Author: theieltsbridge

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 49

    Part 1: Questions 1-5
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    1. What is Harry’s problem?
     A he does not want to sell his things
     B he needs to decide what to do with his possessions
     C he wants to take everything to England

    2. Which of the items below does Harry want to sell?

     A
     B
     C

    3. Where is Harry going to advertise his books for sale?
     A In the university bookshop.
     B In the student newspaper.
     C in the economics department

    4. Andrea thinks it is unlikely students will buy the furniture because…
     A they’re all doing the same thing.
     B they live at home.
     C it’s the summer vacation.

    5. Andrea thinks that a second hand shop…
     A may not pay well.
     B may not take your goods
     C may only take free goods

    Questions 6-10
    Complete Harry’s notes using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Things to do:
    • (6)  furniture etc. in Trading Post
    • (7)  or sell kitchen things
    • Get (8)  first from second hand shop
    • Give clothes to (9)  shop
     (10)  fridge and microwave to Andrea

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. What can visitors use free of charge?
     A pushchairs
     B child carriers
     C coats and bags

    12. Which of the following can visitors buy at the shop?
     A coins
     B refreshments
     C postcards

    13. When did the Grand Opening of the baths occur?
     A 1894
     B 1897
     C 1994

    14. The Romans built on the site
     A after the Celts
     B before the Celts
     C at the same time as the Celts

    Questions 15-20
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    The Great Bath is (15)  deep. Around the bath area are alcoves where there were (16)  and tables where bathers could relax. The water temperature of the Sacred Spring is (17)  The water is rich in (18)  In Roman times, the Sacred Spring was well known for its (19)  The Temple was constructed between (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    21. The best days for engineering students are 
    22. Students can get useful suggestions about 
    23. Use the internet to look at  before the event.

    Questions 24-27
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    24. Fergus says that
     A there is one company he is particularly interested in
     B he has done some research already
     C he knows the boss at one of the companies

    25. The tutor thinks Fergus should
     A prepare questions in advance
     B research the skills required for jobs before the event
     C find out what the starting salaries are

    26. Fergus plans
     A to wear a suit and tie
     B to wear smart but casual clothes
     C to buy an outfit for the event

    27. The tutor suggests that Fergus
     A should ask particular people certain questions
     B should avoid taking free gifts
     C should treat conversations like short interviews

    Questions 28-30
    Choose THREE letters A-F.

    Why do the tutor and Fergus think it is useful to attend a jobs fair?

     A to get a job
     B to find out what employers want from you
     C to give employers your contact details
     D to discover which are the key companies to work for
     E to practice your communication skills
     F to make useful contacts

    Part 4: Question 31
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. At the start of her talk Rebecca points out that new graduates can find it hard to
     A get the right work
     B take sufficient breaks
     C motivate themselves

    Questions 32 and 33
    Circle TWO letters A-D.

    Which TWO of the following does Rebecca say worry new artists

     A earning enough money
     B moving to a new environment
     C competing with other artists
     D having their work criticized

    Questions 34 and 35
    Circle the correct letter A, B or C.

    34. Rebecca decided to become an illustrator because it
     A afforded her greater objectivity as an artist
     B offered her greater freedom of expression
     C allowed her to get her work published

    35. When she had developed a portfolio of illustrations, Rebecca found publishers
     A more receptive to her work
     B equally cautious about her work
     C uninterested in her work

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Suggestions for Developing a Portfolio

    Get some artwork printed in magazines by entering (36) 

    Also you can (37)  and  mock up book pages.

    Make an effort to use a variety of artistic (38) 

    Aim for recognition by dividing work into distinct (39) 

    Possibly use (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 48

    Part 1: Questions 1 and 2
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    Advice on plumbers and decorators
    • Don’t call a plumber during the (1) 
    • Look at trade website: www. (2)  .com

    Questions 3-10
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

    NamePositive pointsNegative points
    Peake’s Plumbing– pleasant and friendly
    – give (3)………….information
    – good quality work
    – always (4)………………
    John Damerol Plumbing Services– (5)…………..than other companies
    – reliable
    – not very polite
    – tends to be (6)………………
    Simonson Platerers– able to do lots of different (7)……………..– more (8)…………….than other companies
    H.L. Plaster– reliable
    – also able to do…………………
    – prefers not to use long (10)………………..

    (3)                           (4)  
    (5)                           (6)  
    (7)                           (8)  
    (9)                          (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-15
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. On Monday what will be the students’ working day?
     A 9 am – 5 pm
     B 8.45 am – 5 pm
     C 9 am – 4.45 pm

    12. While working in the museum students are encouraged to wear
     A formal clothing such as a suit
     B cap with the museum logo
     C their own casual clothes

    13. If students are ill or going to be late they must inform
     A the museum receptionist
     B their museum supervisor
     C their school placement tutor

    14. The most popular task while on work placement is usually
     A making presentations in local primary schools
     B talking to elderly people in care homes
     C conducting workshops in the museum

    15. The best form of preparation before starting their work placement is to read
     A the history of the museum on the website
     B the museum regulations and safety guidance
     C notes made by previous work placement students

    Questions 16-20
    Label the plan below. Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 16-20.

    Where in the museum are the following places?
    16. Sign-in office  
    17. Gallery 1  
    18. Key box  
    19. Kitchen area  
    20. Staff noticeboard  

    Part 3: Questions 21-26

    What is the tutor’s opinion of the following company projects?

    Choose FIVE answers from the box, and write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 21-26.

    Tutor’s opinion
    A It would be very rewarding for the student.
    B It is too ambitious.
    C It would be difficult to evaluate.
    D It wouldn’t be sufficiently challenging.
    E It would involve extra costs.
    F It is beyond the student’s current ability.
    G It is already being done by another student.
    H It would probably have the greatest impact on the company.

    Company projects
    21. Customer database 
    22. Online sales catalogue 
    23. Payroll 
    24. Stock inventory 
    25. Internal security 
    26. Customer services 

    Questions 27-28
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO problems do Sam and the tutor identify concerning group assignments?

     A Personal relationships.
     B Cultural differences.
     C Division of labour.
     D Group leadership.
     E Group size.

    Questions 29-30
    Choose TWO letters, A-E.

    Which TWO problems does Sam identify concerning the lecturers?

     A Punctuality.
     B Organisation.
     C Accessibility.
     D Helpfulness.
     E Teaching materials.

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    The Tawny Owl
    Most (31)  owl species in UK

    Strongly nocturnal

    Habitat:

    Mainly lives in (32)  but can also be seen in urban areas, e.g. parks.

    Adaptations:

    • Short wings and (33)  , for navigation
    • Brown and (34)  feathers, for camouflage
    • Large eyes (more effective than those of (35)  ), for good night vision
    • Very good spatial (36)  for predicting where prey might be found
    • Excellent (37)  for locating prey from a perch

    Diet

    Main food is small mammals.

    Owls in urban areas eat more (38) 

    Survival

    Two thirds of young owls die within a (39) 

    Owls don’t disperse over long distances.

    Owls seem to dislike flying over large areas of (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 47

    Part 1: Questions 1-10
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Notes for holiday
    Travel information: will email the flight number

    • Must find out which (1)  arriving at
    • Best taxi company (2) 
    • Note: Simon lives in the (3)  of the city
    • Simon’s cell phone number (4) 

    What to pack
    To wear:
    • Casual clothes
    • One smart dress – to wear at a (5) 
    • A good (6) 
    • Tough (7) 

    To read:
    • Try to find book named (8)  by Rox Campbell

    For presents:
    • For Janice (9) 
    • For Alec (10)  (with racing pictures)

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    Camber’s theme park
    11. According to the speaker, in what way is Camber’s different from other theme parks?
     A it is suitable for different age groups
     B it offers lots to do in wet weather
     C it has a focus on education

    12. The park first opened in
     A 1980
     B 1997
     C 2004

    13. What is included in the entrance fee?
     A most rides and parking
     B all rides and some exhibits
     C parking and all rides

    14. Becoming a member of the Adventurers Club means
     A you can avoid queuing so much
     B you can enter the park free for a year
     C you can visit certain zones closed to other people

    15. The Future Farm zone encourages visitors to
     A buy animals as pets
     B learn about the care of animals
     C get close to the animals

    16. When is hot food available in the park?
     A 10 am – 5.30 pm
     B 11 am – 5 pm
     C 10.30 am – 5 pm

    Questions 17-20

    What special conditions apply to the following rides?

    Choose FOUR answers from the list below and write correct letter A-F next to the questions 17-20

    Special conditions for visitors
    A Must be over a certain age
    B Must use special safety equipment
    C Must avoid it if they have health problems
    D Must wear a particular type of clothing
    E Must be over a certain height
    F Must be accompanied by an adult if under 16

    Rides
    17. River Adventure 
    18. Jungle Jim Rollercoaster 
    19. Swoop Slide 
    20. Zip Go-carts 

    Part 3: Questions 21 and 22
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO things do Brad and Helen agree to say about listening in groups?
     A Listening skills are often overlooked in business training
     B Learning to listen well is a skill that is easy for most people to learn
     C It is sometimes acceptable to argue against speakers
     D Body language is very important when listening
     E Listeners should avoid interrupting speakers

    Questions 23 and 24
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO things does the article say about goal setting?
     A Meetings should start with a clear statement of goals
     B It is important for each individual’ goals to be explained
     C Everybody in the group should have the same goals
     D Goals should be a mix of the realistic and the ideal
     E Goals must always to be achievable within a set time

    Questions 25 and 26
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO things do Brad and Helen agree are weak points in the article’s section on conflict resolution?
     A It does not explore the topic in enough detail
     B It only discusses conservative views
     C It says nothing about the potential value of conflict
     D It talks too much about winners and losers
     E It does not provide definitions of key terms

    Questions 27-30

    What actions do Brad and Helen agree to do regarding the following preparation tasks?

    Choose FOUR answers from the list below and write the correct letter A-F next to questions 27-30.

    Action
    A Contact the tutor for clarification
    B Check the assignment specifications
    C Leave it until the last task
    D Ask a course-mate to help
    E Find information on the internet
    F Look through course handbooks

    Preparation tasks
    27. Preparing the powerpoint 
    28. Using direct quotations 
    29. Creating a handout 
    30. Drawing up a bibliography 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    Engineering for sustainable development

    Problem
    • Short growing season because of high altitude and low (31) 
    • Fresh vegetables imported by lorry or by (32)  , so are expensive
    • Need to use sunlight to prevent local plants from (33) 
    • Previous programmes to provide greenhouses were (34) 

    New greenhouse

    Meets criteria for sustainability
    • Simple and (35)  to build
    • Made mainly from local materials (mud or stone for the walls, wood and (36)  for the roof)
    • Building and maintenance done by local craftsmen
    • Runs solely on (37)  energy
    • Only families who have a suitable (38)  can own one

    Design
    • Long side faces South
    • Strong polythene cover
    • Inner (39)  are painted black or white

    Social benefits
    • Owners’ status is improved
    • Rural (40)  have greater opportunities
    • More children are educated

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 46

    HOLIDAY RENTALS DATES (EXAMPLE) : 10 – 22 JULY
    Name of propertyLocationFeaturesDisadvantagesBooking details
    (1)…………………..– Rural
    – Surrounded by (2)……………..
    – Apartment
    – Two bedrooms
    – Open plan
    Distance from (3)………………..www.(4)……….com
    Kingfisher– Rural
    – Next to the (5)…………..
    – Nice views
    – House
    – Three bedrooms
    – (6)…………rooms
    – Living room
    – Kitchen
    Expensivephone the owner (01752669218)
    Sunnybanks– In a village
    – Next to the (7)…………….
    – House
    – Has private (8)…………………..
    No (9)……………………Contact the (10)…………………

    (1)                           (2)  
    (3)                           (4)  
    (5)                           (6)  
    (7)                           (8)  
    (9)                          (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    11. According to the speaker, why is it a good time for D-I-Y painting?
     A there are better products available now
     B materials cost less than they used to
     C people have more free time than before

    12. What happened in 2009 in the UK?
     A a record volume of paint was sold
     B a large amount of paint was wasted
     C there was a major project to repaint public buildings

    13. What does the speaker say about paint quantity?
     A it is not necessary to have exact room measurements
     B it is better to overestimate than to underestimate
     C an automatic calculator can be downloaded from the internet

    14. What does Community RePaint do?
     A it paints people’s houses without payment
     B it collects unwanted paint and gives it away
     C it sells unused paint and donates the money to charity

    Questions 15 and 16
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about paint?
     A do not buy expensive paint
     B test the color before buying a lot
     C choose a light color
     D use water-based paint
     E buy enough paint for more than one application

    Questions 17 and 18
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about preparation?
     A replace any loose plaster
     B don’t spend too long preparing surfaces
     C use decorators’ soap to remove grease from walls
     D wash dirty walls with warm water
     E paint over cracks and small holes

    Questions 19 and 20
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    What TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about painting?
     A put a heater in the room
     B wash brushes in cold water
     C use a roller with a short pile
     D apply paint directly from the tin
     E open doors and windows

    Part 3: Questions 21-26
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    21. Why is Matthew considering a student work placement?
     A he was informed about an interesting vacancy
     B he needs some extra income
     C he want to try out a career option

    22. Which part of the application process did Linda find most interesting?
     A the psychometric test
     B the group activity
     C the individual task

    23. During her work placement, Linda helped find ways to
     A speed up car assembly
     B process waste materials
     C calculate the cost of design faults

    24. Why did Linda find her work placement tiring?
     A she was not used to full time work
     B the working hours were very long
     C she felt she had to prove her worth

    25. What did Linda’s employers give her formal feedback on?
     A engineering ability
     B organizational skills
     C team working

    26. What was the main benefit of Linda’s work placement?
     A improved academic skills
     B an offer of work
     C the opportunity to use new software

    Questions 27-30
    What does Linda think about the books on Matthew’s reading list?

    Choose FOUR answers from the list and write next to questions 27-30.

    Options
    A helpful illustrations
    B easy to understand
    C up to date
    D comprehensive
    E specialized
    F useful case studies

    Books
    27. The Science of Materials 
    28. Materials Engineering 
    29. Engineering Basics 
    30. Evolution of Materials 

    Part 4: Questions 31-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Animal hides – two types
    Parchment
    Sheep skin: white in color and (31) 
    Greasy – writing cannot be erased so often used for (32) 

    Vellum
    Calf skin: most popular for prestigious work because you can get (33)  lettering

    Preparation of hides:
    • Treated in berries of lime – where this was not available skins were (34)  (removed hair)
    • Stretched tight on a frame
    • Scraped to create same (35) 
    • Vellum was (36)  – for correct color

    Genetic testing – finding origins
    Previously – analysed handwriting and (37)  used by the writer

    Now – using genetic data from ‘known manuscripts’ to create a (38) 

    Uses of new data
    Gives information on individual books

    Shows the (39)  of the book industry

    Helps define (40)  in medieval period

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 45

    Part 1: Questions 1-6
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

    Cell phone packages

    Type of plans: pre-paid, 24-month contract plans

    Prepaid plans: without (1) 

    SIM cards: 15 minutes of (2) 

    Minimal plan: $12, 40 minutes and without (3) 

    Social plan: $40, 200 minutes, (4)  and 2GB data

    (5)  plan: 5 numbers, free talking and texting, $70 and 3GB data

    Changing plans: at any time, in person and access the (6) 

    Questions 7-10
    Complete the sales form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Sales form

    Plan: social plan

    Phone number: (7) 047 – 

    Customer name: (8) 

    Address: 375, Thompson (9) 

    Total payment: $42.50

    Payment method: (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-17
    Label the plan below. Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 11-17.

    11. Shoe rack 
    12. Carpet 
    13. Bookcase 
    14. Dress-upcupboard 
    15. Cubbyholes 
    16. Climbing walls 
    17. Chickens 

    Questions 18-20
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    18. The official ratio of adults to children who are two or older is one adult to  children.
    19. Parents who are often late may be asked to 
    20. The quickest waiting time for a place in the Day Care is 

    Part 3: Questions 21-25
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    21. Students must follow  to prevent accidents in the lab.
    22. The students have not been using  while in the lab.
    23. Students cannot eat or drink until  is finished and they have washed their hands.
    24. Tessa should tie her hair back to avoid danger when she is working with a  or chemicals.
    25. Students must wear long sleeves and shoes made of  in the lab.

    Questions 26-28
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    26. Which student is currently using an appropriate notebook?
     A Vincent
     B Tessa
     C Neither

    27. The tutor says that writing observations in complete sentences
     A is often not a good use of time
     B makes them easier to interpret later
     C means that others can understand them

    28. The students must write dates
     A next to each drawing
     B next to each written section
     C next to each drawing and written section

    Questions 29 and 30
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which TWO things must be included in the conclusion to the experiment?
     A the questions investigated
     B the solutions to the questions
     C the students’ own thoughts about the experiment
     D the length of time spent on the experiment
     E the student’s signature

    Part 4: Questions 31-33
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    If soil is healthy, it is a (31)  teeming with life such as worms, fungi and bacteria. If plants are grown in poor soil, they will lack (32)  and human health will suffer. Plants are nourished by organic matter, (33)  and other essential elements which are broken down by insects and other organisms in a synergistic relationship.

    Questions 34-36
    Label the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (34) 
    (35) 
    (36) 

    Questions 37-40
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Conventional farming methodsOrganic farming methods
    – Monoculture
    – Synthetic fertilizer and chemicals used for (38)……………….
    – Genetically modified seeds
    – Pesticide and fungicide sprayed on crops after picking
    – No need for documentation of (39)……………………..
    – Crop rotation
    – Covering crops
    – Use of insects as natural (40)……………..
    – Addition of manure and green waster

    Problems:
    • Erosion
    • (37)  from various sources, including chemical fertilisers

    (38) 
    (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 44

    Part 1: Question 1
    Complete the sentence below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

    Mr. White is a personnel manager

    1. Ms. Jones got to the interview 

    Questions 2-5
    Complete the following form. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Personal details of applicant
    Full name: Penny Ann (2) 
    Citizenship: (3) 
    Date of birth: Jan 3, 1980
    Address: Flat 502, 56 (4)  Oxford
    Home phone number: (5) 
    Email address: jenny27@hotmail.com

    Question 6
    Complete the following sentence with THREE WORDS.

    6. Ms Jones has a degree in 

    Question 7
    Choose the correct letter A-C.

    7. Ms Jones says
     A her major would help her satisfy various interests
     B she was not at first interested in the health field
     C her parents helped her to select her major

    Questions 8-10
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    8. Where is Ms Jones applying for a job? 
    9. What does Mr White call companies’ threats of job losses? 
    10. What does Ms Jones say can help companies reduce costs? 

    Part 2: Questions 11-13
    Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    The headmistress will first tell her visitors about her kindergarten’s (11)  and (12) 
    Maria Montessori is an (13) 

    Questions 14-16
    Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    The headmistress says playing with toys and other things can help children to develop (14)  She says things like (15)  and (16)  should be seen as valuable resources.

    Questions 17 and 18
    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    On this map of school, A is the (17)  and B is the (18) 

    Questions 19 and 20
    Complete the following sentences. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    19. The headmistress says getting dirty in the garden is good for the children’s 
    20. There are inside the cupboard of the first classroom 

    Part 3: Questions 21 and 22
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Why was Jill late?

     A she was busy doing something for Harry and Bob
     B she needed to eat breakfast
     C she had a problem with a shoe
     D she had too many phone calls
     E because of traffic jams

    Questions 23-25
    Answer the following questions in NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

    23. Where does Jill say Bob and Harry go every night? 
    24. What does Jill say Bob and Harry should do first? 
    25. What does Jill consider her suggestions as? 

    Questions 26-28
    Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    For a few weeks, Jill wants Harry and Bob to stop (26)  and (27)  Jill wants the other two to (28)  timetable as soon as she leaves them.

    Questions 29-30
    Choose TWO letters A-F.

    Jill says

     A the time for reviewing is limited
     B when reviewing, it is best to take a five minute break every hour
     C when reviewing, one should walk around once an hour
     D reviewing separately is not a good idea
     E Harry and Bob should question each other regularly while reviewing

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Fill in the blanks on the following form. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Data collected on the town of: (31) 

    Number of households: (32) 

    (33)  : 31,000

    Average annual household income: £83,000

    No. of families with income over £50,000: (34) 

    No. of families surveyed: (35) 

    Questions 36-38
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Two types of facilities that are planned to be added in the second and third years after the school opens are (36)  and (37)  And one of the most important facilities required by most parents is a (38) 

    Questions 39 and 40
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    According to the talk which of the following are right?

     A the club does not need a large golf practice range
     B the range is close to the site of the proposed school
     C the parents insist on no computer games
     D the parents want a cafeteria selling fast food to save students’ time
     E musical instruments are included in the budget

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 43

    Part 1: Questions 1-7
    Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    CategoryDetails
    Owner’s nameBob
    Model(1)……………………….
    Color(2)……………………….
    Number of cylinders(3)……………………….
    Number of doors(4)……………………….
    Extras(5)……………………….
    Price agreed ($)(6)……………………….
    Age (years)(7)……………………….

    (1)                             (2) 
    (3)                            (4) 
    (5)                            (6) 
    (7) 

    Questions 8-10
    Choose THREE answers from the list and write correct letter A-G next to questions 8-10.

    Which THREE features does the owner say make his car worth buying?

    A lots of registration
    B being highly manoeuvrable
    C being easy to park
    D fuel efficiency
    E quick acceleration
    F good resale potential
    G smoothly running engine

    (8)   
    (9)   
    (10) 

    Part 2: Questions 11-16
    Identify the areas on the map. Write correct letter A-J next to questions 11-16.

    11. Wilsons 
    12. DVD shop 
    13. Student union office 
    14. Engineering institute 
    15. Fitness room 
    16. Bookshop 

    Questions 17-20
    Complete the timetable. Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 17-20.

    17. Yoga club 
    18. Aerobic dancing 
    19. Prayer centre 
    20. Chess club 

    Part 3: Questions 21-24
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    The most important part of a presentation is the (21)  , thus it is important to use a hook, such as a surprising fact, (22)  , or a puzzling problem. The best presenters treat their audiences as (23)  and (24)  them in the subject matter, which they make interesting.

    Questions 25-30
    Complete the presentation plan. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

    PartSubjectDetails
    One(25)…………………..contextCultural (26)………….and management styles
    TwoCurrent perspectivesComplexity of (27)………………..workplace
    ThreeMail dilemmaReview productive (28)………………..
    FourRecommendationsTheory of human (29)………………..
    FiveQuestions timePrepare answers related to industrial (30)…………………..

    (25)                           (26) 
    (27)                           (28) 
    (29)                           (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Complete the diagram labels. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

    (31)                            (32) 
    (33)                            (34) 
    (35) 

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (36)                              (37) 
    (38)                              (39) 
    (40) 

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 42

    Part 1: Questions 1-2
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Annie’s mother
     A has arthritis
     B is pleased with her new medicine
     C can hardly move her fingers
     D needs an operation on her leg
     E has medical insurance

    Question 3
    Choose the correct letter A-C

    3. Bud’s uncle
     A works at a hospital
     B will help Annie’s father get a cheap operation
     C knows some medical staff

    Questions 4 and 5
    Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Annie’s parents are finding it difficult to pay the (4)  and her sister has won a (5) 

    Questions 6 and 7
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Bud’s cousin
     A is called Mary
     B met Annie at Annie’s party
     C works at a hotel
     D wants to get promoted
     E is nice to people when she first meets them

    Questions 8 and 9
    Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Bud’s father has a (8)  to build a supermarket and all his workers have to belong to the (9) 

    Question 10
    Answer the question in ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER.

    10. How many years have Bud’s parents been married? 

    Part 2: Questions 11 and 12
    Complete the following sentences with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    The manager says people want to save money for retirement, children’s education, a (11)  and a (12) 

    Questions 13 and 14
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    The manager says how much money one should spend and how much one should save
     A depends on individual tastes
     B is clearer as one gets older
     C depends entirely on how many children one has
     D should be decided after writing out a budget for daily necessities
     E partly depends on one’s health

    Question 15
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer.

    What does the manager say you should do if you have nearly spent your budget for the month? 

    Questions 16 and 17
    Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    16. The manager refers to keeping some money in a current account for use in emergencies as a 
    17. This has been described as a voluntary tax on fools 

    Questions 18-20
    Select the correct letter A-F and write next to the questions 18 to 20.

    A Best spread of risks to meet investors’ objectives
    B Known, guaranteed returns for fixed period of time
    C Should be purchased if buyer is optimistic
    D High risk, potentially high returns
    E Always mean investment in new, small companies with excellent technologies
    F Provide steady returns

    Item
    18. Blue chip stocks 
    19. Balanced portfolios 
    20. Venture capital investments 

    Part 3: Questions 21 and 22
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Which statements are correct?
     A Bill and Jane made a video documentary on homeless people
     B Jane made a video on homeless people
     C Prof. Edwards is not clear how much his students know about video cameras
     D Few students have video cameras
     E Bill have made a video documentary on homeless people

    Question 23
    Complete the following sentence with ONE WORD ONLY.

    23. Prof. Edwards thinks he should start his video course by explaining the  of video cameras.

    Questions 24 and 25
    Choose TWO letters A-E.

    Prof. Edwards say
     A his students must each have their own video camera
     B his students cannot all afford to buy video cameras
     C his students must be creative and plan their video projects properly
     D his students need to use 3-CCD video cameras
     E the film department has enough video cameras for his students to use

    Questions 26 and 27
    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    What two uses of wide-angle shots does Prof. Edwards metion?
    (26) 
    (27) 

    Questions 28-30
    Complete the following sentences. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    28. Bill says a small hole in one’s pocket is useful for 
    29. Prof. Edwards says filming people without their knowledge raises the question of 
    30. Jane wants to even filming people without their knowledge 

    Part 4: Questions 31-33
    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    Prof. Roberts says much of history is concerned with conflict over (31)  , (32)  and (33) 

    Questions 34 and 35
    Choose the correct letter A-C.

    34. Prof Roberts implies that the concept of ‘hurting others’
     A is always perfectly clear
     B is open to different interpretations
     C becomes an issue when there is no control by government

    35. Prof. Roberts says
     A some native Americans were thieves
     B the concept of personal ownership is universal
     C the concept of ownership is now here to stay

    Questions 36-39
    Complete the following sentences. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    36. Many classical economists considered private land ownership a 
    37. Keeping land in good condition for the future is the concept of 
    38. The need to protect has led to increased restrictions on landowners’ rights in some countries 
    39. Prof. Roberts believes that is usually the best way to protect natural resources 

    Question 40
    Choose the correct letter A-C.

    40. The main difference between freehold and leasehold is
     A the duration of effective ownership
     B one applies to houses and the other to flats
     C leasehold docs not apply to land

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 41

    Part 1: Questions 1-7
    Complete the table and the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Name of cruiseHighlight cruiseNoon cruise(1)……………….cruise
    Price per person$ 16(4)……………….$ 25
    Departure times(2)………………….12.00(6)………………
    Included in the price(3)……………………(5)………………Coffee and (7)………………..

    (1)                        (2) 
    (3)                       (4) 
    (5)                       (6) 
    (7) 

    8. Jetty No.2 is situated 
    9. The commentary is in 
    10. The lady recommends that they 

    Part 2: Questions 11-14
    Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    PREPARING FOR THE INTERVIEW
    What to doHow to do it
    Step 1: Prepare things to take– Gather all documents e.g. copies of resume
    – Choose (11)……………..e.g. design, drawings, written work
    Step 2: Get more information– Check you have pen and paper
    – Ask film for a (12)…………
    – See profiles at Chamber of Commerce, library
    Step 3: Focus on you and the job– Contact (13)………………..of this or related firms
    – Compare yourself with what is required
    – Imagine likely questions and your answers
    – Decide how to make up for any (14)………….you lack

    (11)                         (12) 
    (13)                        (14) 

    Questions 15-20
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    At the interview
    Arrive no more than (15)  before the time of the interview.

    After you hear the question, you can (16)  before you reply.

    You can (17)  if you don’t understand what they are asking you.

    Wait for them to offer you the job before you say what (18)  you want.

    Learning from the experience will make you more (19)  in future interviews.

    Pay attention to your (20)  – it shows you have a positive attitude.

    Part 3: Questions 21-23
    Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    Effects of weather on mood
    21. Phil and Stella’s goal is to  the hypothesis that weather has an effect on a person’s mood.
    22. They expect to find that ‘good’ weather (weather which is  and  ) has a positive effect on a person’s mood.
    23. Stella defines ‘effect on mood’ as a  in the way a person feels.

    Questions 24-27
    What information was given by each writer? Choose you answers from the list of options A-F next to questions 24-27.

    A the benefits of moving to a warmer environment

    B the type of weather with the worst affect on mood

    C how past events affect attitudes to weather

    D the important effect of stress on mood

    E the importance of effect of hours of sunshine on modd

    F psychological problems due to having to cope with bad weather

    24. Vickers  
    25. Whitebourne  
    26. Haverton  
    27. Stanfield  

    Questions 28-30
    Choose THREE letters A-H.

    Which THREE things do Phil and Stella still have to decide on?

     A how to analyse their results
     B their methods of presentation
     C the design of their questionnaire
     D the location of their survey
     E weather variables to be measured
     F the dates of their survey
     G the size of their survey
     H the source of data on weather variables

    Part 4: Questions 31-35
    Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

    31. How long would terms be under the six-term system?
     A six weeks
     B seven weeks
     C thirteen weeks

    32. What would happen to the summer holiday?
     A it would disappear
     B it would be shortened
     C it would be lengthened

    33. How much was the average learning loss in the summer?
     A two weeks
     B three weeks
     C seven weeks

    34. In which subject was learning loss greatest among disadvantaged?
     A maths
     B reading
     C writing

    35. According to Marchmont’s research, in the six-term system pupils performed
     A better than under the existing system
     B worse than under the existing system
     C the same as under the existing system

    Questions 36-40
    Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    The school terms that we use originated when many people worked in (36)  Also because of the heat it was difficult to teach children in July and August before the invention (37)  A different approach can be provided by the (38)  An important factor in the success of these is the small (39)  Also the element of (40)  is usually present which contributes greatly.

  • IELTS Listening Practice Test – Exercise 40

    Part 1: Questions 1-6

    How does the owner answer? Write
    A if she says YES, DEFINITELY
    B if she says MAYBE
    C if she says DEFINITELY NOT

    House free of damp?   B

    1. Current gas safety certificate? 
    2. Gas inspection within last twelve months? 
    3. Electricity checked in last five years? 
    4. Sufficient electric sockets? 
    5. Fire detection equipment that works? 
    6. Previous tenants all returned keys? 

    Questions 7-10
    Choose the correct letter A-C.

    7. On which floor is the storeroom?
     A first
     B second
     C third

    8. What is the temperature of the hot water?
     A 55
     B 60
     C 70

    9. How big is the garden?
     A 20 m2
     B 90 m2
     C 150 m2

    10. What size is the television?
     A 70 cm
     B 80 cm
     C 90 cm

    Part 2: Questions 11 and 12
    Choose the correct letter A-C.

    11. At the Wildlife Haven there are not any
     A telephone or radios
     B radios or TVs
     C telephones or TVs

    12. The guests were told to
     A collect their luggage from the bus
     B wait to be shown to their rooms
     C find their own rooms

    Questions 13-15
    Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    GROUP TOURDETAILS
    Beachcombers and rock-hoppersExploring rock pools
    Guided forest walkAway from (13)……………
    Beach expeditionTo catch lunch
    Moonlight forest walkDeparts at (14)……………..
    (15)………………….Departs at sundown

    (13) 
    (14) 
    (15) 

    Questions 16-20
    Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

    What THREE items of clothing does the speaker recommend for the national park?
    (16) 
    (17) 
    (18) 

    Which TWO things in the national park does the speaker give a warning about?
    (19) 
    (20) 

    Part 3: Questions 21-30
    Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    Course: Communication in Business
    Course code: CB162
    Dates: From (21)  to (22) 

    Please give your comments on the following aspect of the course:

    Good pointsSuggestions for improvement
    Course organization– (23)…………….
    – useful to have (24)……………..at beginning of course
    – too much work in (25)……………..of the course – could be more evenly balanced
    Course delivery– good (26)…………………..– some (27)…………….sessions went too long
    Materials and equipment– good (28)…………………– not enough copies of key texts available
    – need more computers
    Testing and evaluation– quick feedback from oral presentations
    – making criteria for oral presentations known in advance
    – too much (29)……………….
    – can we know criteria for making final exams?
    Other comments– excellent (30)…………………

    (23)                         (24) 
    (25)                         (26) 
    (27)                         (28) 
    (29)                         (30) 

    Part 4: Questions 31-34
    Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

    31. Where was a Stone Age rubbish dump found? 

    32. In Medieval Times what type of waste was most common? 

    33. What did science link with waste? 

    34. Which invention is the biggest problem for the environment? 

    Questions 35-37

    List THREE factors which led to the increase in waste.

    Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

    (35) 
    (36) 
    (37) 

    Questions 38-40

    Which country uses the highest proportion of each method of waste disposal?

    Choose your answers from the options below A-F.

    A Denmark
    B Germany
    C Japan
    D Switzerland
    E UK
    F USA

    38. incineration 
    39. landfill 
    40. recycling