Month: April 2024

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 55

    Part 1: Questions 1-8
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Country of destination: Ireland

    Name: Tim (1) 
    Address to be collected from: (2)  University,
    Town: Brighton
    Postcode: (3) 
    Size of container: length – 2.3 m, width – (4)  , depth – (5) 
    Contents books: (6)  and (7) 
    Total estimated value: (8) 

    Questions 9 and 10
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    9. What is the minimum recommended cover by the agency?
     A premium
     B standard
     C economy

    10. Where does the customer want the goods delivered?
     A port
     B home
     C business

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    (11)                     (12) 
    (13)                    (14) 
    (15) 

    Questions 16-20
    What does the tour guide tell her tour group about each of the following places on the day’s itinerary.
    Write correct letter A, B or C next to questions 16-20. NB You may choose any letter more than once.

    16. The Aquarium 
    17. Solheim country club 
    18. Milltown winery 
    19. The zoological gardens 
    20. The stout brewery 

    A They will definitely go there
    B They might go there if time allows
    C They certainly won’t go there

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Gyroscopes are used in laser devices and are found in many consumer (21)  The purpose of the project is to design a functional, (22)  and beneficial consumer product. The gyroscopic exercise ball can be set in motion by movements of the (23)  and wrist together in sync. The gyroscopic ball could help people in (24)  who have lower are injuries. The product could also be aimed at (25)  for whom lower arm strength is very important.

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Prototype designTesting
    Estimated cost£ 3,000(26)………………
    Number of weeks(27)…………………..6
    number of test subjects(28)……………….
    breakdown of test subjects5 professional athletes
    (29)……………..
    5 (30)…………….

    (26)                (27) 
    (28)                (29) 
    (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. Speakers have to know
     A their material
     B their audience
     C their limitations

    32. Experienced speakers
     A always try to wing it
     B never arrive unprepared
     C give the best presentations

    33. You should always rehearse
     A with friends who can advise you
     B with all the equipment you plan on using
     C more than once

    34. It is a good idea to
     A be discreet with you audience
     B meet your fans
     C meet and welcome your audience

    35. Taking a few deep breaths before you begin
     A will stop you having a panic attack
     B will guarantee that you feel more relaxed
     C will help turn your tension into enthusiasm

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    • Try to (36)  yourself making a speech and imagine your voice loud and confident
    • Even if you make mistakes avoid making (37) 
    • Pay attention to your (38)  your words carry less meaning than your delivery
    • People usually remember less than (39)  of what they hear
    • Be (40)  about yourself; You don’t become a perfect speaker overnight

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 54

    Part 1: Questions 1-6
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS.

    Rule oneRule two
    Payment of renton the 5thfull amount expected
    Cooking/ kitchenmust clean (1)………………..must (2)………………..
    Cleaning dutiesmust (3)……………….do every (4)…………………..
    Otherno noise (5)……………………no (6)…………………..

    (1)                  (2) 
    (3)                 (4) 
    (5)                 (6) 

    Questions 7-10
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Tenancy service
    Online advertising form
    Gender: (7) 
    Job: (8) 
    Rent: (9) 
    Move in: (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-17
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    11. The crime rate in the speaker’s city is 
    12. Students will receive much benefit if they do some 
    13. Advice can be obtained from friends, homestay parents and 
    14. A 24 hour police station is called a 
    15. For late night travel use a 
    16. Dialing 000 will put you through to 
    17. To save time, students should have the nearest station’s 

    Questions 18-20

    Choose THREE answers A-G from the list.

    Which THREE pieces of advice does the police officer give?

    (18) 
    (19) 
    (20) 

    List of advice
    A avoid dangerous areas
    B avoid strangers
    C carry a personal siren
    D do not stay out late
    E stay in well lit areas
    F use common sense
    G carry pepper spray

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Nicole interviewed
     A over 50 students
     B 50 students
     C less than 50 students

    22. The proportion of students not satisfied with the staff is
     A one quarter
     B one tenth
     C two thirds

    23. Overseas students were mostly concerned about
     A homestay issues
     B the attitude of the teachers
     C the facilities

    24. The proportion of teachers Nicole thinks needs improving is
     A 10%
     B one third
     C 90%

    25. The speakers agree to show their findings to the
     A assistant dean
     B course convener
     C CEO

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the flow chart below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Nicole’s interviewing technique

    • (26)  the right place to conduct the interview
    • (27)  the interviewee has sufficient time
    • (28)  the purpose of the interview
    • Guarantee complete confidentiality
    • (29)  the interview of beneficial outcomes
    • Give them a (30)  (e.g. lottery ticket)

    Part 4: Questions 31-33
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. ‘Hard’ HRM is
     A bad
     B best for organisations
     C necessary

    32. ‘Soft’ HRM
     A was quickly realized
     B considers human needs
     C regards workers as tools

    33. Human resources
     A must also be softly managed
     B are more important than a company’s assets
     C mostly apply to factories and shops

    Questions 34-40
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    MotivationRetention(34)……….staff well
    Raise awareness that job serves a (35)…………….

    All products and services are (36)……………….
    Make workers feel (37)……………….

    e.g. say thank you in a (38)………….way
    Involve staff in (39)…………….

    Anyone can display intelligence know-how and (40)…………….

    (34)                      (35) 
    (36)                      (37) 
    (38)                      (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 53

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

    Looking for driving lessons give during the weekends

    Address: (1)  Road
    Drive: the city centre
    (2)  above the city
    Teacher’s name: Allen (3) 
    Popular type of car on roads: (4) 
    Had better: practice during the (5) 
    Safety driving depends on: good (6) 
    Obtain: a driving (7) 
    Final test fee: (8) $ 
    Duration of test: approximately (9)  minutes
    More advice: keep a driving (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Mount Rushmore
    11. The government finally paid  to complete the heads of four United States Presidents.
    12. The purpose of the construction of the president’s heads is to develop 
    13. The carvings face  to experience maximum exposure to sunlight.
    14. In 1885, the mountain was renamed after a 
    15. It took  years to finish the project.

    Questions 16-20
    Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-E next to questions 16-20.

    16. information centre 
    17. refreshment centre 
    18. gift shop 
    19. workshop 
    20. visitor centre 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Why does the student want to study Tourism?
     A good future
     B good pay
     C parents’ will

    22.What kind of skill will the student gain in the course?
     A time-management
     B financial planning
     C note-taking

    23 The student has the ability of
     A independence.
     B communication
     C coping well with statistics.

    24 The teacher believes that the industry of tourism is
     A shrinking
     B seeing a bright future.
     C growing popular.

    25 How does the student compare the university course with polytechnics?
     A There are summer schools.
     B The course is structured in modules.
     C The price is reasonable.

    Questions 26-30

    What features do the speakers identify for each of the following courses?

    Choose FIVE answers from the box below and write correct letter A-G next to questions 26-30.

    FeaturesCourses
    A limited value
    B useful
    C relevant to career
    D flexible admission
    E intensive
    F improving leadership
    G self-control and time management
    26. Travel and business…………….
    27. Japanese……………..
    28. Medical care…………….
    29. Computer…………….
    30. Public relations……………

    (26)                     (27) 
    (28)                     (29) 
    (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Company outsourcing
    Case study – TCP Technologies:

    • Manager: Manjeet Khanna
    • Main target: to create a (31)  environment

    Grading for staff:

    • Every month grades are published on an (32) 
    • The cultural openness increased the quantity of incoming contracted opportunities.
    • The cultural openness improved the level of (33)  of the company.
    • The increased rate of staff satisfaction has led to growth of 32% in the (34) 

    Recent interview:

    • A company is not one entity comprised of components, but a living organism composed of cells.
    • Manjeet’s motto is (35) 

    Benefits of management style:

    • The rate of staff turnover has been reduced.
    • A (36)  can be from any other company.
    • Grades are not used for (37) 

    Features of managing style:

    • Personally, the manager wrote emails to respond to the complaints.
    • The complaint form known as a (38)  has access to all employees online.
    • The manager can receive any complaints concerning air conditioning, food quality and (39)  entitlement.
    • A (40)  on the anonymous complaint was introduced in the new system.

  • IETS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 52

    Part 1: Questions 1 and 2
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    IMA RENTAL AGENCY

    Name: Don Chester

    Address: Apartment 4, (1)  Newbridge
    Length of lease: one year
    Date moved in: (2) 

    Questions 3-10
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    For questions 4, 7 and 9 write:
    A if the repair will be done immediately
    B if the repair will be done during the following week
    C if the repair will be done in two or more weeks

    ItemProblemWhen to be done
    Fridgedecayed sealexample: A
    Gas water heater(3)………………(4)……………………
    Front windows(5)……………….B
    (6)…………………jams(7)…………………..
    (8)……………………torn(9)…………………….

    Workman to call between (10)……………….and…………………

    (3)                        (4)  
    (5)                        (6)  
    (7)                        (8)  
    (9)                       (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11 and 12
    Choose correct letter A, B or C.

    11. At the Wildlife Haven there are not any
     A telephones or radios
     B radios or TVs
     C telephones or TVs

    12. The guests were told to
     A collect their luggage from the bus
     B wait to be shown to their rooms
     C find their own rooms

    Questions 13-15
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Group tourDetails
    Beachcombers and rock-hoppersexploring rock pools
    Guided forest walkaway from (13)……………..
    Beach expeditionto catch lunch
    Moonlight forest walkdeparts at (14)……………….
    (15)……………………….departs at sundown

    (13) 
    (14) 
    (15) 

    Questions 16-20
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    What THREE items of clothing does the speaker recommend for the national park?

    (16) 
    (17) 
    (18) 

    Which TWO things in the national park does the speaker give a warning about?

    (19) 
    (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. The counselor says he can
     A provide sleeping pills
     B discuss the problem
     C only see medical students

    22. The counselor says that new students
     A lack self-discipline
     B are expected to work more on their own
     C are usually not able to cope

    23. Bill complains that the library
     A is not open at the right times
     B has too few resources
     C is too noisy

    24. The counselor suggests to Bill that
     A most other students are able to cope
     B he needs to find new places to work
     C he needs to plan more

    25. Before being able to help Bill the counselor need
     A make a further appointment
     B talk with his medical friend
     C get more information from him

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Organizing
    • Allocate time to answer all questions
    • Check the importance of each question towards your (26) 

    Answering
    • Understand the (27) 
    • (28)  the question

    Reviewing
    • Check your answers for (29) 
    • Look for (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. Jim was first interested in the subject because of something
     A he had experienced
     B he had heard
     C he had witnessed

    32. The main research method was
     A interviews
     B observation
     C questionnaires

    33. Which pie chart shows the proportion of men and women respondents?

    A. 
    B. 
    C. 

    34. How many respondents were there?
     A 50-100
     B 100-150
     C 150-200

    35. The most common type of problem involved
     A water movement
     B verbal abuse
     C noise

    Questions 36-40
    Which group gave the following advice?

    Tick column A if it was mainly women
    Tick column B if it was mainly men
    Tick column C if it was both men and women

    ABC
    Example: Only swim where boats are prohibited
    36. Tell them to leave
    37. Contact the police if it gets too serious
    38. Protect the children
    39. When isolated make sure your car can be seen
    40. Wear bright clothing

    (36)                    (37) 
    (38)                    (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 51

    Part 1: Questions 1-7
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Client Details

    Name: Andrew Peterson

    Educational qualification: Degree in (1) 
    Previous job: (2) 
    Hobbies: (3) 
    Main skills: (4) 
    Expected salary ($): (5) 
    Can start? (6) 
    Other? (7) 

    Questions 8-10
    Choose THREE letters from A-G.

    Which THREE qualities do employers most value in their staff?
    (8)   
    (9)   
    (10) 

    A Problem solving skills
    B Diligence
    C Experience
    D Flexible hours
    E Independent thinking
    F Good personality
    G Qualifications

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Answer the questions. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    11. What does the centre provide first? 
    12. What is important to control? 
    13. What does the centre assess? 
    14. How often is the exercise schedule reviewed? 
    15. How many exercise programs are available? 

    Questions 16-20
    Write the correct letter A-G next to questions 16-20.

    Which place is best for
    16. developing confidence 
    17. reducing stress 
    18. building fitness 
    19. meeting others 
    20. finding information 

    A Jogging machines
    B Yoga studio
    C Weight units
    D Front-desk area
    E Squash courts
    F Shower blocks
    G Swimming pool

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. The position needs someone good at
     A computers
     B dealing with people
     C arts

    22. The directors will select someone from the faculty of
     A arts
     B computing
     C business

    23. The position will require the person to
     A work long hours
     B train others
     C do weekend work

    24. The position will come with a
     A car
     B parking space
     C much better salary

    25. The best aspect of the job is it
     A gives more responsibility
     B comes with a private office
     C is a step to higher positions

    Questions 26-30
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    CANDIDATES
    StevenAbdulLekOscar
    Years of experience(26)………………….7812
    QualificationMBA(27)………………DegreeCertificates
    Possible concerns(28)……………………..Limited English(29)………………(30)………………..

    (26)                       (27) 
    (28)                       (29) 
    (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-33
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. Caves are
     A often ignored
     B mostly in remote areas
     C often difficult to explore

    32. People who explore caves
     A mostly need to know about cartography
     B enjoy overcoming the difficulties
     C usually know about cave sciences

    33. China has
     A probably the most undiscovered caves
     B a growing number of cave explorers
     C some of the best documented caves

    Questions 34-40
    Complete the table and notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    THREE MAIN REASONS FOR CAVE FORMATION
    DissolutionVolcanic lava tubesAction of waves
    Usually involves (34)……………..Good example in (35)………………Generally quite (36)…………………

    (34)                      (35) 
    (36)                      (37) 
    (38)                      (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 70

    Spider silk cuts weight of bridges

    A Scientists have succeeded in copying the silk-producing genes of the Golden Orb Weaver spider and are using them to create a synthetic material which they believe is the model for a new generation of advanced bio-materials. The new material, biosilk, which has been spun for the first time by researchers at DuPont, has an enormous range of potential uses in construction and manufacturing.

    B The attraction of the silk spun by the spider is a combination of great strength and enormous elasticity, which man-made fibres have been unable to replicate. On an equal-weight basis, spider silk is far stronger than steel and it is estimated that if a single strand could be made about 10m in diameter, it would be strong enough to stop a jumbo jet in flight. A third important factor is that it is extremely light. Army scientists are already looking at the possibilities of using it for lightweight, bullet-proof vests and parachutes.

    C For some time, biochemists have been trying to synthesise the drag-line silk of the Golden Orb Weaver. The drag-line silk, which forms the radial arms of the web, is stronger than the other parts of the web and some biochemists believe a synthetic version could prove to be as important a material as nylon, which has been around for 50 years, since the discoveries of Wallace Carothers and his team ushered in the age of polymers.

    D To recreate the material, scientists, including Randolph Lewis at the University of Wyoming, first examined the silk-producing gland of the spider. ‘We took out the glands that produce the silk and looked at the coding for the protein material they make, which is spun into a web. We then went looking for clones with the right DNA,’ he says.

    E At DuPont, researchers have used both yeast and bacteria as hosts to grow the raw material, which they have spun into fibres. Robert Dorsch, DuPont’s director of biochemical development, says the globules of protein, comparable with marbles in an egg, are harvested and processed. ‘We break open the bacteria, separate out the globules of protein and use them as the raw starting material. With yeast, the gene system can be designed so that the material excretes the protein outside the yeast for better access,’ he says.

    F ‘The bacteria and the yeast produce the same protein, equivalent to that which the spider uses in the drag lines of the web. The spider mixes the protein into a water- based solution and then spins it into a solid fibre in one go. Since we are not as clever as the spider and we are not using such sophisticated organisms, we substituted manmade approaches and dissolved the protein in chemical solvents, which are then spun to push the material through small holes to form the solid fibre.’

    G Researchers at DuPont say they envisage many possible uses for a new biosilk material. They say that earthquake-resistant suspension bridges hung from cables of synthetic spider silk fibres may become a reality. Stronger ropes, safer seat belts, shoe soles that do not wear out so quickly and tough new clothing are among the other applications. Biochemists such as Lewis see the potential range of uses of biosilk as almost limitless. ‘It is very strong and retains elasticity; there are no man-made materials that can mimic both these properties. It is also a biological material with all the advantages that has over petrochemicals,’ he says.

    H At DuPont’s laboratories, Dorsch is excited by the prospect of new super-strong materials but he warns they are many years away. ‘We are at an early stage but theoretical predictions are that we will wind up with a very strong, tough material, with an ability to absorb shock, which is stronger and tougher than the man-made materials that are conventionally available to us,’ he says.

    I The spider is not the only creature that has aroused the interest of material scientists. They have also become envious of the natural adhesive secreted by the sea mussel. It produces a protein adhesive to attach itself to rocks. It is tedious and expensive to extract the protein from the mussel, so researchers have already produced a synthetic gene for use in surrogate bacteria.

    Questions 1-5
    Reading Passage 1 has nine paragraphs, A-l. Which paragraph contains the following information?

    1 a comparison of the ways two materials are used to replace silk-producing glands
    2 predictions regarding the availability of the synthetic silk
    3 ongoing research into other synthetic materials
    4 the research into the part of the spider that manufactures silk
    5 the possible application of the silk in civil engineering

    Questions 6-10
    Complete the flow-chart below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    Synthetic gene grown in (6)…………………………or (7)……………………..

    Globules of (8)…………………………….

    Dissolved in (9)………………………

    Passed through (10)………………………….

    To produce a solid fibre

    Questions 11-13
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet, write

    TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE                     if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN          if there is no information on this

    11 Biosilk has already replaced nylon in parachute manufacture.
    12 The spider produces silk of varying strengths.
    13 Lewis and Dorsch co-operated in the synthetic production of silk.

    Revolutions in Mapping

    Today, the mapmaker’s vision is no longer confined to what the human eye can see. The perspective of mapmaking has shifted from the crow’s nest of the sailing vessel, mountain top and airplane to new orbital heights. Radar, which bounces microwave radio signals off a given surface to create images of its contours and textures, can penetrate jungle foliage and has produced the first maps of the mountains of the planet Venus. And a combination of sonar and radar produces charts of the seafloor, putting much of Earth on the map for the first time. ‘Suddenly it’s a whole different world for us,’ says Joel Morrison, chief of geography at the U.S. Bureau of the Census. ‘Our future as mapmakers – even ten years from now – is uncertain.’

    The world’s largest collection of maps resides in the basement of the Library of Congress in Washington, D.C. The collection, consisting of up to 4.6 million map sheets and 63,000 atlases, includes magnificent bound collections of elaborate maps – the pride of the golden age of Dutch cartography. In the reading room scholars, wearing thin cotton gloves to protect the fragile sheets, examine ancient maps with magnifying glasses. Across the room people sit at their computer screens, studying the latest maps. With their prodigious memories, computers are able to store data about people, places and environments – the stuff of maps – and almost instantly information is displayed on the screen in the desired geographic context, and at the click of a button, a print-out of the map appears.

    Measuring the spherical Earth ranks as the first major milestone in scientific cartography. This was first achieved by the Greek astronomer Eratosthenes, a scholar at the famous Alexandrian Library in Egypt in the third century BC. He calculated the Earth’s circumference as 25,200 miles, which was remarkably accurate. The longitudinal circumference is known today to be 24,860 miles.

    Building on the ideas of his predecessors, the astronomer and geographer Ptolemy, working in the second century AD, spelled out a system for organising maps according to grids of latitude and longitude. Today, parallels of latitude are often spaced at intervals of 10 to 20 degrees and meridians at 15 degrees, and this is the basis for the width of modern time zones. Another legacy of Ptolemy’s is his advice to cartographers to create maps to scale. Distance on today’s maps is expressed as a fraction or ratio of the real distance. But mapmakers in Ptolemy’s time lacked the geographic knowledge to live up to Ptolemy’s scientific principles. Even now, when surveyors achieve accuracies down to inches and satellites can plot potential missile targets within feet, maps are not true pictures of reality.

    However, just as the compass improved navigation and created demand for useful charts, so the invention of the printing press in the 15th century put maps in the hands of more people, and took their production away from monks, who had tended to illustrate theology rather than geography. Ocean-going ships launched an age of discovery, enlarging both what could and needed to be mapped, and awakened an intellectual spirit and desire for knowledge of the world.

    Inspired by the rediscovered Ptolemy, whose writing had been preserved by Arabs after the sacking of the Alexandrian Library in AD 931, mapmakers in the 15th century gradually replaced theology with knowledge of faraway places, as reported by travelling merchants like Marco Polo.

    Gerhardus Mercator, the foremost shipmaker of the 16th century, developed a technique of arranging meridians and parallels in such a way that navigators could draw straight lines between two points and steer a constant compass course between them. This distortion formula, introduced on his world map of 1569, created the ‘Greenland problem’. Even on some standard maps to this day, Greenland looks as large as South America – one of the many problems when one tries to portray a round world on a flat sheet of paper. But the Mercator projection was so practical that it is still popular with sailors.

    Scientific mapping of the land came into its own with the achievements of the Cassini family – father, son, grandson and great-grandson. In the late 17th century, the Italian-born founder, Jean-Dominique, invented a complex method of determining longitude based on observations of Jupiter’s moons. Using this technique, surveyors were able to produce an accurate map of France. The family continued to map the French countryside and his great- grandson finally published their famous Cassini map in 1793 during the French Revolution. While it may have lacked the artistic appeal of earlier maps, it was the model of a social and geographic map showing roads, rivers, canals, towns, abbeys, vineyards, lakes and even windmills. With this achievement, France became the first country to be completely mapped by scientific methods.

    Mapmaking has come a long way since those days. Today’s surveyors rarely go into the field without being linked to navigation satellites. Their hand-held receivers are the most familiar of the new mapping technologies, and the satellite system, developed and still operated by the US Defense Department, is increasingly used by surveyors. Even ordinary hikers, sailors and explorers can tap into it for data telling them where they are. Simplified civilian versions of the receivers are available for a few hundred dollars and they are also the heart of electronic map displays available in some cars. Cartography is pressing on to cosmic frontiers, but its objective is, and always has been, to communicate a sense of ‘here’ in relation to ‘there’, however far away ‘there’ may be.

    Questions 14-18
    Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. Write the correct letter in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

    14 According to the first paragraph, mapmakers in the 21st century
    A combine techniques to chart unknown territory
    B still rely on being able to see what they map
    C are now able to visit the darkest jungle
    D need input from experts in other fields

    15 The Library of Congress offers an opportunity to
    A borrow from their collection of Dutch maps
    B learn how to restore ancient and fragile maps
    C enjoy the atmosphere of the reading room
    D create individual computer maps to order

    16 Ptolemy alerted his contemporaries to the importance of
    A measuring the circumference of the world
    B organising maps to reflect accurate ratios of distance
    C working out the distance between parallels of latitude
    D accuracy and precision in mapping

    17 The invention of the printing press
    A revitalised interest in scientific knowledge
    B enabled maps to be produced more cheaply
    C changed the approach to mapmaking
    D ensured that the work of Ptolemy was continued

    18 The writer concludes by stating that
    A mapmaking has become too specialized
    B cartographers work in very harsh conditions
    C the fundamental aims of mapmaking remain unchanged
    D the possibilities of satellite mapping are infinite

    Questions 19-21
    Look at the following list of achievements (Questions 19-21) and the list of mapmakers below.
    Match each achievement with the correct mapmaker, A, B, C or D.

    19 came very close to accurately measuring the distance round the Earth
    20 produced maps showing man-made landmarks
    21 laid the foundation for our modern time zones

    List of Mapmakers
    A Mercator
    B Ptolemy
    C Cassini family
    D Eratosthenes

    Questions 22-26
    Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    Ancient maps allow us to see how we have come to make sense of the world. They also reflect the attitudes and knowledge of the day. The first great step in mapmaking took place in (22)…………………………………….in the 3rd century BC. Work continued in this tradition until the 2nd century AD but was then abandoned for over a thousand years, during which time maps were the responsibility of (23)………………………………..rather than scientists. Fortunately, however, the writings of (24)………………………………..had been kept, and interest in scientific mapmaking was revived as scholars sought to produce maps, inspired by the accounts of travellers. These days, (25)………………………………….are vital to the creation of maps and radar has allowed cartographers to map areas beyond our immediate world. In addition, this high-tech equipment is not only used to map faraway places, but cheaper versions have also been developed for use in (26)…………………………

    Hypnotism — is it real or just a circus trick?

    A Hypnosis has been shown through a number of rigorously controlled studies to reduce pain, control blood pressure, and even make warts go away. But because very few studies have attempted to define the actual processes involved, most scientists are sceptical of its power and uses. That scepticism has driven David Spiegel, a professor of psychiatry at Stanford University School of Medicine, USA, and other researchers to take a hard look at what happens in the brain during hypnosis.

    Among researchers there are two schools of thought. One claims that hypnosis fundamentally alters subjects’ state of mind: they enter a trance, which produces changes in brain activity. The other believes that hypnosis is simply a matter of suggestibility and relaxation. Spiegel belongs to the first school and over the years has had a debate with two scientists on the other side, Irving Kirsch, a University of Connecticut psychologist, and Stephen Kosslyn, a Harvard professor.

    B Kirsch often uses hypnosis in his practice and doesn’t deny that it can be effective. ‘With hypnosis you do put people in altered states,’ he says. ‘But you don’t need a trance to do it.’ To illustrate the point, Kirsch demonstrates how a subject holding a small object on a chain can make it swing in any direction by mere suggestion, the chain responding to minute movements in the tiny muscles of the fingers. ‘You don’t have to enter a trance for your subconscious and your body to act upon a suggestion,’ Kirsch says. ‘The reaction is the result of your focusing on moving the chain in a particular direction.’

    Spiegel disagrees. One of his best known studies found that when subjects were hypnotised and given suggestions their brain wave patterns changed, indicating that they had entered a trance. In one of his studies, people under hypnosis were told their forearms were numb, then given light electrical shocks to the wrists. They didn’t flinch or respond in any way, and their brain waves resembled those of people who experienced a much weaker shock. To Kirsch this still wasn’t enough to prove the power of trance, but Stephen Kosslyn was willing to be convinced. Many external factors could have been responsible for the shift in the subjects’ state of mind, but Kosslyn wondered, ‘Is there really something going on in the brain?’

    C To find out, Spiegel and Kosslyn decided to collaborate on a study focusing on a part of the brain that is well understood: the circuit which has been found to process the perception of colour. Spiegel and Kosslyn wanted to see if subjects could set off the circuit by visualising colour while under hypnosis. They selected eight people for the experiment conducted at Massachusetts General Hospital. The subjects were put in a scanner and shown a slide with coloured rectangles while their brain activity was mapped. Then they were shown a black and white slide and told to imagine its having colour. Both tasks were then repeated under hypnosis.

    The results were striking. When the subjects truly saw the coloured rectangles, the circuit lit up on both sides of the brain; when they only had to imagine the colour, the circuit lit up only in the right hemisphere. Under hypnosis, however, both sides of the brain became active, just as in regular sight; imagination seemed to take on the quality of a hallucination.

    After the experiment, Kosslyn was forced to admit, ‘I’m absolutely convinced now that hypnosis can boost what mental imagery does.’ But Kirsch remained sceptical, saying, ‘The experiments demonstrate that people are experiencing the effects of hypnotic suggestion but don’t prove that they are entering a trance.’ He also argued that subjects were told to see the card in colour when they were hypnotised but only to imagine it in colour when they weren’t. ‘Being told to pretend you’re having an experience is different from the suggestion to have the experience.’

    D Spiegel, however, is a clinician first and a scientist second. He believes the most important thing is that doctors recognise the power of hypnosis and start to use it. Working with Elvira Lang, a radiologist at a Harvard Medical Centre, he is testing the use of hypnosis in the operating room just as he and Kosslyn did in the scanner. Spiegel and Lang took 241 patients scheduled for surgery and divided them into three groups. One group received standard care, another standard care with a sympathetic care provider and the third received standard care, a sympathetic care provider and hypnosis. Every 15 minutes the patients were asked to rate their pain and anxiety levels. They were also hooked up to painkilling medication which they could administer to themselves.

    On average, Spiegel and Lang found the hypnotised subjects used less medication, experienced less pain and felt far less anxiety than the other two groups. Original results published in The Lancet have been further supported by ongoing studies conducted by Lang.

    E Spiegel’s investigations into the nature of hypnosis and its effects on the brain continue. However, if hypnosis is ever to work its way into mainstream medicine and everyday use, physicians will need to know there is solid science behind what sounds like mysticism. Only then will their reluctance to using such things as mind over matter be overcome. ‘I agree that the medical use of hypnotism should be based on data rather than belief,’ says Spiegel, ‘but in the end it doesn’t really matter why it works, as long as it helps our patients.’

    Questions 27-31
    Reading Passage 3 has five sections, A-E. Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
    Write the correct number, i-vii, in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

    List of Headings
    i An experiment using people who are receiving medical treatment
    ii The experiment that convinced all the researchers
    iii Medical benefits of hypnosis make scientific proof less important
    iv Lack of data leads to opposing views of hypnotism
    v The effects of hypnosis on parts of the brain involved in vision
    vi Inducing pain through the use of hypnotism
    vii Experiments used to support conflicting views

    27 Paragraph A
    28 Paragraph B
    29 Paragraph C
    30 Paragraph D
    31 Paragraph E

    Questions 32-36
    Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

    32 Kirsch uses a small object on a chain to demonstrate that
    A inducing a trance is a simple process
    B responding to a suggestion does not require a trance
    C muscles respond as a result of a trance
    D it is difficult to identify a trance

    33 Spiegel disagrees with Kirsch because the subjects in Spiegel’s experiment
    A believed what they were told
    B showed changes in brain activity
    C responded as expected to shocks
    D had similar reactions to control subjects

    34 Kosslyn’s response to Spiegel’s electric shock experiment was to
    A challenge the results because of external factors
    B work with Kirsch to disprove Spiegel’s results
    C reverse his previous position on trance
    D accept that Spiegel’s ideas might be correct

    35 Spiegel and Kosslyn’s experiment was designed to show that hypnosis
    A affects the electrical responses of the brain
    B could make colour appear as black and white
    C has an effect on how shapes are perceived
    D can enhance the subject’s imagination

    36 Kirsch thought Spiegel and Kosslyn’s results
    A were worthy of further investigation
    B had nothing to do with hypnotic suggestion
    C showed that the possibility of trance existed
    D were affected by the words used in the instructions

    Questions 37-40
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet, write

    TRUE                        if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN           if there is no information on this

    37 Spiegel is more interested in scientific research than medical practice.
    38 Patients in the third group in Spiegel and Lang’s experiment were easily hypnotised.
    39 In Spiegel and Lang’s experiment, a smaller amount of painkiller was needed by the hypnotised patients than by the other two groups.
    40 Spiegel feels that doctors should use hypnotism only when it is fully understood.

  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 69

    Global Warming

    A The Stern Review Report on The Economics of Climate Change, published in 2006, the same year as Al Gore’s highly-acclaimed film and book, An Inconvenient Truth, made it clear that governments need to take the issue of global warming very seriously indeed. The Stern Review examined the issue of climate change from an economic perspective, looking at what it would cost the government to take appropriate action, and what it would cost if appropriate action were not taken. The report also highlighted a number of catastrophes that would occur if urgent measures were not taken to stop the carbon dioxide production that is heating up the planet. The report indicates that in the last 200 years, average temperatures on the planet have increased by less than one degree Celsius; however, if we do not control the rising carbon dioxide levels over the next 100 years, a rise of up to five degrees Celsius can be expected. This will have an enormous impact on global economic growth and will cause many potentially disastrous changes, including the following:

    B Melting glaciers—Beginning in the Andes, and then extending to the huge glaciers of the Himalayas, the ice will begin to disappear, threatening the water supply of billions of people. Sea levels will also rise, flooding huge areas of the world, including cities such as London and Tokyo.

    C Melting ice sheets—Not only will glaciers melt, but as the planet warms up, the huge Antarctic Ice Sheets and the floating sea ice of the Arctic will begin to melt, again resulting in catastrophic rises in sea levels. It is estimated that Arctic summers will be ice-free within 10 years, and the landscapes of the Antarctic will change beyond recognition by 2050. The vast ice plains of Greenland are also under threat.

    D The acidity resulting from the huge amounts of CO2 that the oceans will absorb will lead to the extinction of hundreds of species as marine ecosystems are destroyed; this will also threaten the fishing industry as thousands of millions of fish die off. This in turn will destroy the livelihood of thousands of fishing communities that depend on already overfished coastal areas.

    E Accompanying the floods will be an increasing occurrence of droughts, with a decrease of up to 30% in water availability in Africa, and similar decreases in Australia. This will, of course, result in crop failure and malnutrition the world over. It will also lead to an increase in disease, particularly in tropical regions. Large cities in dry regions will find it increasingly difficult to provide enough water for their populations.

    F Hurricanes, cyclones and tidal waves—Both A1 Gore’s book and the Stern Review indicate that if global temperatures continue to rise, we can expect a greater number of extreme weather phenomena, of an increased severity. Hurricane Katrina, which devastated the United States in 2005, is cited as just one example of the kind of environmental and economic havoc that will result from unchecked global warming. Typhoons, which often cause extensive flooding, are becoming more frequent and devastating in South East Asia.

    G Up to 50% of animal and plant species on the planet, beginning with those living in fragile environments such as coral reefs, tropical rainforest and alpine tundra, will become extinct. Climate change will eventually affect every ecosystem on the planet as temperatures increase, rainforest is destroyed and sea levels rise, leading to flooding and drought. The impact on ecosystems will be so dramatic that they will never recover from the damage caused by rising temperatures.

    H Does all this sound too depressing even to contemplate? Well, don’t despair: if you are optimistic by nature, there are two approaches to tackling the problem of global warming you could take.

    I The first approach is to begin to act locally to do your bit to reduce CO2 emissions and minimise pollution, at the same time hoping that governments will listen to the recommendations of the Stern Review, which, while recognising the seriousness of the threat, clearly indicates that if action is taken now, the right balance between economic growth and environmental conservation may be achieved. The Report is significant, both in its scope and its depth, and it does offer a positive outcome that allows economic growth to continue—so perhaps this will convince governments to take the action necessary to save the planet from environmental and economic disaster.

    J The second approach you could take, if you wish to remain optimistic, is to disregard the warnings of A1 Gore, the Stern Review team and other like-minded harbingers of doom, and instead opt for the much more positive and less dramatic stance taken by a very different group of scientists and economists. With its nominal leader the Danish economist, Bjorn Lomborg, the Omgivelse group believes that many of the predictions of the environmentalists are hugely exaggerated. Like Stern, Lomborg takes a pragmatic economic approach to the environmental situation and argues for investment in environmental research and development, rather than quick-fix’ measures that would not, he claims, solve the problem. With significantly less investment than that recommended in the Kyoto Accord or by the Stern Review Report, Lomborg believes the planet can be saved.

    Questions 1-3
    Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    The Stern Review Report emphasised the (1)…………………….to assess seriously the problem of global warming from (2)…………………………..point of view. It also focused on a number of environmental (3)…………………….that would happen if governments do not act to prevent climate change.

    Questions 4-12
    Reading Passage 1 has ten paragraphs, A – J. Choose the most suitable heading, i – xiii, for each paragraph from the list of the headings below. Write the correct numbers, i – xiii, next to Questions 4-12.

    List of headings
    i Long term solutions
    ii A balancing act
    iii Killing wildlife
    iv Extreme weather
    v Water crisis
    vi Endangering sea life
    vii Sinking cities
    viii Intensive farming
    ix Trouble at the poles
    x Alarming studies
    xi Two outlooks
    xii Arctic wildlife
    xii Burning coal

    Example: Paragraph H                 Answer xi

    4 Paragraph A
    5 Paragraph B
    6 Paragraph C
    7 Paragraph D
    8 Paragraph E
    9 Paragraph F
    10 Paragraph G
    11 Paragraph I
    12 Paragraph J

    Questions 13 and 14
    Complete each of the following statements with the best ending, A – H, from the list of endings below.
    Write the correct letters, A – H, next to Questions 13-14.

    13 The Stern Review points out that it is not too late……………………….
    14 More optimistic commentators like Bjorn Lomborg believe that politicians and scientists need………………..

    List of endings
    A to sign international environmental treaties
    B to strike the balance between economy and environment
    C to take personal responsibility for reducing CO2 emissions
    D to stop exaggerating the issue
    E save the planet
    F to find a solution to the problem
    G the issue of global warming
    H the problem of water pollution

    Cure-All Pills: Myths Or Reality?

    Browse the shelves of any health food shop or pharmacy and you’ll find dozens of dietary supplements—vitamins, antioxidants, minerals—along with a seemingly endless range of homeopathic remedies. There is always something new, some ‘miracle ingredient’ offering the promise of a longer, healthier, happier life. There are extracts of every kind of fruit and vegetable you can imagine—tomato, celery, carrot, papaya and cranberry—along with green tea potion, red wine extract and vitamins A-K in every colour and form. And all of these supplements claim to assist us in the constant battle against ageing, cancer, cardio-vascular disease, and a cornucopia of other afflictions. However, recent research may show it is all too good to be true.

    So how real are these claims? Vitamin tablets have been around forever, but antioxidants are the latest miracle cure; the question is, do they work? If the hype is true, then what antioxidants do is work to neutralise the free radicals in our bodies and later excrete them. Free radicals are atoms or molecules that have at least one unpaired electron and are therefore unstable and highly reactive. In animal tissue they are believed to accelerate the progression of cardio-vascular and age-related diseases, such as dementia and cancer. Antioxidants in fresh fruit and vegetables have been shown to combine with free radicals and neutralise them, preventing the oxidation which may lead to disease.

    An apple a day keeps the doctor away’—if eaten alongside four other portions of fresh fruit and vegetables! It is clear that those who eat more fruit and vegetables—and the recommended daily intake is at least five portions—are less prone to disease and live longer, healthier lives. Over the last 20-30 years, scientists have worked to isolate the active ingredients in fruit and vegetables— believed to be the antioxidants—and have conducted controlled tests of antioxidants, which revealed that they do indeed appear to have the ability to halt some of the chemical processes that cause disease. Thus the multimillion dollar industry of bottled antioxidants to supplement the diets of the busy and the stressed was born.

    Antioxidants were first cast into doubt during a major clinical trial in the US, in which a very common antioxidant, beta-carotene, also known as pro-vitamin A (found in yellow and green vegetables, milk and fish), was being tested for its efficacy against lung cancer in high-risk subjects. To the surprise and concern of the scientists conducting the experiment, those individuals taking the supplement—intended to reduce the risk of cancer—were at a significantly higher risk of developing lung cancer. This startling discovery led to the abandonment of the trials mid-way through the experimental process.

    Since this experiment in the mid-90s, other studies have similarly indicated that antioxidants and vitamin supplements are of dubious health value at best, and may possibly be harmful. It seems that even common vitamin supplements such as vitamin C may, in large doses, actually exacerbate the risk of cardio-vascular disease or cancer.

    As a result of these recent alarming studies, the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and its European equivalent, the European Medicine Agency (EMEA), have taken the decision to prohibit the production and sale of a number of the higher-dose supplements currently on the market.

    Another aspect of the increasingly complex picture to take into account is that recent research findings have also called into question some previously held beliefs concerning free radicals. It is possible, some scientists believe, that free radicals actually play a role in preventing disease. Professor Jennifer Horton at the University of West Wyoming is one of a number of scientists who has found that in small amounts, the free radicals may help stimulate the antioxidant systems in our bodies. It is also becoming apparent that free radicals may play a fundamental role in the fight against disease; recent research in the UIC suggests that they kill off harmful bacteria and even cancerous cells.

    Clearly, then, the use of bottled supplements with your diet is a practice to approach warily; and it is essential to keep abreast of new developments in research. Ironically, those health-conscious individuals who already eat large quantities of fresh fruit and vegetables, whose diet does not include junk food and who get plenty of regular exercise and have less need for dietary supplements tend to be the ones who are most likely to use them.

    Questions 15-18
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    15 When introducing his discussion on antioxidant diet supplements, the writer notes that
    A most supplements sold in pharmacies or health food shops have at least some proven health benefits.
    B very few diet supplements are regulated by government health agencies.
    C there is evidence that some dietary supplements can be bad for your health.
    D only a few products offer real protection against ageing, heart disease and cancer.

    16 In the fourth paragraph, the writer’s main point is that
    A very high doses of antioxidant supplements can harm the liver.
    B US doctors prescribe pro-vitamin A to patients.
    C the clinical trials did not produce any conclusive results.
    D antioxidant supplements can increase the risk of some cancers.

    17 According to the writer,
    A recent studies have confirmed the benefits of antioxidants.
    B vitamin C supplements help to decrease the risk of heart disease.
    C the European Union endorses some higher-dose vitamin supplements.
    D some governments have banned a number of higher-dose vitamin supplements.

    18 The writer suggests that
    A it is better to take vitamin supplements than not to take them.
    B it is important to be well-informed about vitamin supplements before taking them.
    C people who exercise regularly should supplement their diets with vitamins.
    D vitamins and antioxidants are less effective when consumed as food.

    Questions 19-24
    Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 2?
    Next to Questions 19-24, write

    TRUE                        if the statement is true according to the passage
    FALSE                      if the statement is false according to the passage
    NOT GIVEN           if the information is not given in the passage

    19 Vitamin supplements bought from health food shops can differ from those available at pharmacies.
    20 Antioxidants eliminate free radicals from the body.
    21 After the release of Professor Horton’s study the number of people taking vitamin supplements declined.
    22 The findings of studies into the effect of pro-vitamin A resulted in some US drug companies going on trial.
    23 The FDA and the EMEA have jointly funded research into the safety of certain higher-dose vitamin supplements.
    24 Recent research suggests that small amounts of free radicals can help prevent disease.

    Questions 25-29
    Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 2. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    25 Professor Jennifer Horton says that small amounts of………………………may be beneficial for our bodies.
    26 Some studies have indicated that vitamin supplements can be………………….
    27 Free radicals may have an important function in………………………
    28 ……………………………..people tend to be the ones who use bottled supplements.
    29 You should……………………….the use of bottled vitamin supplements with caution.

    Water And Chips Break New Ground

    Computers have been shrinking ever since their conception almost two centuries ago, and the trend is set to continue with the latest developments in microchip manufacturing. The earliest prototype of a mechanical computer was called the Difference Engine, and was invented by an eccentric Victorian called Charles Babbage. It weighed over 15 tons and had 26,000 parts. Colossus, the first electronic computer, did not appear until the end of WWTI, and with its 1,500 vacuum tubes was even more complex and much heavier than its mechanical predecessor.

    It was only when the silicon-based microchip was invented in the early 1950s that computers started to become more compact. The first microchip computers were very complex and had more than 100,000 transistors, or electronic switches; however, they were still rather bulky and measured several metres across. Nowadays microchips are measured in nanometres (nm)—that is, in billionths of a metre—and the search for even smaller microchips continues as scientists work on new methods of microchip production.

    Today, most microchips are shaped by a process called lithographic etching, which uses ultraviolet (UV) light. A beam of UV light with a wavelength of only 193 nm is projected through a lens on to an etching mask, a micro device with slits, or long narrow cuts. When the UV light hits the surface of silicon chips, it removes microscopic layers of silicon to create patterns for the microchips circuits. Microchips with features as small as 65 nm can be created with this wavelength.

    However, lithographic etching is unable to make chips much smaller than 65 nm due to the fundamental properties of light. If the slit in the mask were made narrower, the air and nitrogen used in the space between the lens and the etching mask would diffuse the light, causing a blurred image. This means that 193-nm UV light cannot be used to produce microchips with features smaller than 65 nm. Manufacturers know that they need to go even smaller for the technological demands of this century, and they are looking for new methods of making microchips.

    One approach to solving the problem is to use microscopic mirrors to focus X-rays rather than ultraviolet light. X-rays with a wavelength of less than 25 nm can be created, allowing engineers to make components smaller than 15 nm. The process is known as X-ray lithography etching. However, this technology is extremely expensive, so manufacturers are continuing to search for a cheaper alternative.

    A technology called immersion lithography might be the solution. Although liquids are not commonly associated with computers, a tiny drop of water may be all it takes to make microprocessors smaller and more powerful. Intel and IBM, who made the first microprocessors, have recently developed a unique method of microchip production, which uses water droplets to enable manufacturers to shrink the chips—and at a reasonable price! The new microchip is produced by using a drop of water to narrow the gap between the light source and the etching mask, and shorten the wavelength of the UV light to less than 34 nm. This process can be used to manufacture microchips as small as 45 nm, or possibly even smaller.

    Initially, engineers feared that air bubbles and other contaminants in water drops would distort the light and ruin the microchip etching process, and the first experiments proved these fears to be well-founded. The problem was overcome by using high-purity water, free of air and other substances. Scientists are also experimenting with liquids other than water—denser liquids such as hydrofluoric acid—which may allow the wavelength to be shrunk still further, thus producing even smaller chips.

    IBM have already successfully implemented immersion lithography on some of their production lines and created a fully-functioning microprocessor. IBM also claim that they are able to produce microchips with very few defects.

    Although immersion lithography is very new, it is highly promising as it will make the production of 45 nm and 32 nm chips commercially viable. It is a significant milestone in chip manufacturing and will help to bring the costs of the chip down without fundamentally changing the microchip production processes.

    In the near future, the ground-breaking technology of immersion lithography will enable computer manufacturers to make powerful microchips that will be used in electronic devices smaller than a coin. This will open up new opportunities in the ever-shrinking world of digital technology.

    Questions 30-34
    Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage? Next to Questions 28-32, write

    TRUE                             if the statement is true according to the passage
    FALSE                           if the statement is false according to the passage
    NOT GIVEN                if the information is not given in the passage

    30 The first electronic computer weighed more than the first mechanical prototype.
    31 Computers started to shrink with the invention of the microchip.
    32 In early 1950s engineers used ultraviolet rays to build the first microchip.
    33 X-ray lithography is an inexpensive alternative technology to lithographic etching.
    34 Immersion lithography has enabled microchip manufacturers to produce higher quality computer chips.

    Questions 35-40

    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.

    MethodLight usedWavelengthMaterial used to condense light
    LithographyUltraviolet193 nmair or (38)………………..
    Immersion lithography(35)…………….(36)…………….(39)……………………
    X-ray lithographyX-rays(37)…………………(40)…………………
  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 68

    English Heritage Blue Plaques Scheme

    A The blue plaques scheme has been running for over 140 years and is one of the oldest of its kind in the world. The idea of erecting ‘memorial table was first proposed by William Ewart in the House of Commons in 1863. If had an immediate impact on the public imagination, and in 1866 the Society of Arts (later Royal Society of Arts) founded an official plaques scheme. The Society erected its first plaque – to the poet Lord Byron – in 1867. In all, the Society of Arts erected 35 plaques; today, less than half of them survive, the earliest of which commemorates Napoleon III (1867). In 1901, the plaques scheme was taken over by London County Council (LCC), which erected nearly 250 plaques over the next 64 years and gave the scheme its popular appeal. It was under the LCC that the blue plaque design as we know it today was adopted, and the selection criteria were formalised. On the abolition of the LCC in 1965, the plaques scheme passed to the Greater London Council (GLC). The scheme changed little, but the GLC was keen to broaden the range of people commemorated. The 262 plaques erected by the GLC include those to figures such as Sylvia Pankhurst, campaigner for women’s rights; Samuel Coleridge-Thylor, composer of the Song of Hiawatha; and Mary Seacole, the Jamaican nurse and heroine of the Crimean War. Since 1986, English Heritage has managed the blue plaques scheme. So far, English Heritage has erected nearly 300 plaques, bringing the total number to over 800.

    B English Heritage receives about 100 suggestions for blue plaques each year, almost all of which come from members of the public. The background of each case is very different. Each nominated person has to meet basic selection criteria before they can be considered. Most importantly, they must have been dead for 20 years or have passed the centenary of their birth, whichever is the earlier. This delay allows a person’s reputation to mature and ensures that their fame is long-lasting.

    C English Heritage’s Blue Plaques Panel – representatives of various disciplines from across the country – considers all the suggestions which meet the basic criteria; on average, around 1 in 3 proposals are accepted. If a figure is rejected, proposers must wait a further 10 years before their suggestion can be considered again. Detailed research is carried out into the surviving addresses of shortlisted candidates, using sources such as autobiographies, electoral registers and post office directories.

    D As only one plaque is allowed per person, the house to be commemorated has to be chosen very carefully. Factors which are considered include length of residence and the accomplishments of a candidate during the relevant years. A significant place of work can also be considered.

    E Before a plaque can be erected, the owners and tenants of the building in question have to give their consent. Where listed buildings are involved, Listed Building Consent is sought from the relevant local authority. If such consents are granted, the plaque is designed, and then produced by a specialist manufacturer. It is normally ready within about two months. Plaques are set into the fabric of the building, flush with the wall face. The cost of plaque manufacture and installation are borne entirely by English Heritage. In all, it can take between 2 and 5 years from the initial suggestion to the erection of a plaque.

    F The exact form of the blue plaque, as we see it now, was a relatively late development, though certain guiding principles had been in place from the outset. The earliest plaques, erected in 1867, were blue. Their format, a circle with the name of the Society of Arts worked into a pattern around the edge, was used consistently by the Society over its 35 years of management.

    G Manufacture of each plaque is undertaken by the mixing and pouring of a thick clay slip into a casting mould. When sufficiently dry, the cast is removed and the outline of the inscription and border is piped onto the face of the plaque and filled with white glaze. Blue glaze is then applied to the background before firing. This process produces gently raised characters and border, a unique feature of English Heritage plaques. After firing, plaques usually have a thickness of 2 inches (50mm) and a final diameter of 19.5 inches (495mm), although smaller diameter plaques are sometimes used to meet special circumstances.

    H Plaques have been found to be extremely durable and have an almost indefinite life expectancy. Similar plaques erected by the Society of Arts have lasted, perfectly legible, for over one hundred years. Due to the slightly domed design, they are self-cleansing and require virtually no maintenance.

    Questions 1-6
    Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs A-H.

    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    1 the toughness of the plaques
    2 the length of time it takes to produce a plaque
    3 the way the Blue Plaques Panel functions
    4 the conditions which need to be met in each case
    5 the reasons behind selecting a house to be honoured
    6 how the Blue Plaques scheme first started

    Questions 11-13
    Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 1?
    In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet, write

    TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN if there is no information about the statement

    11 The GLC did not erect as many plaques as English Heritage has.
    12 Rejected proposals are given a detailed explanation of their refusal.
    13 The form of the blue plaque has not changed since it was first made.

    Reading Passage 2

    A The software tools of research are typically more abundant than hardware tools in the social sciences. Software is usually thought of as meaning computer programs that tell the hardware what to do, but any tool not related to a physical device can be considered software. Included in this category are published tests and questionnaires.

    B Often researchers want to gather information related to a general area such as personality or intelligence. For these instances, the use of a standardized test may be the best choice. With already published tests you can be sure of both validity and reliability and can save a lot of time that might otherwise be spent on test construction. Standardized tests can be classified into five main categories: achievement, aptitude, interest, personality, and intelligence.

    C Achievement tests are designed specifically to measure an individual’s previously learned knowledge or ability. They are available for many topic areas related to psychology, education, business, and other fields. Achievement tests require that prior learning take place and that this learning be demonstrated in order to pass.

    D Aptitude tests attempt to predict an individual’s performance in some activity at some point in the future. They do not require any specific prior learning although basic knowledge related to reading and writing is usually required and some preparation, such as studying up on math formulas or sentence structure, can be helpful. A well-known example of this type is the Scholastic Achievement Test (SAT), designed to predict future college performance.

    E Interest inventories also require only general knowledge but no preparation is needed. These tests look at an individual’s subjective interests in order to make predictions about some future behavior or activity. Perhaps the most used interest inventory is the Strong Interest Inventory, which compares interests related to specific careers in order to help guide an individual’s career path. Endorsed interests are compared with the interests of successful individuals in various fields and predictions are made regarding the test-taker’s fit with the various career fields.

    F Typically designed to assess and diagnose personality and mental health related disorders, personality tests are used extensively by psychologists in clinical, educational, and business related settings. By far the most widely used test of this type is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory, Second Edition (MMPI-2), which compares an individual’s responses on a series of true-false items to those suffering from various mental disorders such as depression, schizophrenia, and anxiety. The theory behind the test argues that if you endorse items similar to the items endorsed by those with depression, for example, then the chances that you are also depressed increases.

    G Intelligence tests could be classified as aptitude tests since they are sometimes used to predict future performance. They could also be classified as personality tests since they can be used to diagnose disorders such as learning disabilities and mental retardation. However, because of their limited scope, we will place them in their own category. The purpose of an intelligence test is to attain a summary score or intelligence quotient (IQ) of an individual’s intellectual ability. Scores are compared to each other and can be broken down into different subcategories depending on the intelligence test used. The most commonly used tests of this type are the Wechsler Scales, including the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS), the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC), and the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI).

    H Self-response questionnaires are a great way to gather large amounts of information in a relatively short amount of time. A questionnaire, similar to a survey you might see on a web page, allows subjects to respond to questions, rate responses, or offer opinions. Their responses can then be used to place them in specific categories or groups or can be compared to other subjects for data analysis. A concern with self-report, however, is the accuracy of the responses. Unlike direct observation, there is no way of knowing if the subject has told the truth or whether or not the question was understood as intended. There are several different methods for gathering information on a questionnaire or survey, including a Likert scale, the Thurstone technique, and the semantic differential. The Likert scale is a popular method used in surveys because it allows the researcher to quantify opinion based items. Questions are typically grouped together and rated or responded to based on a five-point scale. This scale typically ranges in order from one extreme to the other, such as (1) very interested; (2) somewhat interested; (3) unsure; (4) not very interested; and (5) not interested at all. Items that might be rated with this scale representing the subject’s level of interest could include a list of careers or academic majors, for example.

    Questions 14-19
    Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs A-H. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B and D-H

    List of Headings
    i Testing acquired knowledge
    ii The way future performance is forecast through testing
    iii The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
    iv Software tools in research explained
    v The use of a five-point scale in testing
    vi A test used to obtain a summary score of an individual’s intelligence
    vii The method most widely used by psychologists in various situations
    viii Subjective interests employed to predict future behaviour
    ix The different classes of standardized tests
    x The importance of prior learning in tests
    xi Information gathered by self-reporting

    Example: Paragraph A                Answer iv
    Paragraph C                                  Answer i

    14 Paragraph B
    15 Paragraph D
    16 Paragraph E
    17 Paragraph F
    18 Paragraph G
    19 Paragraph H

    Questions 20-23
    Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D. Write your answers in boxes 20-23 on your answer sheet.

    20 Tests that are already on the market
    A need some form of reconstruction
    B fail to ensure validity and reliability
    C guarantee validity and reliability
    D waste large amounts of time

    21 Some knowledge of reading and writing
    A is commonly not necessary in aptitude tests
    B is normally a requirement in aptitude tests
    C is less important in aptitude tests than other tests
    D is as important as prior learning in aptitude tests

    22 With interest inventories, subjective interests are examined to
    A test people’s general knowledge
    B help people change their career
    C compare individual’s backgrounds
    D forecast future behaviour or activity

    23 Intelligence tests could come under aptitude tests
    A because they can be used to forecast future performance
    B since they are not used very widely
    C as they can be broken down into different sub-groups
    D because they are sometimes used to diagnose learning disabilities

    Questions 24-26
    Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 2?
    In boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet, write

    YES                                  if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
    NO                                    if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
    NOT GIVEN                 if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks of this

    24 The Wechsler Scales are the only type of intelligence test now used.
    25 Where large quantities of data need to be collected fairly quickly self-response questionnaires work well.
    26 The Likert Scale ensures greater accuracy than other techniques.

    Question 27
    Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D. Write your answer in box 27 on your answer sheet.

    27 Which of the following is the most suitable heading for Reading Passage 2?
    A Different types of intelligence test
    B How personality can be tested
    C The importance of aptitude tests
    D The various software tools of research

    Much Ado About Almost Nothing

    1 “THE time for discussion of the rights and wrongs of GM crops has passed. Intense and consistent economic sabotage and intimidation are what will make the commercialisation of GM crops an unattractive option.”

    2 Words like these, from an article in the current edition of Earth First!, a radical environmental journal, send shivers down the spines of those involved in commercialising biotechnology. The strength of public disapproval of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) was a shock and a surprise to most of those involved. Now, some people are wondering whether nanotechnology – a term that covers the manipulation of matter at scales of a millionth of a millimetre – could be in for similar treatment and, if so, whether there are lessons that its protagonists can learn from the public backlash against biotechnology.

    Profit of doom
    3 In a neglected corner, amid thousands of participants at a Nanotech conference held in Boston last week, Jeffrey Matsuura, a law professor at the University of Dayton, in Ohio, stood next to his unprepossessing poster of his work. His warning, however, was pertinent to everyone there – especially the investors who were scouring the conference for opportunities. And this is that several of the factors that created a public backlash against biotechnology are already at work within nanotechnology. Dr. Matsuura says that biotechnologists assumed that the public would quickly recognise and appreciate biotech’s potential for improving the quality of life. Instead, the risks captured the attention of the media and much of the general public. Well-fed European consumers met the suggestion of cheaper food, in particular, with scepticism. Many felt that the gains would accrue to the companies which had developed GMOs, while the risks of growing and consuming the crops would be taken on by the public.

    4 Dr. Matsuura believes that public perception of nanotechnology is developing along a similar track. Like those of biotechnology, the first applications of nanotechnology will bring little obvious benefit to consumers. Better, cheaper materials, and hidden manufacturing efficiencies that benefit producers first, are redolent of the ‘advantages’ of biotech – namely reduced applications of agricultural chemicals, which help to keep the cost down while raising yields. Obvious consumer benefits, such as improvements in medicine, are further away.

    5 This should not matter – consumers do benefit eventually, even from cost savings. And yet, in alliance with a feeling that there are hazards involved, an absence of immediate benefits could turn public opinion against nanotech quite rapidly. And potential hazards there are. Concerns over out-of-control, self- replicating ‘nanobots’ that would eventually consume and transform the entire planet into a ‘grey goo’ are absurd. And yet, it is true that novel ‘nanoparticles’ might have real toxicological risks.

    6 Nanoparticles are so small that, if inhaled, they could become lodged in the lungs. In theory, they are small enough to enter living cells and accumulate there. And in January Ken Donaldson, a professor of respiratory toxicology at the University of Edinburgh, told a Royal Institution seminar in London that, once inhaled, ultrafine carbon particles can move to the brain and blood.

    7 There are already several products that use nanoparticles already on the market, such as sunscreen and car parts. Though all this may sound alarming, people are already exposed to nanoparticles of many different kinds, and have been throughout history. Soot, for example, is composed of carbon nanoparticles. Nevertheless, nanoparticles from sources such as diesel soot, welding fumes and photocopier toner are already associated with ill-health. The prospect of more such particles is likely to worry many. No wonder that several people at the conference in Boston mentioned the need to address public fears over nanotechnology “aggressively”

    8 One of these was Clayton Teague, the director of America’s National Nanotechnology Co-ordination Office. He says the American government is as sensitive to any indication of true health risk as any member of the public. Several large and well-funded studies on the environmental and health risks of nanotechnology are now under way.

    9 Dr. Teague adds that any decisions about nanotechnology will be made carefully and based on solid scientific data. But even if science gives the go-ahead, another one of Dr. Matsuura’s lessons is that this might not necessarily win the day, and that fear over potential abuses and accidents may dominate the debate.

    10 One piece of advice Dr. Matsuura gives is that everyone involved should have a consistent message. If investors are told a technology will change the world, someone who is concerned about the risks cannot then be told that the same technology is no big deal. It strikes a false note to say that something can be both revolutionary and nothing to worry about, he says. Such inconsistencies will breed public mistrust and fear.

    Product placement
    11 Donald Reed is a senior consultant with Ecos,a business-advisory firm based in Sydney, Australia, that acts as an intermediary between corporations and activists. Mr. Reed goes as far as to recommend that companies think about the early products they choose to pursue – in particular, whether they can demonstrate the “societal value” of these products. For example, it might be worth emphasising that one of the early products of nanotechnology could be cheap and efficient photovoltaic materials, which are used to generate electricity from sunlight.

    Questions 28-31
    Look at the following people and the list of statements below. Match each person with the correct statement.

    28 Clayton Teague
    29 Ken Donaldson
    30 Donald Reed
    31 Jeffrey Matsuura

    List of Statements
    A Nanotechnology is being affected by factors that created opposition to biotechnology.
    B Europeans have the most to gain from nantotechnology development.
    C Sound scientific data will be the basis of any decisions about nanotechnology.
    D Governments cannot shape the development of nanotechnology.
    E Nanotechology is not a cause for concern.
    F Carbon nanoparticles can be breathed in and then move to the brain and blood.
    G Companies should show how their early nanotechnology products can benefit society.

    Questions 32-35
    Complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    32 Strong public disapproval of………………………….came as a shock to those working in the area.
    33 Europeans reacted to the suggestion of cheaper food with…………………………
    34 Anxiety about ‘nanobots’ that would in time change the planet is……………………….
    35 Nanoparticles from photocopier toner are already linked to………………………..

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the summary using the list of words A-L below. Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

    Some people believe that nanotechnology could face a (36)…………………………….fate to biotechnology. Rather than welcoming the (37)……………………………., the media and much of the general public focused their attention on the (38)……………………………… of biotechnology. So it is important to emphasize the immediate (39)………………………………. of nanotechnology; otherwise, the public could adopt a negative (40)………………………………………towards nanotech. It is therefore important for everyone involved to be consistent.

    A worseB greaterC devicesD particles
    E costsF latterG dangersH thoughts
    I advantagesJ formerK attitudeL comparable
  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 67

    Caves

    1 Caves are natural underground spaces, commonly those into which man can enter. There are three major types: the most widespread and extensive are those developed in soluble rocks, usually limestone or marble, by underground movement of water; on the coast are those formed in cliffs generally by the concentrated pounding of waves along joints and zones of crushed rock; and a few caves are formed in lava flows, where the solidified outer crust is left after the molten core has drained away to form rough tunnels, like those on the small basalt volcanoes of Auckland.

    2 Limestone of all ages, ranging from geologically recent times to more than 450 million years ago, is found in many parts of New Zealand, although it is not all cavernous. Many caves have been discovered, but hundreds still remain to be explored. The most notable limestone areas for caves are the many hundreds of square kilometres of Te Kuiti Group (Oligocene) rocks from Port Waikato south to Mokau and from the coast inland to the Waipa Valley – especially in the Waitomo district; and the Mount Arthur Marble (upper Ordovician) of the mountains of north-west Nelson (fringed by thin bands of Oligocene limestone in the valleys and near the coast).

    3 Sedimentary rocks (including limestone) are usually laid down in almost horizontal layers or beds which may be of any thickness, but most commonly of 5-7.5 cm. These beds may accumulate to a total thickness of about a hundred metres. Pure limestone is brittle, and folding due to earth movements causes cracks along the partings, and joints at angles to them. Rain water percolates down through the soil and the fractures in the underlying rocks to the water table, below which all cavities and pores are filled with water. This water, which is usually acidic, dissolves the limestone along the joints and, once a passage is opened, it is enlarged by the abrasive action of sand and pebbles carried by streams. Extensive solution takes place between the seasonal limits of the water table. Erosion may continue to cut down into the floor, or silt and pebbles may build up floors and divert stream courses. Most caves still carry the stream that formed them.

    4 Caves in the softer, well-bedded Oligocene limestones are typically horizontal in development, often with passages on several levels, and frequently of considerable length. Gardner’s Gut, Waitomo, has two main levels and more than seven kilometres of passages. Plans of caves show prominent features, such as long, narrow, straight passages following joint patterns as in Ruakuri, Waitomo, or a number of parallel straights oriented in one or more directions like Te Anaroa, Rockville. Vertical cross sections of cave passages may be tall and narrow following joints, as in Burr Cave, Waitomo; large and ragged in collapse chambers, like Hollow Hill, Waitomo (233m long, 59.4m wide, and 30.48m high); low and wide along bedding planes, as in Luckie Strike, Waitomo; or high vertical water-worn shafts, like Rangitaawa Shaft (91m). Waitomo Caves in the harder, massive Mount Arthur Marble (a metamorphosed limestone) are mainly vertical in development, many reaching several hundred metres, the deepest known being Harwood Hole, Takaka (370m).

    5 The unique beauty of caves lies in the variety of mineral encrustations which are found sometimes completely covering walls, ceiling, and floor. Stalactites (Gk. stalaktos, dripping) are pendent growths of crystalline calcium carbonate (calcite) formed from solution by the deposition of minute quantities of calcite from percolating ground water. They are usually white to yellow in colour, but occasionally are brown or red. Where water evaporates faster than it drips, long thin straws are formed which may reach the floor or thicken into columns. If the source of water moves across the ceiling, a thin drape, very like a stage curtain, is formed. Helictites are stalactites that branch or curl. Stalagmites (Gk. stalagmos, that which dripped) are conical or gnarled floor growths formed by splashing, if the water drips faster than it evaporates. These may grow toward the ceiling to form columns of massive proportions. Where calcite is deposited by water spreading thinly over the walls or floor, flowstone is formed and pools of water may build up their edges to form narrow walls of rimstone. Gypsum (calcium sulphate) is a white cave deposit of many crystal habits which are probably dependent on humidity. The most beautiful form is the gypsum flower which extrudes from a point on the cave wall in curling and diverging bundles of fibres like a lily or orchid.

    Questions 1-3
    Complete the summary. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

    There are several (1)……………………………of caves with the most common and largest being located in limestone or marble. Coastal caves are created in cliffs usually by waves. In lava flows, the solidified outer crusts that remain once the molten core has drained away also form (2)………………………………….Limestone is to be found all over New Zealand, but not all of it contains caves. While many caves are known, there are large numbers that have yet to be uncovered. The main (3)……………………………for limestone caves are Te Kuiti Group rocks.

    Questions 4-8

    Complete the flow chart below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage.

    The Creation of Limestone Caves
    Limestone forms thick layers
    Earth moving creating (4)…………………….at partings
    Rain water trickling down through the soil and (5)…………………in rocks
    To water table, acidic water
    Dissolves limestone along joints
    Once (6)…………………opened
    Extended by sand/ pebbles, taken along by (7)………………………
    (8)………………………or silt and pebble accumulation changes stream course

    Questions 9 and 10
    Choose TWO letters A-E. Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 9 and 10 on your answer sheet.
    NB Your answers may be given in either order.

    Which TWO of the following features of caves in the softer limestones are mentioned in the text?
    A they are often long
    B they are all at least 7.2km long
    C most of them are vertical
    D they only ever have one passage
    E they are characteristically horizontal

    Questions 11-13
    Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet write

    TRUE                        if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE                      if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN          if there is no information about the statement

    11 The limestone found in New Zealand is more than 450 million years old.
    12 Stalactites are more often white to yellow than brown or red.
    13 Stalagmites never grow very large.

    Reading Passage 2

    1 Left- or right-handed bath water? This seems a silly question, but it was the subject of a serious scientific investigation sponsored by the Daily Mail in 1965. The investigation showed that the direction water swirls down the plug-hole vortex depends on which side of the Equator you are.

    2 As for homo sapiens, between 5 and 30% of the population are estimated to be left-handed, with more males than females, although -in one test, 95% of foetuses were found to suck their right thumb in the womb. The general consensus of opinion is that left-handedness is determined by a dominant right cerebral hemisphere controlling the left side of the body, and vice versa. Hereditary factors have been ruled out. So too have earlier theories concerning the need for soldiers to shield their hearts, and the desirability of learning to use Stone Age tools and implements with the hand they were designed for, as well as Plato’s idea that it all boiled down to which arm a baby was cradled with. However, the almost universal human preference for dextrality, or right-handedness, remains a mystery.

    3 Prejudice against the left hand dates back to ancient times and is so entwined with religious beliefs and superstitions that it still exists today in everyday speech. Sinister, the Latin for left hand, means ‘suggestive of evil’ in English, while the French gauche is awkward, or clumsy. Left itself derives from Anglo Saxon lef (weak and fragile). The non-judgmental term southpaw, by contrast, originates from the Chicago baseball stadium where pitchers faced west, so the pitching arm of a left-hander is to the South.

    4 Other negative terms include pen pushers, while a left-handed compliment, is actually an insult. Thomas Carlyle, who described right-handedness as the oldest institution in the world, introduced the political concept of ‘left’ in his work on the French Revolution – in the 1789 Paris Assembly the nobles sat on the right, opposite the radicals.

    5 Associations with luck also go back to early history. The ancient Greek and Roman augurs foretold the future from bird-flight. While the former faced North, with the propitious sunrise side to their right, the latter, before changing later, when sinister took on its ominous meaning, looked southward, so the left was for good omens.

    6 Superstitions world-wide reflect this bias. In Morocco, as in many countries, an itchy left palm means losing money, and a twitching left eyelid denotes the death of a relative or sorrow, whereas the right side has felicitous indications. We throw salt over our left shoulder to thwart the demons creeping up on us, but bless with the right hand. One pours wine with this hand and passes it round the table clockwise, the direction of the sun.

    7 Our relatives, the primates, appear to be ambidextrous, or able to use both hands, although gorillas have heavier left arms seemingly due to greater utilization. Aristotle observed that crabs and lobsters had larger right claws. Rats are 80% dextral, yet polar bears are believed to be left-pawed. Flat fish provide interesting data: in northern seas plaice and sole have their eyes and colour on the right side, but tropical halibut are the other way round. If this is to do with light and sun rotation, it may explain why Indian Ocean sole are reversed, but not why northern halibut are’ just as sinistral as their southern cousins. In the plant kingdom, honeysuckle is a rare example of a left-handed climber that twines anti-clockwise, or widdershins!

    8 Although we live in a more tolerant age, not so long ago in the UK youngsters were forced to use their right hand, ‘to learn the value of conformity’ (A. N. Palmer), often resulting in the stuttering speech defects common in ‘switched sinistrals’ like George VI. In the 1950s the American psychiatrist Abram Blau accused left-handed children of infantile perversity and a stubborn refusal to accept dextrality.

    9 Not all experts were so anti- sinistral, however. The 17th century Norfolk scholar Sir Thomas Browne wrote of the prejudices against left- handedness, but accepted that a small proportion of people would always be so and saw no reason to prevent them. Apart from being considered difficult, anti-social troublemakers, left-handers have also been thought to be artistic, creative and gifted.

    10 Famous lefties include Leonardo da Vinci, Michelangelo, Benjamin Franklin, Bill Clinton, Joan of Arc, Lewis Carroll, Paul McCartney, Jimi Hendrix, Jean Genet, Beethoven and many others.

    11 Finally, in defence of all sinistrals, if the left side of the body is really controlled by the right hemisphere of the brain, then left-handers are the only people in their right minds!

    Questions 14-18
    Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

    14 The direction of water going down the plug-hole
    A is not related to where you are
    B is independent of the side of the Equator you are on
    C is linked to the side of the Equator you are on
    D was first discovered by the Daily Mail in the 1950s

    15 In determining left-handedness, hereditary factors are generally considered
    A as important
    B as having no impact
    C as being a major influence
    D as being the prime cause

    16 The reason why
    A almost everyone is right-handed is unknown
    B some people are right-handed is ambiguous
    C Plato worked out the mystery of left-handedness is not known
    D many people are right-handed is now clear

    17 The word ‘southpaw’ is
    A an Anglo-Saxon term
    B not a negative term
    C suggestive of evil
    D a negative term

    18 The left was connected with
    A being unclean by the Greeks
    B goodness by the French
    C fortune and bird-flight by many cultures
    D good fortune in ancient Greece and Rome

    Questions 19-22
    Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    19 Who was the originator of the political concept of left?
    20 What did the ancient Romans use to predict the future?
    21 What does an itchy palm in the left hand mean?
    22 In which direction is wine passed round the table?

    Questions 23-26
    Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-G.

    23 Gorillas, unlike other primates,
    24 Fish colour and eye position
    25 Most plant climbers
    26 In the past some experts

    A appear to have been against left-handedness
    B are usually the same in both hemispheres
    C are apparently not always dependent on hemisphere
    D seem to have difficulty using both hands
    E looked on left-handedness with indifference
    F tend to grow clockwise rather that anti-clockwise
    G seem to use their left-hand more

    Question 27
    Choose the correct letter A, B, C, D or E. Write your answer in box 27 on your answer sheet.

    Which of the following is the most suitable title for Reading Passage 2?
    A Left-handedness and primates
    B A defence of right-handedness
    C A defence of left-handedness
    D Left-handedness and good luck
    E Left-handedness and bad luck

    Physician Rule Thyself

    A When is an occupation a profession? There appears to be no absolute definition, but only different ways of looking at the issue, from historical, cultural, sociological, moral, political, ethical or philosophical viewpoints. It is often said that professions are elites who undertake specialized, selfless work, in accordance with ethical codes, and that their work is guaranteed by examination and a licence to practise. In return, however, they request exclusive control over a body of knowledge, freedom to practise, special rewards and higher financial and economic status.

    B The public needs experts to offer them specialist advice, but because this advice is specialized they are not in a position to know what advice they need: this has to be defined in conversation with the professional. Professional judgement could be at odds with client satisfaction since the latter cannot then be “the chief measure of whether the professional has acted in a trustworthy fashion.” Professional elites have negative potential: to exploit their power and prestige for economic goals; to allow the search for the necessary theoretical or scientific knowledge to become an end in itself; to lose sight of client well-being in the continuing fragmentation of specialist knowledge.

    C Professions in different cultures are subject to different levels of state intervention, and are shaped by this. In England our relatively weak state and the organic growth of professional groups, many of them licensed by Royal Charter, means that regulation became an arrangement among elites. Similarly, in the US, where liberal market principles have had a free rein, academic institutions have had more influence than the state in the development of the professions. By contrast, in many European countries the state has defined and controlled the market for the professions since the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries. In all cases, the activities of the professions affect public interest, and so the state has a legitimate interest in them.

    D In general, the higher the social status of a profession the greater the degree of public trust in it, and the more freedom to operate it enjoys. There are, however, certain features which appear to be common to most, if not all, professions. In addition to a specialised knowledge base, it appears that there is an agreed set of qualifications and experience which constitutes a licence to practise. There is also frequently an agreed title or form of address, coupled with a particular, often conservative, public image, and an accepted mode of dress. Standards are maintained mainly through self-regulatory bodies. Also, financial rewards may be increased through private practice.

    E Within different cultures, and at different times, the relative status of different professions may vary. For example, in Western Europe, the status of politicians has been in long-term decline since the middle of the twentieth century. Teachers would appear to have higher status in France and Italy than in the UK, where medicine and the law have traditionally been the ‘elite professions’.

    F The higher a profession’s social status the more freedom it enjoys. Therefore, an occupation wanting to maintain or improve its status will try to retain as much control as possible over its own affairs. As in so many other areas, socio-cultural change has affected the professions considerably in recent years. Market forces and social pressures have forced professionals to be more open about their modes of practice. In addition, information technology has enabled the public to become much better informed, and therefore more demanding. Moreover, developments in professional knowledge itself have forced a greater degree of specialisation on experts, who constantly have to retrain and do research to maintain their position.

    G Self-regulation then becomes an even more important thing for a profession to maintain or extend. But in whose interests? Is self-regulation used to enable a profession to properly practise without undue interference, or is it used to maintain the status of the profession for its own ends? Is it used to enable those with appropriate education and training to join the profession? Another question that needs to be answered is whether self-regulation restricts access so that the profession retains its social and economic privileges? Or again is it used to protect clients by appropriately disciplining those who have transgressed professional norms, or to protect the public image of the profession by concealing allegations that would damage it?

    H These are all questions which the medical profession in the UK has recently had to address, and which remain the subject of continuing debate. One thing is clear, however: the higher a profession’s status, the better equipped it is to meet these challenges.

    Questions 28-32
    Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs A-H.
    Which paragraph contains the following information?

    28 how professionals have adjusted to socio-cultural developments
    29 the typical characteristics that a profession has
    30 the role that is played by governments in different countries
    31 a description of the relationship between professionals and their clients
    32 the fact that there is no clear definition of what a profession is

    Questions 33-37
    Complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    33 Professionals cannot always ensure that the………………………………given will satisfy the client.
    34 Liberal market principles in the US have meant that the state has had less impact on the development of the professions than………………………………
    35 An agreed set of qualifications and experience give professionals a…………………………..
    36 Over the past 50 years or so, the status of politicians has been in………………………………
    37 There is a doubt as to whether………………………………………..is a mechanism to safeguard a profession’s social and economic privileges.

    Questions 38-40

    Complete the table below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

    FactorsImplications
    Various public influencesprofessionals (38)…………………about work
    Modern technologypeople more knowledgeable and so more (39)………………
    Progress in professional knowledgea greater degree of (40)………………..needed
  • IELTS Reading Practice Test – Exercise 66

    Seaweed For Human Consumption

    Seaweeds are algae that live in the sea or in brackish water. Scientists often call them ‘benthic marine algae’, which just means ‘attached algae that live in the sea’. Seaweeds come in three basic colours: red, green, and brown: dulse is the red seaweed; sea lettuce is amongst the green algae; and the brown is a wrack. Red and brown algae are almost exclusively marine, whilst green algae are also common in freshwater and in terrestrial situations. Many of these algae are very ancient organisms, and although lumped together as ‘algae’ are not actually closely related, having representatives in four of the five kingdoms of organisms. There are about 10,500 species of seaweeds, of which 6,500 are red algae (Rhodophyta).

    The trend today is to refer to marine algae used as food as ‘sea-vegetables’. The main species used in Ireland at present are dulse, carrageen moss, and various kelps and wracks. Dulse – also known as dillisk in a number of areas – is a red alga that is eaten on both sides of the North Atlantic. Generally only eaten in Ireland after it has been dried, it is frequently sold in small packets, most commonly in the west and north. About 16 tonnes are used in Ireland at present; the species is also eaten in Canada, Iceland, Norway, France and Scotland. About 53 tonnes of carrageen moss were gathered in Ireland in 1994.

    Whilst dulse and carrageen moss are worthy sea- vegetables with a history of utilisation and a small but proven market, other species also show considerable promise. Our kelp resources are considerably under-utilised. All of the kelp species are edible but Laminaria saccharina is probably the most palatable as it has a somewhat sweet taste, probably due to its high levels of mannitol, and it also cooks better.

    Two other brown algae with potential as food are currently under investigation by us: Himanthalia elongata, known in some places as thongweed, and Alaria esculenta, also known as dabberlocks or murlins. Himanthalia is eaten in France after drying or pickling (‘Spaghettis de mer’), and plants are sold in Ireland dried. After soaking in water it makes a surprisingly fine accompaniment to a mixed salad; it does not have the strong seaweedy taste that some dislike. With the aid of a basic research grant from Forbairt, the Irish research and development body, we are examining the growth and life cycle of populations of this species on the west coast. Plants are easy to collect but must be dried quickly and packaged well to preserve their excellent taste and mouth feel.

    Alaria is a large, kelp-like brown alga that grows on exposed shores. In Ireland, plants grow to considerable sizes, being found up to 6m in length in some areas, but these are dwarfed by some Pacific species that may grow to 18m in length and to 2m in width. With Marine Research Measure funding, a study of the possibility of developing fast-growing hybrids of this species by crossing species from the Atlantic and Pacific is being carried out. We have growing in culture isolates of A. esculenta from Ireland, Scotland, France, Norway, and Atlantic Canada and other species from British Columbia and Japan. Species of this genus are ideal for cross-breeding studies as the males and females are tiny filamentous plants that are relatively easy to grow and propagate in culture under red light which stimulates reproduction in our growth rooms. Male and female reproductive structures occur on different plants so that we can put plants from one country in with those from another to see if they are sexually compatible.

    To date, we have obtained interesting results with A. praelonga, a large species from japan that co-operates sexually with A. esculenta from the Aran Islands and other Irish sites. The resulting Irish/japanese progeny are grown initially in sample bottles agitated on a small shaker and their growth rates compared with plants that have resulted from self crosses. Preliminary results are very encouraging, with hybrid plants showing relatively high growth rates. We hope by this method to obtain sterile hybrids that will not reproduce in the wild so that we can introduce foreign genetic material without the fear that some sort of a traffic will be introduced that will take over the west coast of Ireland.

    While studies of these two food species are very promising, we must bear in mind that the market for such sea-vegetables is very small and needs development and investment. Nutritionally, sea-vegetables are as good as any land-vegetable and are superior in their vitamin, trace element and even protein content. The increase in catholic food tastes in Europe should see greater utilisation of sea-vegetables in the next 20 years.

    Questions 1-5
    Classify the following features as characterizing
    A brown algae
    B green algae
    C red algae
    D brown and red algae

    Write correct letter A, B, C or D in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.
    1 are being investigated as possible food sources.
    2 are now called sea-vegetables.
    3 make up more than half of all seaweed species.
    4 are found on land and in freshwater.
    5 are nearly all marine.

    Questions 6-9

    Complete the table below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.

    Types of brown algaeHimanthalia elongateAlaria esculenta
    Potentialfoodfood
    Common namethongweeddabberlocks or (6)……………….
    Research fundedwith a (7)……………….from Fortbairtby marine research measure
    Purposeto examine growth and life cycle populationscreation of fast growing (8)……………..
    Advantageeasy to collectjust right for (9)……………….

    Questions 10-13
    Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

    10 What does the red light in the growth rooms do?
    11 What are initial growth rates shown to be?
    12 What does the sea-vegetable market need?
    13 What increasingly should lead to greater consumption of sea-vegetables?

    Designing And Shipping After The Restriction Of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) Directive

    1 Almost two months after the European Union’s ban on the use of six environmentally unfriendly materials went into effect, designers have clear evidence that failure to meet the Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) directive means lost sales. Palm Inc. recently announced that its Treo 650 smart phone is no longer being shipped to Europe, since it doesn’t meet RoHS requirements. And several Apple Computer Inc. products will not be sold in Europe for the same reason.

    2 The EU directive, which took effect on 1st July, covers lead, mercury, cadmium, hexavalent chromium, polybrominated biphenyls and polybrominated diphenyl ethers. Electronics vendors worldwide are working to eliminate those substances from nearly all new products developed for the European market, while also adapting their manufacturing processes to a lead (Pb)-free environment.

    3 But that is only the beginning. Other countries, including China, Taiwan and South Korea, and certain U.S. states are creating their own “green” or RoHS-like legislation. That means RoHS compliance must become an integral part of a designer’s development process, with RoHS checks at each step: concept, development, prototype, first builds and volume production.

    4 Major companies will run the gamut from finding component databases of qualified green components to taking due care to prove compliance and developing processes that allow for the higher-temperature requirements of Pb-free manufacturing. And for designers, those are just the tip of the iceberg. A host of technical and reliability issues remain to be sorted out in Pb-free board processing and soldering.

    5 What it comes down to is what Ken Stanvick, senior vice president at Design Chain Associates, calls a lack of ‘tribal knowledge’ on design RoHS- compliant systems. ‘We had a great tribal knowledge when it came to dealing with leaded systems, but we haven’t built up that same amount of knowledge for Pb-free,’ he said. ‘Every problem will be blamed on Pb-free until it’s been worked out. We need to figure out tests that replicate more of the environment and different stresses that we’re going to see in this new system.’

    6 Manny Marcano, president and CEO of EMA Design Automation Inc. (Rochester, N.Y.), cited the impact of parts obsolescence, including the need to redesign older products and the resultant emphasis on component engineering at the expense of conceptual design. A key challenge is identifying RoHS design specifications as early as possible in the design process, he said.

    7 But even before they get to that point, designers must understand whether they are designing a fully compliant product or one that’s subject to some exemptions, said Robert Chinn, director for consultant firm PRTM (Mountain View, Calif.). This affects their design parameters,’ he said. ‘Previously, they looked at components based on size, performance, electrical parameters, features and functionality. Now they have to add on a new constraint, revolving around environmental compliance: Is it RoHS 6-compliant or is it RoHS 5-compliant?’ (RoHS 6 components eliminate all six of the banned substances, while RoHS 5 models, because of exemptions, still contain lead.)

    8 If designers do not take RoHS seriously, any country that can prove a product does not comply can levy fines against the vendor. That can cost market share, Marcano said, since noncompliant companies become noncompetitive. And then, not being prepared can mean belatedly diverting resources to RoHS compliance, causing missed market opportunities.

    9 But many industry observers believe smaller and medium-size companies will continue to be complacent about the RoHS transition until some major company is cited for non-compliance. ‘When that happens, there will be an earthquake throughout the industry, and it will wake up every design engineer,’ said Steve Schultz, director of strategic planning and communications at Avnet Logistics and program manager for the distributor’s compliance efforts for RoHS in the Americas.

    10 ‘The product developer’s RoHS concerns center on the fear of lost revenue – from a product ban, a customer who demands a RoHS-compliant product that the company doesn’t have, or competition’, said Harvey Stone, managing director for consultancy GoodBye Chain Group (Colorado Springs, Colo.). ‘With price, quality and service being relatively equal, a savvy customer is going to choose a RoHS-compliant product,’ he said.

    11 Meanwhile, designers are looking over their shoulders at several other – and potentially stricter – environmental regulations in the pipeline. These include the EU’s Registration, Evaluation and Authorization of Chemicals legislation, which could restrict the use of thousands of chemicals, and its Energy¬using Products (EuP) directive, which will initially target energy-efficiency requirements.

    Questions 14-17
    Look at the following people and the list of statements below. Match each person with the correct statement.
    Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

    14 Manny Marcano
    15 Harvey Stone
    16 Steve Shultz
    17 Ken Stanvick

    List of Statements
    A believes that the EU directive requires no action
    B claims that old products need to be redesigned
    C claims that customers will want a RoHS compliant product
    D states that many products will be RoHS exempt
    E is involved in planning and communications
    F predicts that design engineers will like RoHS
    G claims that more knowledge about Pb-free systems is needed

    Questions 18-24
    Complete the summary using the list of words A-P below. Write the correct letter A-P in boxes 18-24 on your answer sheet.

    The EU has banned the use of six materials that are (18)……………………….to the environment. This means that if designers do not meet the Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) directive, sales will (19)……………………….Similar legislation is being put together around the world, which indicates that RoHS compliance needs to become a (20)……………………….part of a designer’s development process. RoHS checks at every step from concept to mass production is also a necessity. But (21)…………………………technical and reliability problems remain to be (22)……………………. Previously, the performance etc. of components were (23)…………………………but now a new (24)………………………needs to be taken into account: environmental compliance.

    A requirementB friendlyC hostileD increase
    E bigF basicG insignificantH numerous
    I varietyJ declineK solvedL important
    M ideaN smallO reconginzedP need

    Questions 25-27
    Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 2?
    In boxes 25-27 on your answer sheet write

    TRUE                       if the statement agrees with the information
    FALSE                     if the statement contradicts the information
    NOT GIVEN          if there is no information about the statement

    25 Countries can impose fines on the sellers of products that do not comply with RoHS.
    26 Smaller companies are taking the changeover to RoHS seriously.
    27 The Energy-using directive will be introduced in the very near future.

    Seeing The Future In With Video Conferencing

    A Video-conferencing (or Video tele-conferencing-VTC) as a means of communication intra- and inter-business has essentially been possible since the dawn of television. But the early systems, first demonstrated in 1968, were in fact so prohibitively expensive and of such poor picture quality that they were not viable applications for general public use.

    B However, in the 1980s, digital telephone networks like ISDN began to proliferate, so that by the 1990s the decrease in cost brought the equipment necessary for video-conferencing within the reach of the masses. The 1990s also saw the arrival of IP (Internet Protocol) based video-conferencing with more efficient video compression technologies being introduced, thus permitting desktop, or personal computer (PC)-based video-conferencing. VTC had come on the scene in a big way as free services, web plugins and software, such as NetMeeting, and MSN Messenger, Skype and others brought cheap, albeit low- quality, VTC to the public at large.

    C Video-conferencing has been disparaged for the lack of eye-contact that can affect the efficacy of the medium and for the fact that participants can be camera conscious. But these obstacles are not insurmountable. The size of modern televisions along with the vast improvement in picture quality as a result of the arrival of the digital age has enhanced the potential of the latest video-conferencing equipment, going somewhat towards solving the former problem. Early studies by Alphonse Chapanis found that the addition of video hindered rather than improved communication. However, as with video and sound recording of meetings, interviews etc. awareness of the presence of the technology diminishes with time to the point that its presence is not felt. A further drawback common to all technology is the ever present possibility of technical hitches. But in the end video-conferencing is no different from any electronic device like a PC or a telephone and so in time, any problems will be ironed out.

    D Conferencing by video has enhanced the performance of different organizations through its efficiency and effectiveness, saving both time and money for businesses and, in this carbon-conscious age, by the reduction in the environmental cost of business travel from one corner of the world to another. These apart, video-conferencing has an immediacy that is difficult to challenge. It is now essential in any work situation where organizations with employees on different sites or in different parts of the globe can contact each other rapidly. Like a telephone line permanently connected it is easy to dial up a colleague in seconds anywhere in the world.

    E And what about the equipment? The equipment for video-conferencing is relatively straightforward to use. It has, in fact, been commonplace in the news media for a number of years as corporations have broadcast live from the back of a truck or van in news hotspots around the world. Two ISDN lines are needed at each location: one for video output and the other for video input; a high quality camera with omnidirectional microphones or microphones which can be hand-held, clipped on or central are required; and for data transfer a LAN is also needed. And, of course, a television screen at each end is essential.

    F The potential use of video-conferencing in the educational field has yet to be fully exploited. In this day and age when academic institutions are supposed to be more revenue conscious and much more flexible, video-conferencing could be employed to bring business into the educational field and vice versa. The system can also be used to take expertise anywhere in the world. It is no longer necessary for experts to travel vast distances for conferences or to teach. In certain areas, say remote islands like the Outer Hebrides in Scotland or the Cape Verde Islands off West Africa, where it may be difficult to find teachers in specialist subjects like languages, video-conferencing is a perfect way to bring education within the reach of everyone. Video-conferencing is certainly not a panacea for every problem, not an end in itself, but a useful tool that can complement rather than supplant existing teaching methods.

    G Like the electronic or smart whiteboard, whose introduction in the classroom has met with resistance, video-conferencing may take some time to become mainstream, if ever. But, perhaps with the mounting concern about our carbon footprint, the environment will ultimately be the biggest spur. A sobering thought is whether classrooms and offices of the future will consist solely of TV screens.

    Questions 28-33
    Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs A-G. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A and C-G.

    List of Headings
    i Some criticisms of video-conferencing
    ii The future of conferencing by video
    iii The transmission of education to remote areas
    iv The first stages of video-conferencing
    v The necessity of having two TVs
    vi How video-conferencing can benefit organizations
    vii How video-conferencing became more accessible to the general public
    viii The various pieces of equipment needed
    ix The lack of exploitation of video-conferencing in education

    Example: Paragraph B                   Answer vii

    28 Paragraph A
    29 Paragraph C
    30 Paragraph D
    31 Paragraph E
    32 Paragraph F
    33 Paragraph G

    Questions 34-36
    Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

    34 Video-conferencing was not common initially because of
    A the cost and poor image quality
    B poor advertising and marketing
    C the lack of skilled technicians
    D constant electronic failures

    35 Video-conferencing became more practical on personal computers once
    A the Internet became more widespread
    B the picture quality became perfect
    C the software became free for the general public
    D video compression technology worked better

    36 Video-conferencing has been attacked for
    A several problems that cannot be solved
    B the lack of large TV screens
    C there not being direct eye contact
    D the failure of new digital technology

    Questions 37-39
    Choose THREE letters A-F.

    Which THREE of the following statements are true of video-conferencing?
    A It is cost-effective for businesses to use.
    B Operating VC equipment is not complicated.
    C It will solve many problems in the classroom.
    D More people now have the necessary skills to use video-conferencing.
    E Modern equipment rarely breaks down.
    F People in remote areas can have expertise taken to them.

    Question 40
    Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

    40 The writer concludes that the success of video-conferencing in the classroom
    A is less likely than that of the whiteboard
    B will certainly be short-lived
    C may be linked to many unknown factors
    D may finally depend on the environment