus on?

     A air pollution
     B soil erosion
     C overgrazing
     D forest exploitation
     E water pollution

    Questions 27 and 28
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO benefits of this activity to the students are mentioned by the professor?

     A they become more punctual
     B they feel more confident
     C they get practical experience
     D they learn how to collect data
     E they know the importance of environment protection

    Questions 29 and 30
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO things will the woman do in the rest of the time when no activities are going on?

     A read more reference books
     B study in library
     C interview some teachers
     D participate in one of fun hobbies
     E join in some tutorials

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    ROBERTS COMPANY
    Founding
    • The most important principal of the company is to improve the (31)  development of camera technology.

    Aim
    • It was founded by Dwayne Roberts in 1957 and mainly explore (32) 

    Potential applications
    • recording high-definition video
    • discovering (33) 
    • searching plants in the rainforest to experiment (34) 
    • distributing more across the road network to control (35) 

    At present
    • (36)  are the best sellers in the company.
    • They are designed to look like (37) 
    • The company is working on a tiny (38)  to change the way people see photography.

    Other applications
    • Surgeries could be faster and more (39) 

    Internship opportunity
    • To get it, the students can participate in the (40)  organised by the company every year.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 62

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Survey form
    Dealing with: exercise

    Time contacted: (1) 
    Suburb: (2) 
    Age group: (3) 
    Occupation: (4) 
    Family: (5) 

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the summary. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

    The subject undertakes exercise by regularly (6)  She does yoga in order to relax and (7)  her muscles. When she was younger she would (8)  , and in the future, she may (9)  , although that will depend on whether she has enough (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Label the floor plan. Write correct letter A-F for each answer.

    11. Quiet reading 
    12. Computers 
    13. Newspapers and magazines 
    14. Reference books 
    15. Audio section 
    16. Main library 

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the timetable. Write the correct letter A-J for each answer.

    17. Teacher-led discussion 
    18. Writing skills 
    19. On-call teacher 
    20. Language exchange 

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

    One of the basic strategies when listening to lectures is to use (21)  This saves time, but it is only effective if they can be (22)  later. More generally, it is necessary to (23)  the page in anticipation of the nature of the lecture. As an example, one can draw (24)  , tables and flowcharts, consistent with the way the subject matter is presented.

    Questions 25-30
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

    (25)                 (26) 
    (27)                 (28) 
    (29)                 (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (31)                    (32) 
    (33)                   (34) 
    (35) 

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the diagram. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    (36)                  (37) 
    (38)                  (39) 
    (40) 


  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 61

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Customer details:
    • They will be coming to London on (1) 
    • He’s going with his sister and his (2) 

    Tour details:
    • Bus tour
    o The cost is (3) £  for adults and (4) £  for children
    o Tours start at 7 am and finish at (5) 

    Questions 6-8
    Choose TWO letters A-G.

    Which three places does the tourist decide he’s likely to see?
     A Buckingham Palace
     B Big Ben
     C Harrods
     D Houses of Parliament
     E Hyde Park
     F St Paul’s Cathedral
     G London Eye

    Questions 9-10
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    9. How will the tourist buy the tickets?
     A By phone
     B Online
     C On the bus

    10. How long before he leaves should he buy his tickets?
     A 1 week
     B 6 weeks
     C 3 months

    Part 2: Questions 11-12
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. Each day, pandas need to eat:
     A Very little nutrition
     B 12-38 kg of bamboo
     C 330 pounds of bamboo

    12. If pandas are cared for away from the wild, they can live for approximately:
     A 6 months
     B 14-20 years
     C 30 years

    Questions 13-14
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Select two things that are endangering pandas:
     A Public awareness
     B Ecotourism
     C Poaching
     D Other wildlife
     E Building of roads and railroads

    Questions 15-16
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER.

    15. What proportion of the panda population in China is protected by reserves? 
    16. What did the WWF create which encouraged people to support pandas? 

    Questions 17 – 20
    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND / OR A NUMBER.

    Reasons that pandas may not be worth saving:
    • They are extremely (17)  to look after
    • They have a diet that is not (18) 
    • They get sick easily and are hard to breed

    Reasons that pandas should not be allowed to die out:
    • They are in danger because (19)  are damaging the forests
    • We should protect their homes because other animals live there
    • The number of pandas in the wild is (20)  so they will not become extinct

    Part 3: Questions 21 and 22
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. What is the problem that the students are having with the project?
     A The readings are too difficult
     B The readings are not interesting
     C The project is taking too long

    22. When can extensions be granted?
     A Problems with planning
     B Illness or accidents
     C Scheduling issues

    Questions 23-27
    Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A–G next to questions 23–27.

    A knowledge about their customers
    B long-term gain
    C competition
    D customer satisfaction
    E employees
    F external factors

    23. Princeton Windows 
    24. MK Cars 
    25. Lakeside Golf 
    26. Bryson’s Meats 
    27. Mojo’s Music Shop 

    Questions 28-30
    Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 28-30.

    A It has good managers
    B It has been operating for too long
    C There aren’t enough music shops
    D It needs more innovative marketing
    E It will close down in the end
    F It has a good long-term future

    28. Sarah 
    29. John 
    30. Neil 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Behavior or dolphins
    • almost 40 species of dolphin
    • found (31) 
    • usually in shallower seas
    • carnivores

    SOCIALISING
    • very sociable and live in pods
    • super-pods may have more than (32)  dolphins
    • have strong social bonds
    • help other animals – Moko helped a whale and calf escape from (33) 
    • have been known to assist swimmers

    CULTURE
    • discovered in May 2005 that young bottlenose dolphins learn to (34) 
    • dolphins pass knowledge from mothers to daughters, whereas primates pass to (35) 

    AGGRESSION
    • dolphins may be aggressive towards each other
    • Like humans, this is due to disagreements over (36)  and competition for females
    • Infanticide sometimes occurs and the killing of porpoises

    FOOD
    • dolphins have a variety of feeding methods, some of which are (37)  to one population
    • methods include:
    o herding
    o corralling
    (38)  or strand feeding
    o whacking fish with their flukes

    PLAYING
    • have a variety of playful activities
    • common behaviour with an object or small animal include:
    o carrying it along
    o passing it along
    (39)  away from another dolphin throwing it out the water
    • may harass other animals
    • playful behaviour may include other (40)  such as humans

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 60

    Part 1: Questions 1-6
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Requisition form

    Item: (1) 
    For: Accounts department
    Length of time: (2) 
    Starting: (3) 

    Reasons (must give three)
    Reason 1: unexpected demand
    Reason 2: (4) 
    Reason 3: require (5) 

    Name: (6) 

    Questions 7-10
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (7)                     (8)  
    (9)                    (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. Arthur Island’s summer population is
     A 7000
     B 17000
     C 22000

    12. The new bridge was completed in
     A 1971
     B 1972
     C 1974

    13. The island is particularly well known for its
     A motor racing
     B seafood
     C native wildlife

    14. There will be a stop-off at a
     A worm farm
     B wildlife sanctuary
     C scenic lookout

    15. The tour price includes
     A the wildlife park’s entrance fee
     B a meal at Reggie’s restaurant
     C tea and biscuits on the bus

    Questions 16-20
    Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-G next to questions 16-20.

    16. Wildlife park 
    17. Reggie’s restaurant 
    18. Nature reserve 
    19. Bicycle-hire shops 
    20. Main souvenir shops 

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Complete the plan below. Write the correct letter from the list A-H next to questions 21-24.

    (21)                    (22) 
    (23)                   (24) 

    A read other student’s writing
    B proofread the essay
    C write text summaries
    D check the table of contents
    E produce graphs and tables
    F do theoretical research
    G compile the bibliography
    H analyse data

    Questions 25-30
    Complete the labels identifying the parts of the flyer. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (25)                (26) 
    (27)                (28) 
    (29)                (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-34
    Complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    31. Movies are very influential because of their 
    32. In crime movies, the message given is that crime has 
    33. American movies are graded by a 
    34. Violence is allowed in war movies which are 

    Questions 35-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    (35)                   (36) 
    (37)                   (38) 
    (39)                   (40) 


  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 59

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below.

    Areas dealt with: (1)  and north suburbs
    Rent: from (2) £  to £  a month
    Depends on: the area availability of (3)  garage
    Properties available: West Park Road
    rent (4) £  a month
    including (5) 
    Tithe Road rent £380 a month including (6)  rental
    Viewing arrangements: meet at office on (7)  at 5.00 pm
    Need: letter from bank
    reference from (8) 
    Must: give (9)  notice of moving in
    give deposit of (10)  pay for contract

    Part 2: Questions 11 and 12
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    11. Who is Mrs Sutton worried about? 
    12. What is the name for a group of family doctors working in the same building together? 

    Questions 13-17
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Name of health centreNumber of doctorsOther informationInformation about doctors
    Dean End(13)………………..appointment system (15)…………..than South HayDr. Jones is good with (16)…………patients

    Dr. Shaw is good with small children
    South Hay(14)………………..building less modern than Dean EndDr. Williams helps people with (17)………….

    (13)                     (14) 
    (15)                     (16) 
    (17) 

    Question 18
    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    18. Doctors start seeing patients at the Health Centre from  o’clock.

    Question 19
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    19. Which TWO groups of patients receive free medication?
     A people over 17 years old
     B unemployed people
     C non-UK residents
     D people over 60 years old
     E pregnant women

    Question 20
    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    20. The charge for one item of medication is about £ 

    Part 3: Questions 21-30
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Name: Jonathan Briggs
    Degree: Economic and (21) 
    Teaching experience: Volunteer teacher
    Location: (22) 
    Dates: (23) 
    Volunteer organization: (24) 
    Type of school: (25) 
    Subject taught: (26)  Forms 1, 2 and 3
    English Form (27) 
    Agriculture science Form 6

    Reasons for wanting to leave in first year: (28) 
    – Few teaching resources
    Reasons for wanting to extend tour: – success of cattle breeding project
    – Obtained funds for farm building
    Reasons for wanting to train to teach Geography: it is his (29) 
    It has many (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-36

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. Which column of the bar chart represents the figures quoted?

     A
     B
     C

    32. According to the speaker, the main cause of back pain in women is
     A pregnancy
     B osteoporosis
     C lack of exercise

    33. As treatment for back pain the Clinic mainly recommends
     A pain killers
     B relaxation therapy
     C exercise routines

    34. The back is different from other parts of the body because
     A it is usually better at self-repair.
     B a back injury is usually more painful.
     C its response to injury often results in more damage.

    35. Bed rest is advised
     A for a maximum of two days.
     B for extreme pain only.
     C for pain lasting more than two days.

    36. Being overweight
     A is a major source of back pain.
     B worsens existing back pain.
     C reduces the effectiveness of exercise.

    Questions 37-40
    Choose the correct option.

    A – Strongly recommendedB – Recommended in certain circumstancesC – Not recommended
    Example: diet if overweightyes
    37. buy special orthopedic chairs
    38. buy shock-absorbing inserts
    39. wear flat shoes
    40. buy TENS machine

    (37)  
    (38) 
    (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 58

    Part 1: Questions 1-3
    Choose THREE letters B-H.

    Which THREE other activities does the customer want to do?
    A visit family

     B save money
     C study geography
     D study English
     E do some winter sports
     F go sailing
     G join a walking tour
     H meet young people

    Questions 4-7
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    CUSTOMER’S DETAILS
    Name: Su Minx Lee
    Address: (4)  Kew
    Mobile: (5) 0402 
    Day and date of departure: (6) 
    Length of course (7) 
    Method of payment credit card

    Questions 8-10
    Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-G next to questions 8-10.

    (8)   
    (9)   
    (10) 

    Part 2: Question 11-13
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    11.   are often known by their famous bridges.
    12. The speaker compares a bridge to a cathedral or 
    13. Sydney Harbour Bridge is nicknamed 

    Questions 14-18
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    (14)                   (15) 
    (16)                   (17) 
    (18) 

    Questions 19 and 20
    Complete the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    19. How long is the tunnel? 
    20. Name ONE thing the tunnel can withstand. 

    Part 3 : Question 21

    21. Which graph shows the distribution of animals painted on the caves? 

    (22)                       (23) 
    (24)                      (25) 

    (26) 
    (27) 

    Questions 28-30

    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    28. The cave was closed in 1963 because.
     A the tourists had drawn pictures on the walls
     B the air was harming the rock art
     C so few people were visiting the site

    29. How does David feel about the closure of the cave?
     A He agrees with the decision
     B He thinks it was a bad idea
     C He has no views on the matter

    30. How can people enjoy the drawings today?
     A The government has re-opened the cave
     B The drawings have been photographed
     C A replica of the cave has been built

    Part 4: Questions 31 and 32.

    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    What is marketing?
    (31)  and  represent only two aspects of marketing.

    Marketing involves
    • finding customers
    • ensuring customer satisfaction
    • (32) 

    Questions 33-34

    Complete the chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer

    (33) 
    (34) 

    Questions 35-38

    Which market research method is used by each of these businesses?

    Write the correct letters A-C next to questions 35-38.

    35. supermarkets 
    36. department stores 
    37. fast-food companies 
    38. theme parks 

    A customer observation
    B free offers
    C in-store surveys

    Questions 39-40

    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 57

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Circle the appropriate letters A-D.

    1. How long did Hannah think it would take her to find a place to live?
     A three weeks
     B less than three weeks
     C more than three weeks
     D more than four weeks

    2. There is not enough accommodation to rent because
     A it is the end of the academic year
     B Hannah is a new student
     C the area has lots of new technology companies
     D the town is small

    3. £400 a month for rent is
     A higher than Hannah has paid before
     B lower than Hannah has paid before
     C not cheap for the area
     D cheap for the area

    4. At the moment Hannah is living
     A in a hostel
     B in a suitcase
     C in a hotel
     D in a flat

    5. Hannah’s new flat
     A is a bit noisy
     B is on the second floor
     C has two bedrooms
     D has a large roof terrace

    Questions 6 and 7
    Complete Dad’s note.

    Hannah’s address:
    (6)  Whitehart Road
    (7)  9RJ.

    Questions 8-10
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete each space.

    8. Hannah plans to travel to her parents’ house on Friday 
    9. Hannah’s Dad will return the van on 
    10. The journey time is about 

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Circle FOUR letters A-H.

    Which FOUR planned developments are mentioned?
     A a village town hall
     B a leisure centre
     C a play area for children
     D a hospital
     E an industrial development
     F extra houses
     G a steel works
     H a motorway

    Questions 15-18

    Tick Column A if the individual is in favour of the proposals. Tick Column B if the individual is against the proposals.

    AB
    15. The Mayor
    16. The conservation group spokesman
    17. The local MP
    18. The local shopkeeper

    (15)                    (16) 
    (17)                    (18) 

    Questions 19 and 20
    Circle the correct letter A-D.

    19. Upton is
     A close to Tartlesbury
     B far from Tartlesbury
     C connected by rail to Tartlesbury
     D a town with a university

    20. The College has
     A never had a 100% success rate
     B had a 100% success rate this year
     C always been very successful
     D never been successful

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

    21. How many essays do the students have to write? 
    22. What percentage does the written exam account for? 
    23. How many marks did Carl get for his latest essay? 
    24. How many marks did Pamela get for her latest essay? 
    25. When was the marking system explained before? 

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    CarlPamela
    Researchvery good, lots of (26)…………….examplesvery good
    Sourcesvery goodvery good
    Organizationvery good(29)……………….
    Writing styles(27)……………………slightly too informal in some places
    Previous essaydisappointing but rewrite (28)………………..(30)………………….

    (26)                  (27) 
    (28)                  (29) 
    (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Circle the correct letters A-D.

    31. The total number of lectures mentioned by the lecturer is
     A ten
     B thirteen
     C six
     D eight

    32. The lunch break of the average British worker is
     A on the increase
     B shorter than it used to be
     C 36 minutes
     D precisely 30 minutes

    33. Which graph shows the change as regards sick leave?

     A
     B
     C
     D

    34. There will be another lecture on stress in work and study
     A given by Professor Butt
     B on the calendar
     C in about a fortnight
     D in a week’s time

    35. Which of the following is mentioned?
     A Most workers say they do not take all their holidays.
     B Under half of the workers say they do not take all their holidays.
     C Employers do not believe workers.
     D About a third of healthy workers take days off sick.

    Questions 36-39
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Employees now working (36)  physically and mentally
    Productivity up in many (37) 
    In 2002, local car plant vehicle per employee on rise to (38) 
    Car industry once though to be (39) 

    Question 40
    Choose the correct letter A-D.

    40. Dr Butt asks those students to see him who
     A want to work at the plant
     B have chosen to do the project
     C want to write extra essays
     D are new

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 56

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Complete the details below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Card number: 6992 (1)  1147 8921
    Name: Carlos da Silva
    Postcode: (2) 
    Address: (3)  Vauxhall Close, London
    Date of birth: 13 July (4) 
    Mother,s maiden name: (5) 

    Questions 6-10

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

    6. The caller has paid
     A less than the computer shows.
     B more than the computer shows.
     C £500 twice.

    7. The caller is also worried about
     A a bill that is too high.
     B an overpayment to a restaurant.
     C a payment that he does not recognize.

    8. The interest
     A went up in April.
     B has not changed.
     C has gone down.

    9. The caller’s number is
     A 020 7997 9909.
     B 020 7989 7182.
     C 020 8979 7182.

    10. The operator will ring the caller
     A tomorrow.
     B in two hours.
     C very soon.

    Part 2: Questions 11-13

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.

    11. Mr Gold had problems because he
     A hated smoking.
     B smoked.
     C couldn’t touch his toes.
     D was very lazy.

    12. Mr Gold used to travel across London to
     A get exercise.
     B see London at night.
     C get cigarettes.
     D buy food.

    13. What did Mr Gold have difficulty with in the past?
     A running
     B giving up smoking
     C getting to sleep at night
     D getting up early in the morning

    Questions 14-20

    Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    14. Mr Gold stopped smoking on 
    15. Mr Gold said he was  if people had not seen him smoking.
    16. The worst side effects he experienced were 
    17. He saw giving up smoking as an 
    18. It was easier for Mr Gold to stop smoking than he had 
    19. The radio presenter would like to have Mr Gold’s 
    20 The presenter hopes listeners will find their own  to success.

    Part 3: Questions 21-23

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Lorraine
    • has been with them on the course for (21) 
    • has left because she has got a (22) 
    • has returned to (23) 

    Questions 24-30

    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

    24. Steve’s mark could have been better if he had
     A not made mistakes in his project.
     B done a better book review.
     C written more words.
     D chosen a different topic for his project.

    25. Steve’s book review was
     A too long.
     B not as good as his project.
     C excellent.
     D fairly good.

    26. Steve’s tutor criticizes which aspect of his project?
     A the beginning
     B the argument about road pricing
     C the end
     D the length

    27. The tutor recommends that Frances should do
     A a PhD but not an MPhil.
     B an MPhil or a PhD.
     C another project.
     D her work more carefully.

    28. As regards getting funding, the tutor thinks Frances’s
     A chances are slim.
     B chances are greater than many other students’.
     C exam results will be decisive.
     D chances are better now than in the past.

    29. The last time a student in the department achieved a first in their exams was
     A three years ago.
     B thirty years ago.
     C last year.
     D in the first three years the college was open.

    30. Steve does not plan to go on to do research because he wants to
     A stop studying.
     B do lots of really exciting things.
     C earn some money to do the things he would like to do.
     D return to his job.

    Part 4: Questions 31-33

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Notes:
    The speaker specializes in management (31) 
    Bullying in the workplace costs the (32)  up to £4 billion a year.
    Bullying is caused by
    • insufficient experience,
    • insecurity, or
    • a lack of (33)  on the part of managers.

    Questions 34-40

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Main methods of bullying
    • Setting (34)  tasks.
    • Constantly moving the goalposts.
    • Stopping individuals (35)  to criticism.
    • Not (36)  or replying to e-mails. This means you cannot expect your staff to (37)  you.
    • Using technology. Companies should develop an (38)  of practice.

    Task
    In groups (39)  other bullying strategies and ways in which they can be (40)